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BIOLOGY 171 BIO 171 / BIO171 MICROBIO EXAM BUNDLE
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BIOD 171/ BIOD171 Microbiology Lecture Exam Key 1-6
1. True or False: A virus is considered a microorganism. False. Viruses are not living and as such are not considered microorganisms. Viruses can, however... [Show More] , be classified as microbes, a more general term that includes microorganisms and viruses. 2. What is the smallest biological unit of life? A cell. 3. At a generalized level, all cells are comprised of what? Macromolecules* *A student may also answer: Proteins, Lipids, Nucleic acids and Polysaccharides but they must answer with all four to be fully correct. 1. How many different types of amino acids are available from which to make proteins? 20 2. Define an essential amino acid. An essential amino acid cannot be produced by the human body and as such must be take in from the environment through alternative sources (i.e) food. 1. What are the two major types of nucleic acids and their roles? DNA- deoxyribonucleic acid RNA- Ribonucleic acid DNA- Cellular life has DNA and a role that DNA has is long-term storage of information, it holds the characteristics of living organisms. RNA- Is the carrier of information in form of amino acid sequence. It converts the information in the DNA and synthesizes proteins1. Complete the following DNA strand and indicate how many bonds are formed for each complementary pair: 3’ GGTCATCG 5’ 5’ CC AGC 3’ 3’ GGTCATCG 5’ 5’ CCAGTAGC 3’ There are 2 bonds formed between A and T, and 3 bonds between G and C. 1. The plasma membrane (select all that are true): A. Restricts movement of materials in and out of the cell B. Is often a triple layer comprised of lipids C. Prevents essential nutrients from escaping D. Contains hydrophobic tails pointing outward A and C 2. How many carbon atoms are present in the monosaccharide glucose? A. 1 B. 3 C. 6 D. 12 C. The molecular formula of Glucose is C6H12O6 True of False: The genetic material within a prokaryotic cell is contained within a membrane-enclosed region. False. Only eukaryotic cells contain its genetic material within a nucleus True or False: Prokaryotic cells can be subdivided into Bacteria and Archaea. TrueDescribe the 4 basic bacterial morphologies. Coccus (round/spherical), bacillus (rod), vibrio (curved rod) or spirillum (spiral/corkscrew). True or False: Archaea is noted for its ability to survive under harsh conditions. True. Archaea can often be found in harsh conditions such as high salt levels, high acid conditions, high temperatures and even oxygen-poor conditions. 1. Which of the following microorganisms are considered to be Eukarya? Select all that apply. A. Animalia B. Plantae C. Fungi D. Protista A,B,C,D 2. True of False: All multicellular microorganisms classified as Animalia are heterotrophic. True 3. Microorganisms classified as Plantae obtain most of their energy by converting _____ energy into _______ energy. Light (sunlight); chemical (sugars) 1. A defining characteristic of fungi is the presence of chitin in the cell walls. Which of following also contain chitin? Select all that apply. A. Mushrooms B. Bacteria C. Yeast D. Molds A, C and D all contain chitin. 2. True or False: A defining characteristic of Protista is the inability of colonies to form tissue layers. True.1. Cell walls are found in which of the following (select all that apply): A. Plants B. Fungi C. Bacteria D. Mammalian cells E. Algae A, B, C, E 2. The function of the ribosome is (select all that apply): A. Lipid synthesis B. Protein synthesis C. To produce energy (ATP) D. Protein modification and distribution E. Waste disposal via hydrolytic enzymes B. Ribosomes are located in the cytoplasm of prokaryotic cells and in the ER of eukaryotic cells. 1. Identify the following cellular components by matching the number with the description. A. Cell wall B. Lysosome C. Centriole D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum E. Plasma membrane F. Nucleus G. Golgi apparatus1 F 2 B 3 E 4 G 5 D 1. True or False: Metabolism is a controlled set of biochemical reactions that occur in living organisms in order to maintain life. True. 2. True or False: Enzymes are polysaccharides that catalyze chemical reactions. False. Enzymes are proteins that catalyze chemical reactions. 3. What are usually metal ions known to assists enzyme during the catalysis reaction? Cofactors are usually metal ions and assist enzyme during the catalysis reaction. 1. Define catabolism. Catabolism is the process of breaking down larger molecules into useful energy sources. 2. Upon cellular injury, which metabolic process is involved during the growth and repair phases of the cell? The anabolic process would be active as it (by definition) is involved in the building up of small complexes into larger complexes. 1. Describe the energy transfer process relative to both ATP and ADP. ATP has the energy (phosphate group) to donate while ADP can accept energy in the form of a phosphate group. Thus, ATP can be reduced (ATP →ADP + Pi) while ADP can be built into ATP (ADP + Pi →ATP). 2. An organism that derives its energy (generates ATP) from photons of light is called a _________? Phototrophic microorganism. An organism that derives its energy by removing electrons from elemental sulfur would be classified as a __________?Lithotroph 4. A reactive intermediate would be present in which phosphorylation process? A. Photophosphorylation B. Substrate-level phosphorylation C. Oxidative phosphorylation B. The chemical compound losing the phosphate group is referred to as the phosphorylated reactive intermediate. 1. The catabolism of a single molecule of glucose goes through what 3 distinct transitions? The breakdown of glucose goes through (1) Glycolysis then (2) Fermentation or Respiration and finally through (3) the electron transport chain (ETC). 2. What is the most energetic transition in the catabolism of glucose? The electron transport chain yields 34 ATP while both glycolysis and fermentation (or respiration) each yield only 2 ATP. 3. Identify the reactants of the following chemical equation: Glucose + 2NAD+ → 2 NADH + 2 Pyruvate + 2 ATP The reactants are to the left of the arrow: Glucose and 2NAD+ 4. The presence of what molecule ‘signals’ to the cell that glycolysis is about to start? Glucose-6-phosphate (G6P) 5. True or False: In the absence of oxygen fermentation produces 2 ATP. False. Fermentation only reduces NADH back to NAD+ 1. What is the primary byproduct of the TCA cycle? Select all that apply. A. NAD+ B. FADC. NADH D. FADH2 C and D. The TCA cycle produces an abundance of reduced electron carriers (NADH and FADH2). 2. True or False. The reactants of the TCA cycle directly enter and fuel the electron transport system. False. The products of the TCA cycle (reduced electron carriers) enter and drive the production of ATP via the electron transport system. 1. In the absence of glucose, which of the following can be used as alternative energy sources? Select all that apply. A. Lactose B. Nucleic acids C. Carbohydrates D. Lipids A, C, D can all be used as alternative energy sources. 2. For the catabolism of proteins and lipids, which of the following enzymes are used? Select all that apply. A. Ligases B. Proteases C. Transferases D. Lipases B and D. Proteases breakdown proteins while lipases breakdown lipids. 3. True or False. The β-oxidation pathway catabolizes the fatty acid chains of lipids. True 1. Describe the relationship between chloroplasts and chlorophyll. Both chloroplasts and chlorophyll are associated with photosynthesis. Chloroplasts are the double membraneenclosed organelles that contain the photosynthetic pigment chlorophyll. 2. True or False: Chloroplasts are specific to algae and plants. True3. The process of photophosphorylation produces which of the following: select all that apply. A. ATP B. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate C. CO2 D. NADPH E. H2O A and D. 1. In phosphorylation, the light reactions always occur where? The process of converting light energy into chemical energy (photophosphorylation) always occurs in the membrane. 2. True or False: The Calvin cycle must occur in the absence of light. False. The term ‘dark reactions’ (also known as the Calvin Cycle) simply denotes the second stage in photosynthesis—dark reactions do not actually require darkness in order to occur. 1. How many turns (or repititions) of the Calvin Cycle are required to generate one molecule of glucose? Six. 2. Complete the following equation by placing the appropriate numbers where indicated. __CO2 + __ATP + __NADPH + __H20 → __C6H12O6 + __ADP + __NADP+ 6 CO2 + 18 ATP + 12 NADPH + 12 H20 → C6H12O6 + 18 ADP + 12 NADP+ 1. Match the following reactions to its corresponding enzyme: 1. A-B + H2O → A-OH + B-H 2. A-B→ B-A 3. A + B → A-B 4. A-B → A + B A- Lyases B- TransferasesC- Oxioreductaces D- Hydrolases E- Ligases F- Isomerase [Show Less]
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BIOLOGY 171 BIO 171 / BIO171 MICROBIO EXAM
1. A virus is classified as a microbe.True. Although viruses are not living and as such are not considered microorganisms, they can, however, be classified... [Show More] as microbes, a more general term that includes microorganisms and viruses. 2. True or False: The smallest biological unit of life is the molecule.False. The smallest biological unit of life is the cell. 3. What are the 4 main types of macromolecules found in cells?Proteins, Lipids, Nucleic acids and Polysaccharide 1. Proteins are formed from various combinations of of which there are known forms.Amino acids, 20 2. How many amino acids are classified as being essential amino acids?9 1. What are the two major types of nucleic acids and their roles?There are two major types of nucleic acids: DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) and RNA (ribonucleic acid). Nucleic acids are chemical molecules that carry genetic information within the cell. DNA contains a vast amount of hereditary information and is responsible for the inheritable characteristics of living organisms. RNA is responsible for deciphering the hereditary information in DNA and using it to synthesize proteins. 1. Complete the following RNA strand and indicate how many bonds are formed for each complementary pair: 3’ GGUCAUCG 5’ 5’ CC AGC 3’ 3’ GGUCAUCG 5’ 5’ CCAGUAGC 3’ There are 2 bonds formed between A and U, and 3 bonds between G and C. 1. The plasma membrane (select all that are true):BD A. Only restricts movement of materials into the cell B. Is often a bilayer comprised of lipids C. Cannot prevent essential nutrients from escaping D. Contains hydrophobic tails pointing inward 2. Carbon, Hydrogen and Oxygen atoms come together to form what primary macromolecule? Give an example.Polysaccharides. Glucose, sucrose and cellulose are all acceptable answers. True of False: The genetic material within a prokaryotic cell is contained within a membrane- enclosed region.False. Only eukaryotic cells contain its genetic material within a nucleus True or False: Prokaryotic cells can be subdivided into Bacteria and Archaea.True Describe the 4 basic bacterial morphologies.Coccus (round/spherical), bacillus (rod), vibrio (curved rod) or spirillum (spiral/corkscrew). True or False: Archaea is noted for its ability to survive under harsh conditions.True. Archaea can often be found in harsh conditions such as high salt levels, high acid conditions, high temperatures and even oxygen-poor conditions. 1. Animalia, Plantae, Fungi and Protista are all classification under what type of organism?B A. Bacteria B. Eukarya C. Archaea D. Virus 2. All multicellular microorganisms classified as Animalia are autotropic.False—they are heterotropic. 3. Microorganisms classified as obtain most of their energy by converting light energy into chemical energy.Plantae 1. A defining characteristic of fungi is the presence of chitin in the cell walls. Which of following also contain chitin? Select all that apply.ACD A. Mushrooms B. Bacteria C. Yeast D. Molds 2. True or False: A defining characteristic of Protista is the inability of colonies to form tissue layers.True. 1. Cell walls are found in which of the following (select all that apply):A, B, C, E A. Plants B. Fungi C. Bacteria D. Mammalian cells E. Algae 2. The function of the ribosome is (select all that apply):B A. Lipid synthesis B. Protein synthesis C. To produce energy (ATP) D. Protein modification and distribution E. Waste disposal via hydrolytic enzymes 1. True or False: Metabolism is a controlled set of biochemical reactions that occur in living organisms in order to maintain life.True. 2. True or False: Enzymes are polysaccharides that catalyze chemical reactions.False. Enzymes are proteins that catalyze chemical reactions. 3. What are usually metal ions known to assists enzyme during the catalysis reaction?Cofactors are usually metal ions and assist enzyme during the catalysis reaction. 1. Define anabolism.Anabolism is the process of building up or biosynthesis of macromolecules from small molecular units into much larger complexes. 2. In order to convert proteins into amino acids which metabolic process would be active? Catabolism would be active as proteins are made up of amino acids. Therefore the process described (proteins into amino acids) is the breakdown, or catabolism of protein. 1. Describe the energy transfer process relative to both ATP and ADP.ATP has the energy (phosphate group) to donate while ADP can accept energy in the form of a phosphate group. Thus, ATP can be reduced (ATP →ADP + Pi) while ADP can be built into ATP (ADP + Pi →ATP). 2. An organism that derives its energy (generates ATP) from photons of light is called a ? Phototrophic microorganism. An organism that derives its energy by removing electrons from elemental sulfur would be classified as a ?Lithotroph 4. A reactive intermediate would be present in which phosphorylation process?B A. Photophosphorylation B. Substrate-level phosphorylation C. Oxidative phosphorylation 1. The catabolism of a single molecule of glucose goes through what 3 distinct transitions?The breakdown of glucose goes through (1) Glycolysis then (2) Fermentation or Respiration and finally through (3) the electron transport chain (ETC). 2. What is the most energetic transition in the catabolism of glucose?The electron transport chain yields 34 ATP while both glycolysis and fermentation (or respiration) each yield only 2 ATP. 3. Identify the reactants of the following chemical equation: Glucose + 2NAD+ → 2 NADH + 2 Pyruvate + 2 ATP The reactants are to the left of the arrow: Glucose and 2NAD+ 4. The presence of what molecule ‘signals’ to the cell that glycolysis is about to start?Glucose-6- phosphate (G6P) 5. True or False: In the absence of oxygen fermentation produces 2 ATP.False. Fermentation only reduces NADH back to NAD+ 1. What is the primary byproduct of the TCA cycle? Select all that apply.CD A. NAD+ B. FAD C. NADH D. FADH2 2. True or False. The reactants of the TCA cycle directly enter and fuel the electron transport system.False. The products of the TCA cycle (reduced electron carriers) enter and drive the production of ATP via the electron transport system. 1. In the absence of glucose, which of the following can be used as alternative energy sources? Select all that apply.A, C, D can all be used as alternative energy sources A. Lactose B. Nucleic acids C. Carbohydrates D. Lipids. 2. For the catabolism of proteins and lipids, which of the following enzymes are used? Select all that apply.B and D. Proteases breakdown proteins while lipases breakdown lipids. A. Ligases B. Proteases C. Transferases D. Lipases 3. True or False. The β-oxidation pathway catabolizes the fatty acid chains of lipids.True 1. True or False. Plants, algae and bacteria all contain chloroplasts.False. Chloroplasts are specific to algae and plants only. 2. The process of carbon fixation begins with which of the following reactants: select all that apply.A, C, D, and E. Carbon fixation uses the ATP/NADPH produced during light reactions to convert CO2 and H2O into useful sources of energy (carbohydrates). A. ATP B. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate C. CO2 D. NADPH E. H2O 1. What is one of the main functions of light reactions? Similar to the electron transport chain, one of its main functions is to generate a proton concentration gradient to generate ATP. 2. True or False: Dark reactions can occur in the presence or absence of light. True. The term ‘dark reactions’ (also known as the Calvin Cycle) simply denotes the second stage in photosynthesis—dark reactions do not actually require darkness in order to occur. 1. How many turns (or repititions) of the Calvin Cycle are required to generate one molecule of glucose? Six. 2. Complete the following equation by placing the appropriate numbers where indicated. CO2 + ATP + NADPH + H20 → C6H12O6 + ADP + NADP+ 6 CO2 + 18 ATP + 12 NADPH + 12 H20 → C6H12O6 + 18 ADP + 12 NADP+ 1. Match the following reactions to its corresponding enzyme: 1. A + B → A-B 2. A-B → A + B 3. A- + B →A + B- 4. Ab + C → A + Cb A- Lyases B- Transferases C- Oxioreductaces D- Hydrolases E- Ligases F- Isomerases 1E 1. A + B → A-B Ligases 2A 2. A-B → A + B Lyases 3C 3. A— + B → A + B— Oxioreductaces 4B 4. Ab + C → A + Cb Transferases 1. A micrometer is defined as A. 10-3 B. 10-6 C.10-9 D. 10-12 B. A micrometer is one-millionth of a meter. 2. True or False: A nanometer is longer than a micrometer. False. A nanometer is 1,000 times smaller than a micrometer. 1. Resolution and contrast are two critical factors that influence your ability to see an object. Explain each. Resolution refers to the distance between two objects at which the objects still can be seen as separate. Poor or low resolution means two (or more) objects may appear as one. Contrast is the difference in light absorbance between two objects. Poor contrast gives a high background and makes the visualization of multiple objects difficult. For instance, trying to identify 2 dark colored objects at night (low light = low contrast) versus the same 2 objects in the middle of a sunny afternoon (bright light against 2 dark objects = high contrast). 1. Assuming a constant (non-adjustable) light source power, identify the part of the microscope you would adjust to limit the amount of light entering the microscope. Select all that apply. A. Objective B. Condenser C. Iris diaphragm D. Eye piece C. The iris controls the amount of light that passes through the sample and into the objective lens. Thus, it can be adjusted (opened or closed) to alter the amount of light. 2. What is the total magnification (relative to your eye) of a sample imaged with a 60x objective and a 10x eyepiece? Show your math. 60 x 10 = 600x magnification 1. True or False: A cell that is adherent, flat (thin) and unstained is easily identified using bright field microscopy. False. Adherent, flat cells are almost invisible due to the limits on both resolution and contrast. 2. Which of the following could be seen clearly by the unaided eye? Select all that apply. A. Bacteria with diameter of 24 μm B. Protozoa with diameter of 150 μm C. Virus with a diameter of 0.2 μm D. Skin cell with diameter of 1500 μm B and D. The unaided eye can, on average, clearly resolve objects > 100 μm 1. For each of the following questions select from the list below the single best answer: Phase-Contrast Dark Field Fluorescence Confocal This type of microscope is best suited for visualizing GFP, RFP and YFP proteins.Fluorescence 2. This type of microscope can provide detailed images of live cells without staining.Phase-Contrast 3. This type of microscope is used to greatly increase the contrast between samples and background by reflecting light off of the specimen.Dark Field 4. This type of microscope is capable of capturing images in multiple focal planes, rendering a specimen in 3DConfocal 1. Gram-Positive cells appear in color due to a peptidoglycan layer in the cell wall.Purple; Thick 2. Gram-Negative cells appear in color due to a peptidoglycan layer in the cell wall.Pink; Thin 1. True or False: The distinguishing characteristic of Gram-Negative bacteria is the presence of LPS in the outer membrane.True. 2. True or False: If you wish to study the motility of an organism you cannot heat fix, but you can chemically fix the specimen.False. Both heat and chemical fixation strategies will kill the cell, making motility observations impossible. 1. You want to observe the size and shape of a cell. What is the easiest staining technique that you could perform? Name at least one dye you would use during this process.Simple stain. You could use any of the following: methylene blue, crystal violet, safranin or fuschin. 2. You suspect a patient may have TB. Once a sample has been obtained it is sent off to the lab for an acid-fast stain. If the patient were infected with TB, describe what you would expect to see on the stained slide.You would expect to see red cells (TB+) on a blue background (TB negative). 3. True or False: A Giemsa stain can be used to determine the presence of pathogenic bacteria.True. Pathogenic bacteria would appear pink while non-pathogenic bacteria would appear purple. 1. True or False: Differential media is best suited for distinguishing between two similar species of bacteria.True. Growth media does not contain restrictive factors, while selective media is best used to encourage the growth of one microbe while simultaneously discouraging the growth of the other. Since two similar species of microbes are being studied they must be differentiated under similar but just slightly different conditions (differential media). 2. A researcher is asked to determine if a sample contains Neisseria meningitides. Knowing Neisseria meningitides is slow growing and other foreign microbes may also be present in the culture, which type of media would be best suited:C A. Growth media B. Differential media C. Selective media D. Selective and Differential media 1. True or False: LB agar is classified as a selective, non-differential media.False. LB agar is the most basic type of agar and like LB media supports the growth of virtually all microbes without restriction. 2. What is agar used for in microbiology?Agar is used to create a solid, smooth surface on which microbes can grow. 1. Match the following hemolytic class with its description of activity. Alpha hemolysis- Incomplete hemolytic activity. Beta- Complete, Gamma- No hemolytic 1. Columbia CNA agar is most closely related to which media:C A. Trypticase Soy Agar B. MacConkey Agar C. Blood agar D. EMB agar 2. True or False: Chocolate agar gets its brown color from cocoa to produce an enriched media.False. Chocolate (cocoa) is never added to the media. The name is derived simply based on the color that actually comes from the presence of ‘cooked’ (lysed) red blood cells in the media. 3. A researcher is studying a strain of E. coli currently growing on a MacConkey plate. However, the researcher can’t remember if E. coli is Gram-Positive or Gram-Negative. Would a Gram stain be necessary to confirm? Why or why not?No. A Gram stain would not be necessary, as only Gram- Negative microbes will grow on MacConkey agar. Thus, E. coli is a Gram-Negative microbe. 1. In an attempt to detect the presence of the pathogenic strain of E. coli O157:H7, a researcher spread a culture onto a MacConkey agar with failed results. What type of agar should they (correctly) try next? Why?The microbe should be plated on SMAC (Sorbitol-MacConkey agar) as it is specifically formulated to detect O157:H7. Pathogenic E. coli (O157:H7) cannot ferment sorbitol while non-pathogenic E. coli can ferment both soribitol and lactose. Therefore, colonies that ferment (acidic conditions; non-pathogenic) can be differentiated from non-fermenters (neutral to basic conditions; pathogenic). 1. What is the Gram status (Positive or Negative) of microbes growing on Eosin Methylene Blue (EMB) agar plates?Gram-Negative. EMB plates specifically restrict the growth of Gram- Positive bacteria. 2. Mannitol salt agar will turn what color in the presence of the pathogenic strain Staphylococcus aureus?Yellow. Pathogenic Staph aureus will turn the agar from red to yellow. 1. What is the process of spreading a bacterial culture onto a petri dish?Plating. 2. In order to visual individual colonies of bacteria would you culture your sample in a liquid media or on a solid (agar) media? Why?Solid (agar) media. The primary advantage is that cells are held into place. When grown in a nutrient broth, bacterial cells can multiply but are free to move around in solution. When grown on agar within a petri dish the fixed in such as way as to form colonies. 3. True or False? The visualization of colonies on a petri dish represents bacterial cells that have often multiplied a million times over.True. To form a bacterial colony the initial cell must have multiplied many times over, often greater than a million, in order for the naked eye to resolve it. 1. True or False. The purpose of a quadrant streak is to produce individual colonies of a bacterial population.True. The purpose of the quadrant streak is to generate individual colonies such that a single (pure) bacterial sample can be isolated. 2. A dilution gradient is formed when carrying out what generalize plating strategy?A quadrant (aka phase-dilution) streak. The resulting gradient should always contain within it the growth of individual colonies. 3. In what phase of a dilution streak would you expect to find the highest concentration of bacteria, P2 or P4?P2 (Phase 2) would contain a higher concentration of bacteria than Phase 4 (P4). The phases rank (from highest to lowest), P1 > P2 > P3 > P4. 1. True or False. When performing a dilution streak a new (or sterilized) loop must be used for each phase.True. Failure to do so would prevent the establishment of a dilution gradient, as the same bacterial concentration would be spread across both phase regions. 2. In order to encourage growth of a slow growing microbe what might a researcher do during a phase dilution streak?A researcher may either (1) opt to perform only a 3-phase dilution streak or (2) pass the loop through the previous phase multiple times (as opposed to only once). 3. True or False. To restrict the growth of a pathogenic microbe a researcher might decrease an incubator from 37°C to 25°C.True. Pathogenic strains of bacteria tend to grow faster than non- pathogenic strains at 37°C, so researchers may set incubators at 25°C to restrict its growth. When given an unknown bacterial sample the first step is to expand the current bacterial population. Which form of media best suites this need? Why? A. MSA agar B. LB media containing ampicillin and neomycin C. MacConkey agar D. Blood agar D. Blood agar. All other options (A, B and C) are all forms of selective media, meaning they may potentially inhibit the growth of the unknown sample. Although blood agar is considered a differential media, it is, most importantly, a non-selective media. Given the alternatives, this is the best option. 1. Define the concept of universal precautions.Universal precautions means any and all samples, whether known or unknown, are to be treated as potentially hazardous (or pathogenic) materials. 2. List at least 3 observations a researcher would be sure to note while assessing an unknown microbial sample A lab researcher would be certain to note:1. Size and shape2. Any observable motility3. Gram status (positive or negative)4. The presence of any chemical reactions5. Changes in color localized to the organism or the surrounding media6. Capture (or draw) images of any of the characteristics described above 1. While observing an unknown sample of limited amounts, a researcher must determine the following observations: (1) the presence of any motility and (2) its Gram status using the same sample—the liquid sample cannot be divided. Which would you determine first and why?You must determine motility before determining the Gram status. Motility requires a wet mount, while [Show Less]
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BIOLOGY 171 BIO 171 / BIO171 MICRO BIO LAB EXAMS #1 - 6
LAB EXAM #1 1. What three elements are used in an autoclave to sterilize equipment? heat, pressure, and steam 2. What is the minimum temperature an autoc... [Show More] lave must be set at to achieve sterile condition? 125°C 3. If you are working in a lab in which an autoclave is not available, and you are pressed for time, which would you chose to best sterilize your equipment? Hot steam or hot air? Explain why you chose your answer. Hot steam is the best choice as you can achieve a sterile environment in a matter of minutes whereas hot air will take several hours to achieve the same effect. 4. What type of incubator is pictured below? Fixed incubator 5. At what temperature is the fixed incubator set to, as presented in the lab video? 37°C 6. At what temperature should you refrigerate bacterial samples? Explain why this is beneficial. 4°C. This temperature slows bacterial growth and prolongs the life of the sample. 7. What are the FOUR types of gloves presented in the lab video? Latex, Nitrile, Thermal cold, Thermal heat 8. What THREE rules were discussed in regards to lab safety that would protect you and others from contamination? 1. Never eat or drink in the lab 2. Always wear appropriate PPE 3. Never leave the lab wearing PPE 9. What are the main sections that should be found in a lab notebook? Name at least 4. Objective, Procedure, Notes, Results and Deviations LAB 2 4. How should you hold the microscope when you move it or carry it? You should hold it with one hand on the neck and one hand under the base 5. List the four magnification strengths found on the objectives of the light microscope shown in the lab video. 4x, 10x, 40x, 100x6. As you looking through the microscope you notice your sample is slightly off-center—what component of the microscope would be used to bring the sample into the center of the image? Stage adjustment knobs 7. What objective power is best suited if you are uncertain what the sample is and where to begin? 4x (or lowest power objective) 8. You are viewing a sample of bacteria that is 3 mm in diameter through a 40x objective lens. The eyepiece has a magnification power of 10x. What size will the sample appear through the eyepiece? 1200 mm in diameter (or 400x’s larger) 9. Based on the microscope shown in the lab lecture, which objectives would NOT require placing oil on the slide? 4x, 10x and 40xResults: Magnification = objective x eyepiece LAB 3 EXAM 1. List the 4 main steps used to prepare a WET mount and indicate which (if any) step is optional. 1 – Clean slide 2 – Circle area on slide with wax/hydrophobic pen 3 – Apply organism to slide 4 – View under microscope *Note: there are no optional steps in the wet mount. 2. When preparing a glass slide for a dry mount, what cleaning solution was used? 70% ethanol 3. You wish to study the motility of a particular bacterium. What type of mounting technique would you use? Explain your answer. A wet mount technique is the best technique to use when studying motility of an organism because the sample remains viable (heat fixing kills the sample). 4. What dye do Gram-negative bacteria primarily retain? [Show Less]
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BIOLOGY 171 BIO 171 / BIO171 MICRO BIO LAB EXAMS #1 - 9
LAB 1 Answer the following questions 1. What three elements are used in an autoclave to sterilize equipment? heat, pressure, and steam 2. What is the m... [Show More] inimum temperature an autoclave must be set at to achieve sterile condition? 125°C 3. If you are working in a lab in which an autoclave is not available, and you are pressed for time, which would you chose to best sterilize your equipment? Hot steam or hot air? Explain why you chose your answer. Hot steam is the best choice as you can achieve a sterile environment in a matter of minutes whereas hot air will take several hours to achieve the same effect. 4. What type of incubator is pictured below? Fixed incubator Answer KeyAnswer the following questions. 1. At what temperature is the fixed incubator set to, as presented in the lab video? 37°C 2. At what temperature should you refrigerate bacterial samples? Explain why this is beneficial. 4°C. This temperature slows bacterial growth and prolongs the life of the sample. 3. What are the FOUR types of gloves presented in the lab video? Latex, Nitrile, Thermal cold, Thermal heat 4. What THREE rules were discussed in regards to lab safety that would protect you and others from contamination? 1. Never eat or drink in the lab 2. Always wear appropriate PPE 3. Never leave the lab wearing PPE 5. What are the main sections that should be found in a lab notebook? Name at least 4. Objective, Procedure, Notes, Results and Deviations Answer the following questions. 1. You are a lab instructor and Sally Miller has turned in her lab notebook for you to grade the lab experiment #1 on lab safety. Based upon what was covered in the lab video, how should Sally have entitled her experiment? SM01 Lab Safety 2. You arrive to your first day of work at a new lab. You are taking over for someone who took a new job at another lab. Your boss informs you that because of time restraints, this person did not exactly follow the experimental protocol. In order to proceed, you must know what he did differently. (1) According to the lab lecture, under what section of his notebook would you look to find theexperimental steps? (2) As changes to the experimental steps were made, what are these differences called and how should it appear in the lab notebook? (1) Procedure—this is where the steps for the experimental protocol are recorded. (2) Deviations. All deviations should be written in red to immediately bring attention to the changes in the protocol. LAB 2 1. Identify the part of the microscope indicated by the arrow. Oculars (or eyepiece) 2. Identify the part of the microscope indicated by the arrow. Objectives (or objective lens)3. Identify the part of the microscope indicated by the arrow. Course focus 1. You are about to study a bacterial sample under a light microscope. You look into the oculars and see two circles. What adjustments need to be made? Compress or expand the oculars until a single circle can be seen while using both eyes simultaneously. 2. What 2 parts of the microscope contributes to the total magnification to your sample? Objective and oculars (eyepiece)3. As you looking through the microscope you wish to dim (or limit) the amount of light entering into the eyepiece—what component of the microscope other than the light source itself can be adjusted to make these modifications? Diaphragm 1. What objective power is best suited if you are uncertain what the sample is and where to begin? 4x (or lowest power objective) 2. You are viewing a sample of bacteria that is 3 mm in diameter through a 40x objective lens. The eyepiece has a magnification power of 10x. What size will the sample appear through the eyepiece? 1200 mm in diameter (or 400x’s larger) 3. Based on the microscope shown in the lab lecture, which objectives would NOT require placing oil on the slide? 4x, 10x and 40x LAB 3 1. List the 4 main steps used to prepare a DRY mount and indicate which step is optional. 1 – Clean slide 2 – Circle area on slide for specimen placement (OPTIONAL) 3 – Apply organism to slide 4 – Air dry at room temperature 2. Why is it important to first clean your slide before applying your sample? You must first remove any unwanted contaminants from the slide otherwise it may be difficult to distinguish between the pathogen of interest and a contaminant. 3. When performing a wet mount technique, what is the advantage of using a wax or hydrophobic pen?Creating a hydrophobic barrier (the circle) helps to keep the water within the circle so it does not spill off of the slide. 4. What dye do Gram-positive bacteria primarily retain? Crystal violet 1. Why are Gram-positive bacteria able to retain the crystal violet dye? They contain a thick peptidoglycan layer in their cell wall that readily retains the dye. 2. Identify the Gram status (positive or negative) and shape of the bacteria pictured below. Gram-Negative; Bacillus (rod) 3. An acid-fast stain is most commonly used to identify what type of bacterium? What is the name of the primary dye used in this technique? Mycobacterium; carbolfuchsin dye 4. Why do bacteria repel the dye nigrosin? Nigrosin is a negatively charged dye. The membranes of most cells are also negatively charged. The membrane will repel the dye not allowing it to be absorbed. 1. What is one disadvantage of heat fixing a sample?The heat fixing procedure kills the specimen. This also prevents any observations on motility and enzymatic properties. 2. What is the proper way to dispose of all materials used during the lab? All materials must be place in a biohazardous waste bag and placed into an autoclave for sterilization. 3. What are the Gram status, shape and identification of organism #2 from the Gram stain procedure? Gram-negative; Bacillus (rod); E. Coli 4. What are the Gram status, shape and identification of organism #5 from the Gram stain procedure? Gram-positive; Cocci (spherical) chain; Streptococcus LAB 4 1. What type of media is best used to eliminate certain bacteria from within a mixed culture? Selective media 2. According the lab module, what type of agar plate is the most commonly used nutrient agar? What color is it? LB agar; Light (or pale) yellow 3. What was the name of the selective agar plate (shown below) that is similar to a blood agar plate? MacConkey agar1. What type of bacteria does MacConkey agar select for? Gram-negative bacteria 2. Sorbitol MacConkey (SMAC) agar is: A. Selective media B. Differential media C. Selective and differential media D. None of the above C 3.What pathogen is best identified using a SMAC agar? E coli O157:H7. SMAC agar specifically differentiates between non-pathogenic E coli and the pathogenic E coli strain O157:H7. 4. What is the purpose of doing a 4-phase dilution streak? The purpose of a 4-phase dilution streak is to isolate individual bacterial colonies. 5. If you were required to grow 4 types of bacteria on a single agar plate without cross contaminating the samples, what method would you use? Quadrant growth method 1. Based on the 4-phase dilution streaking experiment, in what phase were bacterial isolates (colonies) observed?Individual colonies were observed within Phase 3. 2. Identify the plating method (below) as demonstrated in the lab. Quadrant growth 3. Identify the organism growing on the TOP half of the agar and describe the observed hemolytic properties. Staph Aureus; Beta hemolysis is observed based on the zones of clearing within the red agar. 4. Would you expect to see a color change when pseudomonas is streaked onto an EMB agar plate? Explain your answer. No. There would not be a color change because pseudomonas does not ferment lactose.Lab 5 1. The Kirby-Bauer method for examining antibiotic sensitivity is also known as what? The Standardized Disc Susceptibility Test 2. True or False. The antibiotic discs are placed onto the LB agar plate before spreading the bacterial culture on the plate. False. The antibiotic discs are place onto the plate AFTER the culture has been spread. 3. When performing the Kirby-Bauer method the areas of clearing surrounding an antibiotic disc after an overnight incubation are known as what? Zones of Inhibition. 1. Why was an LB agar plate used to test the Staph culture as opposed to a selective/differential agar that only grows Staph? LB agar is used as it simply provides the nutritional requirements to encourage bacterial growth. Since the results of the Kirby Bauer method is directly based on bacterial growth patterns, no other selective or differential additives should be present that may hinder or inhibit the samples growth. 2. What unit of measurement is used when determining the size of the zones of inhibition? A. Centimeters B. Micrometer C. Millimeters D. Meters C 3. True or False. In order to maintain proper spacing the antibiotic discs should be place around the edge of the plate. False. The disc should be placed approximately a fingers width from the edge so that a uniform zone of inhibition can be seen around the entire disc.1. Given the following image, determine whether the bacterial sample is resistant or susceptible to the following antibiotics [Show Less]
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BIOLOGY 171 BIO 171 / BIO171 MICRO BIO LAB EXAMS #1 - 8
1. What three elements are used in an autoclave to sterilize equipment? heat, pressure, and steam 2. What is the minimum temperature an autoclave must be... [Show More] set at to achieve sterile condition? 125°C 3. If you are working in a lab in which an autoclave is not available, and you are pressed for time, which would you chose to best sterilize your equipment? Hot steam or hot air? Explain why you chose your answer. Hot steam is the best choice as you can achieve a sterile environment in a matter of minutes whereas hot air will take several hours to achieve the same effect. 4. What type of incubator is pictured below? Fixed incubatorAnswer the following questions. 1. At what temperature is the fixed incubator set to, as presented in the lab video? 37°C 2. At what temperature should you refrigerate bacterial samples? Explain why this is beneficial. 4°C. This temperature slows bacterial growth and prolongs the life of the sample. 3. What are the FOUR types of gloves presented in the lab video? Latex, Nitrile, Thermal cold, Thermal heat 4. What THREE rules were discussed in regards to lab safety that would protect you and others from contamination? 1. Never eat or drink in the lab 2. Always wear appropriate PPE 3. Never leave the lab wearing PPE 5. What are the main sections that should be found in a lab notebook? Name at least 4. Objective, Procedure, Notes, Results and Deviations Answer the following questions. 1. You are a lab instructor and Paul Smith has turned in his lab notebook for you to grade the lab experiment #2 on microscopy. Based upon what was covered in the lab video, how should Paul have entitled his lab experiment? PS02 Microscopy 2. You arrive to your first day of work at a new lab. You are taking over for someone who took a new job at another lab. Your boss informs you that because of time restraints, this person did not exactly follow the experimental protocol. In order to proceed, you must know what he did differently. (1) According to the lab lecture, under what section of his notebook would you look to find the experimental steps? (2) As changes to the experimental steps were made, what are these differences called and how should it appear in the lab notebook?(1) Procedure—this is where the steps for the experimental protocol are recorded. (2) Deviations. All deviations should be written in red to immediately bring attention to the changes in the protocol. Answer the following questions 1. Identify the part of the microscope indicated by the arrow. Neck (or arm) 2. Identify the part of the microscope indicated by the arrow. Stage 3. Identify the part of the microscope indicated by the arrow. fine focusAnswer the following questions 1. You are about to study a bacterial sample under a light microscope. You look into the oculars and see two circles. What adjustments need to be made? Compress or expand the oculars until a single circle can be seen while using both eyes simultaneously. 2. What 2 parts of the microscope contributes to the total magnification to your sample? Objective and oculars (eyepiece) 3. As you looking through the microscope you wish to dim (or limit) the amount of light entering into the eyepiece—what component of the microscope other than the light source itself can be adjusted to make these modifications? Diaphragm Answer the following questions 1. What objective power is best suited if you are uncertain what the sample is and where to begin? 4x (or lowest power objective) 2. You are viewing a sample of bacteria that is 3 mm in diameter through a 40x objective lens. The eyepiece has a magnification power of 10x. What size will the sample appear through the eyepiece? 1200 mm in diameter (or 400x’s larger) 3. Based on the microscope shown in the lab lecture, which objectives would NOT require placing oil on the slide? 4x, 10x and 40x Answer the following questions. 1. List the 4 main steps used to prepare a WET mount and indicate which (if any) step is optional. 1 – Clean slide 2 – Circle area on slide with wax/hydrophobic pen 3 – Apply organism to slide4 – View under microscope *Note: there are no optional steps in the wet mount. 2. When preparing a glass slide for a dry mount, what cleaning solution was used? 70% ethanol 3. You wish to study the motility of a particular bacterium. What type of mounting technique would you use? Explain your answer. A wet mount technique is the best technique to use when studying motility of an organism because the sample remains viable (heat fixing kills the sample). 4. What dye do Gram-negative bacteria primarily retain? Safranin Answer the following questions. 1. Why do Gram-negative bacteria stain red? Gram-negative bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan layer in their cell wall. During the alcohol rinse step, the cell wall cannot retain the crystal violet dye. It will be washed away. The cell wall will then absorb the counter stain, safranin. 2. Identify the stain and shape of the bacteria pictured below. Gram-positive; Cocci (spherical)3. When might you want to utilize a negative stain technique in the lab? What is the name of the primary dye used in this technique? A negative stain is used to identify organisms with an opaque structure. Nigrosin dye. 4. Why do bacteria repel the dye nigrosin? Nigrosin is a negatively charged dye. The membranes of most cells are also negatively charged. The membrane will repel the dye not allowing it to be absorbed. Answer the following questions. 1. When performing a Gram stain, what is the purpose of the heat fixation step? Heat fixing removes all traces of moisture and ‘fixes’ (sticks) the sample tightly to the glass slide. 2. What is the proper way to dispose of all materials used during the lab? All materials must be place in a biohazardous waste bag and placed into an autoclave for sterilization. 3. What are the Gram status, shape and identification of organism #1 from the Gram stain procedure? Gram-positive; Cocci (spherical) clusters; Staph aureus 4. What are the Gram status, shape and identification of organism #4 from the Gram stain procedure? Gram-negative; Bacillus (rod); Pseudomonas Answer the following questions. 1. You are looking for media that will help you distinguish between two gram positive bacteria. What type of media would be best for this? Differential media 2. If you were to remove the red bloods cells from at blood agar plate (BAP) what kind of agar plate derivative would you have?TSAYE (Tryptic soy agar yeast extract) 3. Identify the selective and differential media known for its metallic sheen shown below. EMB (Eosin Methylene Blue) Answer the following questions. 1. What type of bacteria does Sorbitol MacConkey agar select for? Gram-negative bacteria 2. Eosin Methylene Blue (EMB) agar is: A. Selective media B. Differential media C. Selective and differential media D. None of the above C 3.What pathogen is best identified using a SMAC agar? E coli O157:H7. SMAC agar specifically differentiates between non-pathogenic E coli and the pathogenic E coli strain O157:H7. 4. What plating method is used to isolate a single bacteria colony [Show Less]
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BIOLOGY 171 BIO 171 / BIO171 MICROBIO EXAM MODULE 1 – 6 ALL EXAMS
1. True or False: A virus is considered a microorganism. False. Viruses are not living and as such are not considered microorganisms. Viruses can, however... [Show More] , be classified as microbes, a more general term that includes microorganisms and viruses. 2. What is the smallest biological unit of life? A cell. 3. At a generalized level, all cells are comprised of what? Macromolecules* *A student may also answer: Proteins, Lipids, Nucleic acids and Polysaccharides but they must answer with all four to be fully correct. 1. How many different types of amino acids are available from which to make proteins? 20 2. Define an essential amino acid. An essential amino acid cannot be produced by the human body and as such must be take in from the environment through alternative sources (i.e) food. 1. What are the two major types of nucleic acids and their roles? DNA- deoxyribonucleic acid RNA- Ribonucleic acid DNA- Cellular life has DNA and a role that DNA has is long-term storage of information, it holds the characteristics of living organisms. RNA- Is the carrier of information in form of amino acid sequence. It converts the information in the DNA and synthesizes proteins1. Complete the following DNA strand and indicate how many bonds are formed for each complementary pair: 3’ GGTCATCG 5’ 5’ CC AGC 3’ 3’ GGTCATCG 5’ 5’ CCAGTAGC 3’ There are 2 bonds formed between A and T, and 3 bonds between G and C. 1. The plasma membrane (select all that are true): A. Restricts movement of materials in and out of the cell B. Is often a triple layer comprised of lipids C. Prevents essential nutrients from escaping D. Contains hydrophobic tails pointing outward A and C 2. How many carbon atoms are present in the monosaccharide glucose? A. 1 B. 3 C. 6 D. 12 C. The molecular formula of Glucose is C6H12O6 True of False: The genetic material within a prokaryotic cell is contained within a membrane-enclosed region. False. Only eukaryotic cells contain its genetic material within a nucleus True or False: Prokaryotic cells can be subdivided into Bacteria and Archaea. TrueDescribe the 4 basic bacterial morphologies. Coccus (round/spherical), bacillus (rod), vibrio (curved rod) or spirillum (spiral/corkscrew). True or False: Archaea is noted for its ability to survive under harsh conditions. True. Archaea can often be found in harsh conditions such as high salt levels, high acid conditions, high temperatures and even oxygen-poor conditions. 1. Which of the following microorganisms are considered to be Eukarya? Select all that apply. A. Animalia B. Plantae C. Fungi D. Protista A,B,C,D 2. True of False: All multicellular microorganisms classified as Animalia are heterotrophic. True 3. Microorganisms classified as Plantae obtain most of their energy by converting _____ energy into _______ energy. Light (sunlight); chemical (sugars) 1. A defining characteristic of fungi is the presence of chitin in the cell walls. Which of following also contain chitin? Select all that apply. A. Mushrooms B. Bacteria C. Yeast D. Molds A, C and D all contain chitin. 2. True or False: A defining characteristic of Protista is the inability of colonies to form tissue layers. True.1. Cell walls are found in which of the following (select all that apply): A. Plants B. Fungi C. Bacteria D. Mammalian cells E. Algae A, B, C, E 2. The function of the ribosome is (select all that apply): A. Lipid synthesis B. Protein synthesis C. To produce energy (ATP) D. Protein modification and distribution E. Waste disposal via hydrolytic enzymes B. Ribosomes are located in the cytoplasm of prokaryotic cells and in the ER of eukaryotic cells. 1. Identify the following cellular components by matching the number with the description. A. Cell wall B. Lysosome C. Centriole D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum E. Plasma membrane F. Nucleus G. Golgi apparatus1 F 2 B 3 E 4 G 5 D 1. True or False: Metabolism is a controlled set of biochemical reactions that occur in living organisms in order to maintain life. True. 2. True or False: Enzymes are polysaccharides that catalyze chemical reactions. False. Enzymes are proteins that catalyze chemical reactions. 3. What are usually metal ions known to assists enzyme during the catalysis reaction? Cofactors are usually metal ions and assist enzyme during the catalysis reaction. 1. Define catabolism. Catabolism is the process of breaking down larger molecules into useful energy sources. 2. Upon cellular injury, which metabolic process is involved during the growth and repair phases of the cell? The anabolic process would be active as it (by definition) is involved in the building up of small complexes into larger complexes. 1. Describe the energy transfer process relative to both ATP and ADP. ATP has the energy (phosphate group) to donate while ADP can accept energy in the form of a phosphate group. Thus, ATP can be reduced (ATP →ADP + Pi) while ADP can be built into ATP (ADP + Pi →ATP). 2. An organism that derives its energy (generates ATP) from photons of light is called a _________? Phototrophic microorganism. An organism that derives its energy by removing electrons from elemental sulfur would be classified as a __________?Lithotroph 4. A reactive intermediate would be present in which phosphorylation process? A. Photophosphorylation B. Substrate-level phosphorylation C. Oxidative phosphorylation B. The chemical compound losing the phosphate group is referred to as the phosphorylated reactive intermediate. 1. The catabolism of a single molecule of glucose goes through what 3 distinct transitions? The breakdown of glucose goes through (1) Glycolysis then (2) Fermentation or Respiration and finally through (3) the electron transport chain (ETC). 2. What is the most energetic transition in the catabolism of glucose? The electron transport chain yields 34 ATP while both glycolysis and fermentation (or respiration) each yield only 2 ATP. 3. Identify the reactants of the following chemical equation: Glucose + 2NAD+ → 2 NADH + 2 Pyruvate + 2 ATP The reactants are to the left of the arrow: Glucose and 2NAD+ 4. The presence of what molecule ‘signals’ to the cell that glycolysis is about to start? Glucose-6-phosphate (G6P) 5. True or False: In the absence of oxygen fermentation produces 2 ATP. False. Fermentation only reduces NADH back to NAD+ 1. What is the primary byproduct of the TCA cycle? Select all that apply. A. NAD+ B. FADC. NADH D. FADH2 C and D. The TCA cycle produces an abundance of reduced electron carriers (NADH and FADH2). 2. True or False. The reactants of the TCA cycle directly enter and fuel the electron transport system. False. The products of the TCA cycle (reduced electron carriers) enter and drive the production of ATP via the electron transport system. 1. In the absence of glucose, which of the following can be used as alternative energy sources? Select all that apply. A. Lactose B. Nucleic acids C. Carbohydrates D. Lipids A, C, D can all be used as alternative energy sources. 2. For the catabolism of proteins and lipids, which of the following enzymes are used? Select all that apply. A. Ligases B. Proteases C. Transferases D. Lipases B and D. Proteases breakdown proteins while lipases breakdown lipids. 3. True or False. The β-oxidation pathway catabolizes the fatty acid chains of lipids. True 1. Describe the relationship between chloroplasts and chlorophyll. Both chloroplasts and chlorophyll are associated with photosynthesis. Chloroplasts are the double membraneenclosed organelles that contain the photosynthetic pigment chlorophyll. 2. True or False: Chloroplasts are specific to algae and plants. True3. The process of photophosphorylation produces which of the following: select all that apply. A. ATP B. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate C. CO2 D. NADPH E. H2O A and D. 1. In phosphorylation, the light reactions always occur where? The process of converting light energy into chemical energy (photophosphorylation) always occurs in the membrane. 2. True or False: The Calvin cycle must occur in the absence of light. False. The term ‘dark reactions’ (also known as the Calvin Cycle) simply denotes the second stage in photosynthesis—dark reactions do not actually require darkness in order to occur. 1. How many turns (or repititions) of the Calvin Cycle are required to generate one molecule of glucose? Six. 2. Complete the following equation by placing the appropriate numbers where indicated. __CO2 + __ATP + __NADPH + __H20 → __C6H12O6 + __ADP + __NADP+ 6 CO2 + 18 ATP + 12 NADPH + 12 H20 → C6H12O6 + 18 ADP + 12 NADP+ 1. Match the following reactions to its corresponding enzyme: 1. A-B + H2O → A-OH + B-H 2. A-B→ B-A 3. A + B → A-B 4. A-B → A + B A- Lyases B- TransferasesC- Oxioreductaces D- Hydrolases E- Ligases F- Isomerase [Show Less]
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PORTAGE MICROBIOLOGY FINAL EXAM
PORTAGE MICROBIOLOGY FINAL EXAM Microbiology is the study of what ✅ - microorganisms/viruses and there biological processes What is the smallest b... [Show More] iological unit of life? ✅ - cell What is a macromolecule? ✅ - a molecule containing a very large number of atoms, such as a protein, nucleic acid, or synthetic polymer. What are the 4 main types of macromolecules ✅ - proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, polysachrides What various functions do proteins have in a cell ✅ - Proteins may facilitate the movement of materials in or out of a cell. Some can act as enzymes that catalyze, or speed up, biochemical processes. Others play a structural role while other proteins, such as filaments, enable movement. What are the two major types of nucleic acids and their roles? ✅ - There are two major types of nucleic acids: DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) and RNA (ribonucleic acid). Nucleic acids are chemical molecules that carry genetic information within the cell. DNA contains a vast amount of hereditary information and is responsible for the inheritable characteristics of living organisms. RNA is responsible for deciphering the hereditary information in DNA and using it to synthesize proteins. What is the plasma membrane and what is it made up of? ✅ - The plasma membrane serves the cell as a surrounding barrier that separates the inside of the cell from the outside surrounding environment. The plasma membrane also restricts the movement of materials (water, nutrients, etc) either in or out of the cell, thus allowing a cells to absorb and keep what is needed (influx) while also preventing the escape (out flux) of essential nutrients. The plasma membrane is composed of lipids (hydrophobic hydrocarbons). What are the three main components of polysaccharides? ✅ - Polysaccharides are composed of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen atoms. Examples would include, C6H12O6 (glucose) C12H22O11 (sucrose) and C6H10O5 (cellulose). What is the primary difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? ✅ - Eukaryotic cells contain a nucleus, a membrane enclosed region within the cell that contains the genetic material. Prokaryotic cells do not have a nucleus and can be further classified as either Bacteria or Archaea. What are the main morphologies of bacteria? ✅ - Bacteria can be described as coccus (round/spherical), bacillus (rod), vibrio (curved rod) spirillum (spiral/corkscrew). Which group (classification) of bacteria is noted for its ability to survive under harsh conditions? ✅ - Archaea. They are able to survive in extremely harsh environmental conditions such as high salt levels, acid conditions, high temperatures and oxygen-poor conditions. What are the 4 main classifications of Eukarya ✅ - Eukaryotic microorganisms are classified as either belonging to Animalia, Plantae, Fungi or Protista. Can viruses be classified as either prokaryotic or eukaryotic? ✅ - No. Viruses are considered neither prokaryotic nor eukaryotic. Viruses are not considered living and do not replicate on their own, meaning they must replicate within a host. The lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane is composed of what? ✅ - The cell membrane is a bilayer composed primarily of amphipathic phospholipids, meaning they contain a polar hydrophilic (water loving) head group and a non-polar hydrophobic (water fearing) tail region. The lipid bilayer is situated in such a way where the non-polar tail groups face inward thus orienting the polar head groups to interact with water both outside and inside of the cell. What are the primary cellular organelles described in this module? Be sure to know the roles of each. ✅ - Ribosomes (protein synthesis) ER (site of protein synthesis) Golgi (protein modification and distribution) lysosomes (waste disposal), mitochondria (ATP generation) chloroplasts (plants only; site of photosynthesis). True or False: Metabolism is a controlled set of biochemical reactions that occur in living organisms in order to maintain life. ✅ - True True or False: Enzymes are polysaccharides that catalyze chemical reactions. ✅ - False. Enzymes are proteins that catalyze chemical reactions What are usually metal ions known to assists enzyme during the catalysis reaction? ✅ - Cofactors are usually metal ions and assist enzyme during the catalysis reaction. Define catabolism ✅ - the breakdown of complex molecules in living organisms to form simpler ones, together with the release of energy; destructive metabolism. Upon cellular injury, which metabolic process is involved during the growth and repair phases of the cell? ✅ - The anabolic process would be active as it (by definition) is involved in the building up of small complexes into larger complexes. Describe the energy transfer process relative to both ATP and ADP. ✅ - ATP has the energy (phosphate group) to donate while ADP can accept energy in the form of a phosphate group. Thus, ATP can be reduced (ATP →ADP + Pi) while ADP can be built into ATP (ADP + Pi →ATP). An organism that derives its energy (generates ATP) from photons of light is called a _________ ✅ - Phototrophic microorganism. An organism that derives its energy by removing electrons from elemental sulfur would be classified as a __________? ✅ - Lithotroph A reactive intermediate would be present in which phosphorylation process? ✅ - The chemical compound losing the phosphate group is referred to as the phosphorylated reactive intermediate. Identify the products of the following chemical equation: Glucose + 2NAD+ → 2 NADH + 2 Pyruvate + 2 ATP ✅ - The products are to the right of the arrow: 2NADH, 2 Pyruvates and 2 ATP What is the primary byproduct of the TCA cycle? Select all that apply. A. NAD+ B. FAD C. NADH D. FADH2 ✅ - C and D. The TCA cycle produces an abundance of reduced electron carriers (NADH and FADH2). True or False. The reactants of the TCA cycle directly enter and fuel the electron transport system. ✅ - False. The products of the TCA cycle (reduced electron carriers) enter and drive the production of ATP via the electron transport system. In the absence of glucose, which of the following can be used as alternative energy sources? Select all that apply. A. Lactose B. Nucleic acids C. Carbohydrates D. Lipids ✅ - A, C, D can all be used as alternative energy sources. For the catabolism of proteins and lipids, which of the following enzymes are used? Select all that apply. A. Ligases B. Proteases C. Transferases D. Lipases ✅ - Proteases and lipase True or False. The β-oxidation pathway catabolizes the fatty acid chains of lipids. ✅ - True True or False. Plants, algae and bacteria all contain chloroplasts. ✅ - False. Chloroplasts are specific to algae and plants only. The process of carbon fixation begins with which of the following reactants: select all that apply. A. ATP B. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate C. CO2 D. NADPH E. H2O ✅ - A, C, D, and E. Carbon fixation uses the ATP/NADPH produced during light reactions to convert CO2 and H2O into useful sources of energy (carbohydrates). What is one of the main functions of light reactions? ✅ - Similar to the electron transport chain, one of its main functions is to generate a proton concentration gradient to generate ATP. True or False: Dark reactions can occur in the presence or absence of light. ✅ - True. The term 'dark reactions' (also known as the Calvin Cycle) simply denotes the second stage in photosynthesis—dark reactions do not actually require darkness in order to occur. How many turns (or repititions) of the Calvin Cycle are required to generate one molecule of glucose? ✅ - Six. Complete the following equation by placing the appropriate numbers where indicated. __CO2 + __ATP + __NADPH + __H20 → __C6H12O6 + __ADP + __NADP+ ✅ - 6 CO2 + 18 ATP + 12 NADPH + 12 H20 → C6H12O6 + 18 ADP + 12 NADP+ Match the following reactions to its corresponding enzyme: 1. A + B → A-B 2. A-B → A + B 3. A- + B →A + B- 4. Ab + C → A + Cb A- Lyases B- Transferases C- Oxioreductaces D- Hydrolases E- Ligases F- Isomerases ✅ - 1E 1. A + B → A-B Ligases 2A 2. A-B → A + B Lyases 3C 3. A— + B → A + B— Oxioreductaces 4B 4. Ab + C → A + Cb Transferases A micrometer is defined as A. 10-3 B. 10-6 C.10-9 D. 10-12 ✅ - B. A micrometer is one-millionth of a meter. True or False: A nanometer is longer than a micrometer. ✅ - False. A nanometer is 1,000 times smaller than a micrometer. Resolution and contrast are two critical factors that influence your ability to see an object. Explain each. ✅ - Resolution refers to the distance between two objects at which the objects still can be seen as separate. Poor or low resolution means two (or more) objects may appear as one. Contrast is the difference in light absorbance between two objects. Poor contrast gives a high background and makes the visualization of multiple objects difficult. For instance, trying to identify 2 dark colored objects at night (low light = low contrast) versus the same 2 objects in the middle of a sunny afternoon (bright light against 2 dark objects = high contrast). Assuming a fixed ocular, identify the part of the microscope you would adjust to enhance the magnification of a sample. A. Objective B. Condenser C. Iris diaphragm D. Eye piece ✅ - A. Only the oculars (eyepiece) and the objectives contribute to the magnification of the sample. Since the eyepiece is fixed, only the objectives could be altered. What is the total magnification (relative to your eye) of a sample imaged with a 20x objective and a 15x eyepiece? Show your math. ✅ - 20 x 15 = 300x magnification True or False: A cell that is adherent, flat (thin) and unstained is easily identified using bright field microscopy. ✅ - False. Adherent, flat cells are almost invisible due to the limits on both resolution and contrast. Which of the following could be seen clearly by the unaided eye? Select all that apply. A. Bacteria with diameter of 24 μm B. Protozoa with diameter of 150 μm C. Virus with a diameter of 0.2 μm D. Skin cell with diameter of 1500 μm ✅ - B and D. The unaided eye can, on average, clearly resolve objects > 100 μm For each of the following questions select from the list below the single best answer: Phase-Contrast Dark Field Fluorescence Confocal This type of microscope is best suited for visualizing GFP, RFP and YFP proteins. ✅ - Fluorescence This type of microscope can provide detailed images of live cells without staining. ✅ - Phase-Contrast This type of microscope is used to greatly increase the contrast between samples and background by reflecting light off of the specimen. ✅ - Dark Field This type of microscope is capable of capturing images in multiple focal planes, rendering a specimen in 3D ✅ - Confocal Gram-Positive cells appear _______ in color due to a ______ peptidoglycan layer in the cell wall. ✅ - Purple; Thick Gram-Negative cells appear _______ in color due to a ______ peptidoglycan layer in the cell wall. ✅ - Pink; Thin True or False: Following the decolorization step of the Gram stain, Gram-Negative bacteria will appear colorless. ✅ - True. Even together, the LPS and thin peptidoglycan layer are unable to retain the crystal violet dye during decolorization. Name one substance capable of chemically fixing cells to a slide. ✅ - Any of the following are true: Paraformaldehyde, ethanol or methanol. You want to observe the size and shape of a cell. What is the easiest staining technique that you could perform? Name at least one dye you would use during this process. ✅ - Simple stain. You could use any of the following: methylene blue, crystal violet, safranin or fuschin. You suspect a patient may have TB. Once a sample has been obtained it is sent off to the lab for an acid-fast stain. If the patient were infected with TB, describe what you would expect to see on the stained slide. [Show Less]
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