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Biod 151 A&P 1 Module 1-6 Bundle (2022/2023) (Portage Learning)
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BIOD 151 A&P 1 MODULE 5 EXAM PORTAGE LEARNING UPDATED
M5: Exam- Requires Respondus LockDown Browser Question 1 2 / 2 pts There are three types of muscle tissue found in the body. True ... [Show More] False Question 2 2 / 2 pts Smooth and cardiac muscle tissue are both under voluntary control. True False Question 3 2 / 2 pts The lumbar plexus is part of the central nervous system. True False False- this is a peripheral nerve Question 4 2 / 2 pts A motor signal is a signal that is sent from a muscle to the central nervous system. True False False- this is sensory input Question 5 2 / 2 pts The cervical plexus contains nerves that innervate the thigh. True False Question 6 2 / 2 pts Answer the following short-answer question: Ligaments connect which types of tissue? Your Answer: Ligaments connect bone to bone. Connect bone to bone Question 7 2 / 2 pts Answer the following short-answer question: Acetylcholine is what type of substance? Your Answer: Neurotransmitter. Neurotransmitter Question 8 2 / 2 pts Answer the following short-answer question: During a muscle contraction which protein myofilament is pulled along? Your Answer: Actin. Actin Question 9 2 / 2 pts Answer the following short-answer question: What is the name of the thin myofilament? Your Answer: Actin. Actin Question 10 2 / 2 pts Answer the following short-answer question: What must occur for a muscle contraction to stop? Your Answer: When nerve impulses no longer stimulate the muscle fiber, contraction stops. Calcium ions return to sarcoplasmic reticulum and the muscle can relax. Calcium ions must be pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum Question 11 10 / 10 pts Label the following five muscles: B: C: E: G: J: Your Answer: B: Temporalis (L) C: Orbicularis Oculi (R) E: Zygomaticus Major G: Buccinator (deep) J: Depressor labii inferioris B: Temporalis C: Orbicularis oculi E: Zygomaticus major G: Buccinator J: Depressor labii inferioris Question 12 10 / 10 pts Fill in the following muscle chart (10 blank spaces): Muscle Origin Insertion Action Innervation Flexor digitorum ------- ---------- 1. superficialis Pronator Teres ------- 3. 4. Vastus Medialis 6. ---------- 7. Peroneus Brevis 8. 9. 1. [answer1] 2. [answer2] 3. [answer3] 4. [answer4] 5. [answer5] 6. [answer6] 7. [answer7] 8. [answer8] 9. [answer9] 10. [answer10] Your Answer: 1- Flexion of the wrist and digits 2-5 (middle and proximal phalanx) 2- Median nerve 3-Mid-lateral surface of radius 4- Pronation 5- Median nerve 6- Intertrochanteric line of femur 7- Knee extension 8- Lateral, distal fibula 9- Lateral side of 5th metatarsal 10- Superficial peroneal nerve 1. Flexion of the wrist and digits 2-5 2. Median nerve 3. Mid-lateral surface of radius 4. Pronation 5. Median nerve 6. Intertrochanteric line of femur 7. Knee extension 8. Lateral, distal fibula 9. Lateral side of 5th metatarsal 10. Superficial peroneal nerve Question 13 2 / 2 pts Your patient sustained an injury to their facial nerve (CN VII). Which actions would be impaired? A. Extend head/neck B. Compress cheeks C. Grin/grimace D. Elevate mandible E. A&D F. B&C F.B &C (Buccinator & risorius) Question 14 2 / 2 pts Your patient is having difficulty when asked to bring his chin to his chest. He is also having difficulty turning his face from side to side. What muscle is most likely impaired? Thyrohyoid Semispinalis capitis Splenius Capitis Sternocleidomastoid (Bilateral neck flexion, unilateral turns face) Scalenes Question 15 2 / 2 pts Your patient is having difficulty when asked to bend his spine backward. What muscle is involved? Spinalis thoracis (Extensor of the vertebral column) Scalenes External oblique Internal oblique Rectus abdominis Question 16 2 / 2 pts True or False: When a muscle contracts, the Z lines within a sarcomere come closer together towards the M line. True False Question 17 2 / 2 pts True or False: The A band contains thin filaments. True (A band contains thick filaments and thin filaments) False Question 18 2 / 2 pts Which muscle contracts to enable the main effort required to stand on your toes? Biceps femoris Quadriceps Gastrocnemius Tibialis anterior Question 19 2 / 2 pts When gluteus maximus contracts, which bone is pulled posteriorly by this muscle? Tibia Ilium Ulna Femur Question 20 2 / 2 pts When extensor digitorum contracts, what action(s) occurs? A. Elbow extension B. Wrist extension C. Extension of digit 1 D. Extension of digits 2-5 E. A&C F. B&D Question 21 2 / 2 pts Contraction of results in ? obturator externus, spine flexion obturator externus, spine extension iliacus, hip flexion iliacus, hip extension Question 22 2 / 2 pts When piriformis contracts, what action(s) will not occur at the hip? A. Internal rotation B. Lateral rotation C. Adduction D. Flexion E. Extension F. A&D G. B&E Question 23 10 / 10 pts Use the figure answer the following five questions: 1. Which muscle is the prime mover of adduction, flexion and inward rotation of the humerus? (specify letter on diagram with the name of the muscle for full credit) 2. Which muscle is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve? (specify letter on diagram with the name of the muscle for full credit) 3. What is the name of muscle C? 4. What is the innervation of muscle C? 5. What is the origin of muscle E? Your Answer: 1- B(Pectoralis Major)\ 2- F or G (Coracobrachialis) 3- Supraspinatus 4- Suprascapular nerve 5- Inferior angle of scapula (Teres major) 1. B (Pectoralis Major) 2. F or G (Coracobrachialis) 3. Supraspinatus 4. Suprascapular nerve 5. Inferior angle of scapula (Teres major) Question 24 10 / 10 pts Use the figure to label the following six muscles: (Viewed posteriorly) A: C: D: F: H: I: Your Answer: A: Extensor carpi radialis longus, R C: Extensor digitorum D: Extensor carpi ulnaris F: Abductor pollicis longus H: Extensor indicis I: Extensor pollicis brevis A: Extensor carpi radialis longus C: Extensor digitorum D: Extensor Carpi Ulnaris F: Abductor pollicis longus H: Extensor indicis I: Extensor pollicis brevis Question 25 10 / 10 pts Use the figure to label the following six muscles: [Show Less]
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BIOD 151 Module 6 Exam 2022-2023 Latest Exam w Brand New Q & A
BIOD 151 Module 6 Exam 2022-2023 Latest Exam w/ Brand New Q & A M6: Exam- Requires Respondus LockDown Browser Due No due date Points 100 Questions 26 Re... [Show More] quires Respondus LockDown Browser Time Limit 60 Minutes Attempt History Attempt Time Score LATEST Attempt 1 60 minutes 100 out of 100 Score for this quiz: 100 out of 100 Submitted Feb 16 at 8:50am This attempt took 60 minutes. Question 1 5 1 5 pts Explain two reasons why a woman with low levels of LH would not be able to become pregnant. Your Answer: LH causes ovulation to occur and it causes progesterone release, which is the most important hormone for maintaining pregnancy. Low LH would prevent a woman from becoming pregnant. (1) LH acts on the ovary to cause ovulation to occur. (2) LH causes progesterone release to facilitate potential fertilization of the egg and pregnancy. Progesterone is a key hormone for the maintenance of pregnancy. Question 2 5 1 5 Pts Would you expect a male to have estrogen in their bloodstream? Explain why or why not. Your Answer: Yes. Both genders produce all the sex hormones, but the levels of each hormone vary by gender. For men, the gonads make testosterone and the adrenal glands secret estrogen. (1)Yes. Both male and female bodies produce "all" the sex hormones. However, the ratios are different. (2) The adrenal glands are largely responsible for producing this "opposite" hormone that the testis would not. Question 3 10 1 10 Pts Label the endocrine glands (A-D) B: c: D: Your Answer: a. thyroid gland b. adrenal gland c. kidney d. pancreas A: Thyroid gland B: Adrenal gland C: Kidney D: Pancreas Question 4 10 1 10 pts Explain the concept of negative feedback and how it helps to maintain homeostasis. Your Answer: The brain monitores hormone levels to maintain homeostasis. In a negative feedback loop, the increased level of a hormone signals feedback to stop the continued release of that hormone. 1- The effect or increased level of the hormone acts to shut down the continued release of the hormone. 2- The brain is constantly monitoring hormone levels to keep levels within a certain range or set-point (homeostasis). Negative feedback is a way of "turning off" hormone production when the desired level is achieved Question 5 2 1 2 pts This type of hormone is derived from cholesterol Peptide hormones Catecholamines O Steroid hormones Tyrosine Correctl Question 6 2 1 2 pts Growth hormone A. is most active during childhood/adolescence. B. can cause disease if levels are not correct. C. cannot affect an adult. Correctl Question 7 2 1 2 pts Neurons in the hypothalamus are called Neurosecretory Vasopressin Melanocytes Somatotropic Correctl Question 8 2 1 2 pts Which hormone production is increased with sunlight? o MSH —melanocyte stimulating hormone Melatonin Cortisol Correctl GH -Growth hormone Question 9 2 1 2 pts The posterior pituitary stores these two hormones: ADH and Prolactin TSH and LH LH and FSH ADH and Oxytocin Correctl Question 10 2.5 1 2.5 pts List the hormone(s) that best describes the statement below: I lower the level of calcium in the blood by depositing calcium into bone. Your Answer: calcitonin Calcitonin Question 11 2.5 1 2.5 Pts List the hormone(s) that best describes the statement below: I am secreted by the pituitary and stimulate the gonads. Your Answer: FSH or LH - gonadotropic hormones FSH Gonadotropic hormones Question 12 2.5 1 2.5 pts List the hormone(s) that best describes the statement below: I am secreted by the pituitary to stimulate the adrenal cortex. Your Answer: ACTH ACTH Question 13 2.5 1 2.5 pts List the hormone(s) that best describes the statement below: I cause blood glucose to rise and breakdown stored nutrients. Your Answer: glucagon Glucagon Question 14 10 1 10 pts Answer the following question. Explain in detail how PTH and calcitonin work to maintain calcium balance. Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone (PTH) causes calcium absorption from the intestines and it keeps calcium when the kidneys eleminate phosphates. It also stimulates demineralization of bone, which then causes calcium to increase in the blood. PTH and calcitonin work togeather to maintain blood calcium levels. PTH increases the calcium level in blood. Calcitonin lowers the calcium levels in blood and deposits calcium into the bone. When blood calcium levels are adequate, the parathyroid glands stop producing PTH. Calcitonin: produced by the thyroid glands, deposits calcium into bone. Calcitonin opposes the action of PTH. When the blood calcium level reaches the appropriate level through all these means, the parathyroid glands stop producing PTH through negative feedback. PTH: produced by the parathyroid glands increase the amount of calcium in the blood. (Any one of the following explanations of PTH is acceptable) PTH stimulates the increased absorption of calcium from the intestines. PTH retains calcium through excreting phosphate at the kidneys. In the bones, PTH promotes the activity of osteoclasts to demineralize of the bone, increasing the amount of calcium in the blood. Question 15 2 1 2 pts Where is thyroid stimulating hormone produced? Pineal Thyroid Thymus Anterior Pituitary Posterior Pituitary Correctl Question 16 2 1 2 pts Which gland decreases in size with age? Thyroid O Thymus Pituitary Adrenal Correctl Question 17 2 1 2 pts Iodine is needed to produce which hormone/s? A. Gonadotropic D. TSH E. B&C (Thyroid hormones cannot be produced without iodine) Correctl Question 18 2 1 2 pts Which of the following is NOT a function of oxytocin? Growth of uterus and vagina Correctl Uterine contraction Milk letdown Given to aid in childbirth process Question 19 2 1 2 pts Which hormones are produced in the anterior pituitary? TSH, MSH, and calcitonin ADH, GH, and prolactin Ô ACTH, FSH, and CH. PTH, TSH, and LH Correctl Question 20 10 1 10 pts Explain in detail why the thyroid becomes enlarged during an iodine deficiency? Your Answer: When idodine is lacking in the diet, the thyroid enlarges (goiter). If thyroxin is low, TSH is produced and the thyroid increases in size. An enlarged thyroid is not effective, because thyroxin can't be produced without iodine. [Show Less]
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BIOD 151 ALL LAB EXAMS COMBINED 2022-2023.
BIOD 151 ALL LAB EXAMS COMBINED 2022/2023 Lab 1 1. Susan Smith is a participant in an Anatomy and Physiology lab class. Susan walked into lab... [Show More] today carrying a bagged lunch that she brought to eat following class. She has long blonde hair that is not pulled back. Today in class, you are reviewing basic microscopy and you notice that Susan’s microscope is partially hanging off the edge of her lab bench. Given what you learned from the lab video, list two lab safety concerns you notice in the above scenario. Susan brought food into the lab; Susan did not pull her hair back; Susan does not have the microscope safely secured on the lab bench. 2. Describe the position of a subject’s body when they are in anatomical position. When a person is standing in anatomical position, they are standing upright with feet flat on the ground. Head is facing forward. Arms are at the sides with palms facing forward. 3. Which of the following planes best describes the above image? a. Frontal Plane b. Sagittal Plane c. Mid-Sagittal Plane d. Transverse Plane c. Mid-Sagittal Plane 4. Which of the following planes best describes the above image? a. Frontal Plane b. Mid-Sagittal Plane c. Sagittal Plane d. Transverse Plane a. Frontal Plane 1. When comparing the relationship of the eyes to the occipital (back portion) region of the head, which of the following terms best describes the occipital region? a. Ventral b. Dorsal c. Anterior d. Posterior e. a. and c. f. b. and d. f. b. and d. 2. When looking at the body in anatomical position, which of the following statements best describes the relationship of the legs to the ribs? a. The legs are distal to the ribs b. The legs are inferior to the ribs c. The legs are lateral to the ribs d. The legs are superficial to the ribs b. The legs are inferior to the ribs 3. When looking at the body in anatomical position, which of the following statements best describes the relationship of the trunk to the arms? a. The trunk is medial to the arms b. The trunk is proximal to the arms c. The trunk is lateral to the arms d. The trunk is superficial to the arms a. the trunk is medial to the arms 4. When looking at the body in anatomical position, which of the following statements best describes the relationship of the knee to the ankle? a. The knee is distal to the ankle b. The knee is superior to the ankle c. The knee is proximal to the ankle d. b. and c. e. none of the above are correct statements d. b. and c. 5. A surgeon is about to perform surgery and directs his OR team to place the patient in the supine position. Describe what the supine position is. The supine position is lying on the back, face upward. 1. The crus is part of which skeletal division? a. The axial division b. The appendicular division c. Neither division b. The appendicular division 2. Which of the following statements is false? a. The two main body cavities are the dorsal and ventral cavities. b. The thoracic cavity contains 2 subdivisions. c. The ventral cavity can be subdivided into the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities. d. All of the statements are true statements. b. The thoracic cavity contains 2 subdivisions. (It contains 3 subdivisions.) 3. Which of the following lines the lungs? a. The parietal pleura b. The meninges c. The visceral pleura c. The visceral pleura 4. Which of the following is a true statement? a. Inflammation of the pleural lining is referred to as pleurisy. b. Inflammation of the pericardium is referred to as carditis. c. a. and b. d. None of the statements are true. a. Inflammation of the pleural lining is referred to as pleurisy. 5. Describe what the term “retroperitoneal” means and give an example of a retroperitoneal organ. Retroperitoneal organs are located between the peritoneum and the dorsal body cavity. Examples include the kidneys, portions of the pancreas, the adrenal glands, and portions of the digestive organs. Retroperitoneal means situated behind the peritoneal cavity, between the peritoneum and dorsal cavity. An example of a retroperitoneal organ is kidney. 1. Describe the proper way to carry a microscope. You should always carry a microscope by placing one hand under the base while the other hand braces the arm. 2. What portion of the light microscope adjusts the amount of light that passes through the light source? a. The illuminator b. The oculars c. The diaphragm c. The diaphragm 3. Which knob is the instructor adjusting in the above picture? The mechanical stage control knob. 4. The objective magnification is 4x. The ocular magnification is 10x. What is the total magnification? Total magnification = 40x (objective magnification x ocular magnification = total magnification.) LAB 2 1. Give the definition of what a tissue is. A tissue is a grouping of similar cells that work together to perform a specific function. 2. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the four primary classes of tissue in the body? a. Epithelial tissue functions in secretion and protection. b. Connective tissue functions to bind tissues and anchor organs. c. Nervous tissue functions in communication throughout the body. d. Muscular tissue functions in movement throughout the body. e. All of the above are true statements. e. All of the above are true statements. 3. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding differences between tissue types? a. Tissues vary based upon the type of matrix it possesses. b. Tissues vary based upon the composition of matrix. c. Tissues vary based upon ratio of cells to matrix. d. b. and c. are true. e. All of the above statements are true. d. b. and c. are true. 4. Which of the following germ layers gives rise to fibroblasts? a. Ectoderm b. Mesoderm c. Endoderm d. a. and c. e. b. and c. f. All of the above b. Mesoderm 1. What are the ways epithelial tissue is classified? Epithelial tissue is classified by cell type, cell shape, and cell arrangement. 2. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the structure of epithelial tissue? a. Epithelial tissue has a direct nerve supply. b. Epithelial tissue draws its blood supply from the connective tissue. c. Epithelial tissue is composed of a large cellular content with a small amount of matrix. d. All of the above statements are true. d. All of the above statements are true. A. B. C. 3. Which of the above images is an example of simple cuboidal epithelial tissue? A. 4. What type of epithelial tissue do you see in the above image? Explain how you know what type it is. The above image depicts pseudostratified epithelial tissue. All cells touch the basement membrane, but not all cells reach the apical or free surface. 1. Match the following epithelial tissue types with its location in the body. 1. Simple squamous epithelium a. 2. Simple cuboidal epithelium c. 3. Simple columnar epithelium d. 4. Pseudostratified epithelium b. a. capillary walls b. respiratory tract c. glands d. uterine tubes [Show Less]
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BIOD 151 A&P 1 Module 1 Exam portage learning Updated 2022-2023
BIOD 151/A&P 1 Module 1 Exam portage learning Updated 2022-2023 What is the study of the structure of the human body? Anatomy Physiology ... [Show More] Anabolism Catabolism Metabolism Epithelium is an example of what level of organization in the human body? Chemical Organ Cellular Tissue Organ system What is the breakdown of nutrients? Anatomy Physiology Anabolism Catabolism Metabolism List the four basic types of tissues. Your Answer: • Epithelium tissue • Muscle tissue • Connective tissue • Nervous tissue Epithelium, muscle, connective, and nervous tissue List the three layers of the skin in order from superficial to deep. The most superficial layer of the skin should be at the top of your list. To receive credit the layers must be in this order. Your Answer: • Epidermis (outer layer) • Dermis • Hypodermis 1. epidermis (outer layer) 2. dermis (middle layer) 3. hypodermis (inner, also called subcutaneous tissue layer) *MUST be in this order (top to bottom) to receive credit Note: Essay answers must clearly be in your own words. Glucagon stimulates the breakdown of glycogen in the liver. Based upon your learning of metabolism, would this be considered an anabolic or catabolic hormone? Explain why. Your Answer: The breakdown of glycogen in the liver is catabolic reaction. Because catabolism is the part of the metabolism responsible for breaking complex molucules down into smaller molecules. So glucogon hormene is catabolic hormone. Catabolic because it is breaking down a larger substance into smaller parts (releasing energy in the process). What anatomical orientation term is used to indicate "toward the front of the body"? Superior Inferior Ventral Dorsal Medial What anatomical orientation term is used to indicate "toward the upper part of a structure"? Superior Inferior Ventral Dorsal Medial What anatomical orientation term is used to indicate "away from the head end"? Your Answer: Inferior(caudal) Inferior Caudal What anatomical orientation term is used to indicate "further from the origin of the body part"? Your Answer: Distal Distal You are looking at a diagram of a patient standing in anatomical position. On the sheet of paper containing the diagram, which thumb points to the right side of the paper, right or left? Your Answer: Left thump points to the right side. Left Is the spine part of the axial or appendicular region of the body? Your Answer: Axial Region. Axial A patient is standing with his hand covering his mouth. He returns his hand to his side, moving into anatomical position. What anatomical action term is best used to indicate the motion occurring at his elbow? Flexion Extension Elevation Depression Abduction What anatomical orientation term is used to indicate "upward movement of a structure"? Flexion Extension Elevation Depression Abduction Describe the position of the diaphragm in relation to the thoracic cavity in anatomical position terms. Use a full sentence for your description. Your Answer: We can define The diaphragm is inferior to thoracic cavity. In other way to say the thoracic cavity is superior to diaphram. The diaphragm is inferior to the thoracic cavity. (OR) The thoracic cavity is superior to the diaphragm. Which anatomical action is occurring at the elbow joint, in the direction of the arrow? Your Answer: Flexion (elbow) (Elbow) Flexion Look at the figure below. The right femur is moved in the direction of the arrow. What anatomical action term best describes this movement? Your Answer: Abduction. Femur is moving from midline Abduction (The femur is moving away from midline) List two organs contained in the abdominal cavity. Your Answer: • Stomach • Intestines • liver The abdominal cavity contains the stomach, intestines, spleen and liver True or False: The dorsal body cavity contains the cranial cavity, the spinal cavity, and the pelvic cavity. If your answer is false, rephrase the statement to make it a true statement. Your Answer: False : Dorsal cavity contains cranial and spinal cavities. Pelvic cavity is in the ventral cavity. False. The dorsal cavity contains the cranial cavity and the spinal cavity. The body is divided into superior and inferior sections by what type of plane? Your Answer: Transverse Plane (Horizontal Plane) Transverse plane horizontal plane A section that is diagonal between horizontal and vertical planes is called what? Your Answer: Oblique Oblique Look at the diagram below. What type of plane is shown? Your Answer: Frontal Plane (Coronal) Frontal Coronal Using the letters given, match the cell with the type of solution it has been placed in: A cell beginning to swell A red blood cell placed in ocean water A cell containing an equal amount of solute as the solution Using the letters given, match each molecule/item with its typical means of entering a cell. You may need to use some means of entry more than once. Lipid insoluble molecules Other cells Water Which one of the following is not true of active transport? Active transport occurs against the concentration gradient Carrier proteins move particles from greater concentration to lesser The sodium-potassium pump is an example additional energy is required to drive this process List the three organelles, in order, involved in the synthesis, transport and shipping of proteins. rough ER, Golgi complex, lysosomes ribosomes, rough ER, Golgi complex ribosomes, smooth ER, Golgi complex rough ER, Golgi complex, vacuole Label the 5 organelles listed below: 1: 2: 3: 7: 9: Your Answer: 1. Nucleus 2.Mitochondria 3.Nucleolus 7.Lysosome 9.Golgi Apparatus 1. Nucleus 2. Mitochondria 3. Nucleolus 7. Lysosome 9. Golgi Apparatus/ Golgi Complex True or False? a. Cellular respiration occurs in the mitochondria. (T or F) b. The purpose of cellular respiration is to produce ATP. (T or F) c. Integral proteins are only found on the inner surface of a cell membrane. (T or F) d. Endocytosis is the process that occurs to eject biomacromolecules from the cell. (T or F) e. Pinocytosis uses a signaling molecule from another cell, binding to the cell membrane to bring about changes within the cell proteins. (T or F) Your Answer: a.True b.True c.False d.False e.False a. True b. True c. False- (Peripheral proteins are found on the inner or outer surface of the cell membrane. Integral proteins span the entire length of the membrane.) d. False- (This process is called exocytosis) e. False- (This process is called receptor-mediated endocytosis or information transfer) Note: Essay answers must clearly be in your own words. In your own words, discuss Tay-Sachs disease. What organelle within the cell is impacted? What are the symptoms of the disease and why do they occur? Your Answer: Organelle is Lysosomes,Also toxic lipids inside the cell. Disability, blindless, paralysis and death can be occur. Tay-Sachs disease a lipid-digesting enzyme is missing or inactive, and the brain becomes impaired by an accumulation of lipids in the cells. It is a rare disorder passed from parents to child. It's caused by the absence of an enzyme that helps break down fatty substances. In Tay-Sachs the lysosomes lack a functiniong hydrolytic enzyme normally present. (1) Lysosomes (2) buildup of toxic lipids inside the cell (biomacromolecules) (3) disability and death In the genetic disease known as Tay-Sachs, one of the normally present digestive enzymes inside lysosomes is lacking. Thus, a toxic lipid in the brain cells cannot be broken down. The resulting buildup of lipids in these cells can cause intellectual disability and death. [Show Less]
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Biod 151 A&P 1 Module 2 Exam Portage Learning Latest Update 2022-2023
Biod 151/A&P 1 Module 2 Exam Portage Learning Latest Update 2022/2023 How many lobes does the right human lung have? Your Answer: Three lobes. Three L... [Show More] obes Air and food pass in which one of the following areas: Trachea Nasopharynx Oropharynx Alveoli Rings of cartilage line much of the respiratory tract. In which of one the following would cartilage NOT be found? Trachea Larynx Bronchi Alveoli Label the following five items from the diagram: Label B- Label D- Label E- Label F- Label G- Your Answer: Label B- Oral Cavity Label D - Epiglottis Label E- Glottis Label F- Trachea Label G- Esophagus Label B- Oral Cavity Label D- Epiglottis Label E- Glottis Label F- Trachea Label G- Esophagus Note: Essay answers must clearly be in your own words. Explain what happens to the epiglottis during swallowing. Why? Your Answer: When we swallow the epiglottis moves to block the entrance of food particles into our larynx and lungs. The muscles of the larynx pull upward to assist with this movement. They tightly close during swallowing. This prevents food from entering our lungs. The trachea is closed by the epiglottis. The epiglottis moves inferiorly, covering the trachea. This is to prevent food or liquid from entering the lungs. Note: Essay answers must clearly be in your own words. Explain at least two differences between Type I and Type II alveolar cells. Your Answer: The type I cells is a complex branched cell with multiple cytoplasmic plates that are greatly attenuated and realatively devoid of organelles. Type I cells the very thin simple squamous epithelium of the alveoli junction with capillaries. Make up roughly 95 % of aleveolar epithelial cells. The Type II cells act as the 'caretaker' of the alveolar compartment. Type II produce and secrete pulmonary surfactant which is needed throughout the alveolar surface to keep the alveoli open. In addion, Type II cells can divide to replace damaged Type I cells. Make up roughly 5% of alveolar epithelial cells. a. Type I form the very thin simple squamous epithelium of the alveoli in junction with capillaries. Make up roughly 95% of alveolar epithelial cells. b. Type II produce and secrete pulmonary surfactant which is needed throughout the alveolar surface to keep the alveoli open. In addition, Type II cells can divide to replace damaged Type I cells. Make up roughly 5% of alveolar epithelial cells. True/False: Positive pressure is used to move air into the lungs. True False (Negative pressure) True/False: During inhalation the diaphragm contracts to pull the lungs open. True False True/False: During inhalation the rib cage lifts in an upward motion to open and expand the lungs. False True/False: As the thoracic cavity expands and lung volume increases, the density of the gases filling the lungs decreases. True False True/False: When the diaphragm rises, thoracic pressure increases and air naturally flows out of the lungs. True (air naturally flows out of the lungs because of the pressure difference) False Boyle's law states that gas volume is: A. Directly proportional to temperature C. Directly proportional to pressure D. Inversely proportional to pressure E. Both A and B Which one of the following tracheal cartilages are paired? Thyroid Cricoid Arytenoid Epiglottal Hyaline Which one of the following is not true of the pleurae? Parietal pleurae cover the surfaces surrounding the lungs Visceral pleurae cover the diaphragm A healthy pleural cavity is nearly empty of air or fluid Which one of the following is not true of the respiratory physiology? Tidal volume is the maximum amount of air able to be inhaled beyond normal inhalation Tidal volume is the amount of air inhaled and exhaled in one cycle of quiet breathing Inspiratory reserve volume is the maximum amount of air able to be inhaled beyond normal inhalation Expiratory reserve volume is the maximum amount of air able to be exhaled beyond normal exhalation Which one of the following is true of the respiratory physiology calculations? (You may find it helpful to draw the respiratory physiology diagram on a piece of scratch paper.) Total Lung Capacity (TLC) = VC +RV Inspiratory Capacity (IC) = TV+RV Functional Residual Capacity (FRC) = IRV + TV True/False: The gas-exchange region in the lungs must be dry, thin and large. True False requires moisture True/False: The vestibule is the most external portion of the nasal cavity. True True/False: The vestibule is lined with typical respiratory epithelium. True False stratified squamous epithelium is found in the vestibule True/False: Because of diffusion, oxygen naturally moves out of the blood and into the lungs. True Correct Answer False True/False: The bronchioles are surrounded by capillaries for gas exchange. False Matching: • The pleural space fills with air, pus or blood. A. Emphysema • This condition results from fluid-filled alveoli. B. Cystic Fibrosis • This condition results in a loss of alveoli. C. Pulmonary edema • This hereditary illness results in excess mucus. D. Pleurisy The pleural space fills with air, pus or blood. This condition results from fluid-filled alveoli. This condition results in a loss of alveoli. This hereditary illness results in excess mucus. The pressure of three gases equals 1 atmosphere. What is the partial pressure of oxygen (in mmHG) if nitrogen is 300 mmHg and carbon dioxide is 350 mmHg? To receive full credit you must show your work. 1 atm = 760 mmHg 300 mmHg+350 mmHg + X = 760 mmHg X = 110 mmHg 110 mmHG 1atm= 760 mmHg 300 mmHg + 350 mmHG + X = 760 mmHg OR: 760 - 300-350= 110 mmHG Why would warming air be beneficial to gas exchange? Your Answer: The higher temperature the greater gas volume, or the lower temperature the lower gas volume. That's mean is Charles's Law. According to Charles's Law, the volume of a given quantity of gas is directly proportional to its temperature. Therefore the weather when be warm, gas volume greater. Warm air helps keep our lungs expanded in alveoli full and open and gas exchange can take place. It would expand the air to make it more available for gas exchange. [Show Less]
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Portage Learning BIOD 151 Module 3 Exam Study Guide w Brand New Questions A++ (2022-2023)
M3: Exam- Requires Respondus LockDown Browser Explain why someone who has hypergastrinemia (excessive secretion of gastrin) might develop gastric/st... [Show More] omach ulcers. Your Answer: Gastrin stimulates the secretaion of pepsinogenes and HCL. If it is excess amounr that means it would be lead to erosion of the stomach. Gastrin stimulates the secretions of pepsinogens and hydrochloric acid. Excess amounts would lead to erosion of the stomach lining. Explain in detail how the stomach contents enter the small intestine. Your Answer: There is the pyloric sphincter at thebase of stomach. Therefore, this valve relaxes causing a small quantity of chyme to pass the opening into the first part of small intestine. And then, this initiates a reflex. That is why the muscles of the sphincter to contrcat and close the openinf temporarily. After sphincter relaxes again and it allows more chyme to enter. The pyloric sphincter (valve), located at the base of the stomach, relaxes causing a small quantity of chyme to pass through the opening into the first part of the small intestine. This initiates a reflex that causes the muscles of the sphincter to contract and close the opening temporarily. Then the sphincter relaxes again and allows more chyme to enter. Look carefully at the diagram below. Label the following 5 organs of the digestive system. To receive credit for the intestines you must label the specific region. 3: 4: 7: 9: 10: Your Answer: 3: Stomach 4: Gallbladder 7: Jejenum 9: Appendix 10: Rectum 3: Stomach 4: Gallbladder 7: Jejunum (not small intestine) 9: Appendix (not large intestine) 10: Rectum (not large intestine) A patient is experiencing vitamin toxicity. What type of vitamin would be causing this toxicity? Explain your answer. A. Water soluble vitamin B. Fat soluble vitamin C. All of the above Your Answer: Fat soluble vitamin. These vitamins are stored within the body's fat stores making it harder for the body to rid itself of them. Therefore it can cause vitamin toxicity. B. Fat soluble vitamin. Fat soluble vitamins are stored within the body’s fat stores making it harder for the body to rid itself of them. Explain which digestive system functions are carried out by the large intestine. Your Answer: Absorption: Water and electrolytes are reabsorbed and vitamins are absorbed. Defecation ; Feces goes to the rectum then excreted va anus. Absorption: In the large intestine water and electrolytes are reabsorbed and vitamins are absorbed. Defecation: Feces travel to the rectum where it is excreted via the anus. Note: Essay answers must clearly be in your own words. Answer the following essay question: Describe parietal cells and chief cells: name their location, secretions and purposes. Your Answer: Parietal cells located in the wall of stomach body secrete HCL acid, generate a pH of 1.3-3.5. This acidite kills many bacteria. Also, the low pH stops the activity of salivary amylase.Secretion of HCL acis is essential in the activate of pepsin. Chief cells produces pepsinogen. Pepsinogen is secreted by the chief cells in the stomach. HCL acid converts the inactive pepsinogen into the active enzyme pepsin and then it begins breakdown of proteins. The parietal cells (located in the wall of the stomach body) secrete hydrochloric acid, generating a pH of 1.3-3.5. This very acidic pH kills many of the bacteria ingested along with food. In addition, the low pH stops the activity of salivary amylase. The secretion of hydrochloric acid is essential in the activation of pepsin. Chief cells: secrete pepsinogen. Pepsinogen (a pre-enzyme) is secreted by the chief cells in the stomach. Hydrochloric acid converts the inactive pepsinogen (secreted by the chief cells) into the active enzyme pepsin which begins the breakdown of proteins. Match the digestive organ with the one substance it produces: Large intestine Stomach Small intestine Other Incorrect Match Options: • Bile • Salivary amylase • Trypsin What is the purpose of the hormone Leptin? Increase hunger, decrease satiety Increase hunger, increase satiety Decrease hunger, increase satiety Decrease hunger, decrease satiety Which of the following statements is false? Taste buds are located on the surface of the mouth and the wall of the pharynx. The ileocecal valve controls the entrance of chyme into to the small intestine. (It controls the entrance to the large intestine) The gall bladder, teeth, and tongue are considered accessory organs to the digestive system. The alimentary canal is a continuous muscular tube, open at both ends. Question 10 2 / 2 pts True/False: Lipids can be divided into three categories: saturated fat, unsaturated fat, and cholesterol. True False True/False: Anabolism combines smaller molecules to make larger molecules. True False True/False: The oropharynx is the most superior region of the pharynx. True False (The nasopharynx is the most superior region) True/False: The pharynx has two types of skeletal muscle: circumferential and oblique. True False (It does not include an oblique layer) True/False: The digestive work of salivary amylase is an example of mechanical digestion. True False (Chemical digestion) Label the following three types of raised bumps on the tongue. Describe the purpose of type C. A: B: C: Describe C: Your Answer: A. Filiform papillae B: Circumvallete papillae C; Fungiform Papillae C: They are raised bumps and located on the tounge.Fungiform papillae contain taste buds. There type of papillae help to grip food on the tounge. A: Filiform papillae B: Circumvallate papillae C: Fungiform papillae Describe C: The papillae are raised bumps on the tongue. The three types of papillae help to grip food on the tongue: circumvallate, fungiform and filiform. Fungiform papillae contain taste buds. Which of the following statements is true concerning glycolysis? Pyruvic acid are broken down into glucose. Two ATP molecules are formed in first breakdown of glucose. Glucose is broken down into three pyruvate molecules. Glucose is broken down into two sucrose molecules. Which of the following statements is false concerning the second stage of glucose breakdown? This second stage is also known as the TCA cycle. Pyruvic acid is converted to carbon dioxide. Additional ATP is formed. This is also known as the electron transport system. Which of the following statements is false concerning the Electron Transport System? Anaerobic respiration is more efficient than aerobic respiration. Approximately a total of 34 ATP are formed. Protons are pumped out of the inner mitochondrial membrane. The proton motive force forms ATP molecules. Label the diagram below, including left or right. Describe tooth (A). A: C: E: F: Describe tooth type A: Your Answer: A: Left Central Incisor C: Left Canine E: Right Molar F: Maxilla (Hard Palate ) A: Left Central Incisor; It is Chisel-shaped for biting food. A: Left Central Incisor C: Left Canine (cuspid) E: Right Molar F: Maxilla (Hard Palate) Describe tooth type A:Chisel-shaped for biting food Match the structure with the best description: Pancreas: Storage site for bile Attached to the soft palate Secretes juices which digest all types of foods Stores glycogen and produces urea Forms food into a bolus Match the structure with the best description: Small Intestine: First section is called the jejunum Contains the LES Attaches to the greater omentum Pancreas secretions enter here via Hepatopancreatic ampulla Secretes Vitamin K Match the structure with the best description: Muscularis externa (layer of tissue): Made of two layers of muscle Innermost layer Secretes mucous Contains blood and lymph vessels Begins in the mouth [Show Less]
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Biod 151 A&P 1 Module 4 Exam portage learning Updated 2022-2023
M3: Exam- Requires Respondus LockDown Browser Explain why someone who has hypergastrinemia (excessive secretion of gastrin) might develop gastric/st... [Show More] omach ulcers. Your Answer: Gastrin stimulates the secretaion of pepsinogenes and HCL. If it is excess amounr that means it would be lead to erosion of the stomach. Gastrin stimulates the secretions of pepsinogens and hydrochloric acid. Excess amounts would lead to erosion of the stomach lining. Explain in detail how the stomach contents enter the small intestine. Your Answer: There is the pyloric sphincter at thebase of stomach. Therefore, this valve relaxes causing a small quantity of chyme to pass the opening into the first part of small intestine. And then, this initiates a reflex. That is why the muscles of the sphincter to contrcat and close the openinf temporarily. After sphincter relaxes again and it allows more chyme to enter. The pyloric sphincter (valve), located at the base of the stomach, relaxes causing a small quantity of chyme to pass through the opening into the first part of the small intestine. This initiates a reflex that causes the muscles of the sphincter to contract and close the opening temporarily. Then the sphincter relaxes again and allows more chyme to enter. Look carefully at the diagram below. Label the following 5 organs of the digestive system. To receive credit for the intestines you must label the specific region. 3: 4: 7: 9: 10: Your Answer: 3: Stomach 4: Gallbladder 7: Jejenum 9: Appendix 10: Rectum 3: Stomach 4: Gallbladder 7: Jejunum (not small intestine) 9: Appendix (not large intestine) 10: Rectum (not large intestine) A patient is experiencing vitamin toxicity. What type of vitamin would be causing this toxicity? Explain your answer. A. Water soluble vitamin B. Fat soluble vitamin C. All of the above Your Answer: Fat soluble vitamin. These vitamins are stored within the body's fat stores making it harder for the body to rid itself of them. Therefore it can cause vitamin toxicity. B. Fat soluble vitamin. Fat soluble vitamins are stored within the body’s fat stores making it harder for the body to rid itself of them. Explain which digestive system functions are carried out by the large intestine. Your Answer: Absorption: Water and electrolytes are reabsorbed and vitamins are absorbed. Defecation ; Feces goes to the rectum then excreted va anus. Absorption: In the large intestine water and electrolytes are reabsorbed and vitamins are absorbed. Defecation: Feces travel to the rectum where it is excreted via the anus. Note: Essay answers must clearly be in your own words. Answer the following essay question: Describe parietal cells and chief cells: name their location, secretions and purposes. Your Answer: Parietal cells located in the wall of stomach body secrete HCL acid, generate a pH of 1.3-3.5. This acidite kills many bacteria. Also, the low pH stops the activity of salivary amylase.Secretion of HCL acis is essential in the activate of pepsin. Chief cells produces pepsinogen. Pepsinogen is secreted by the chief cells in the stomach. HCL acid converts the inactive pepsinogen into the active enzyme pepsin and then it begins breakdown of proteins. The parietal cells (located in the wall of the stomach body) secrete hydrochloric acid, generating a pH of 1.3-3.5. This very acidic pH kills many of the bacteria ingested along with food. In addition, the low pH stops the activity of salivary amylase. The secretion of hydrochloric acid is essential in the activation of pepsin. Chief cells: secrete pepsinogen. Pepsinogen (a pre-enzyme) is secreted by the chief cells in the stomach. Hydrochloric acid converts the inactive pepsinogen (secreted by the chief cells) into the active enzyme pepsin which begins the breakdown of proteins. Match the digestive organ with the one substance it produces: Large intestine Stomach Small intestine Other Incorrect Match Options: • Bile • Salivary amylase • Trypsin What is the purpose of the hormone Leptin? Increase hunger, decrease satiety Increase hunger, increase satiety Decrease hunger, increase satiety Decrease hunger, decrease satiety Which of the following statements is false? Taste buds are located on the surface of the mouth and the wall of the pharynx. The ileocecal valve controls the entrance of chyme into to the small intestine. (It controls the entrance to the large intestine) The gall bladder, teeth, and tongue are considered accessory organs to the digestive system. The alimentary canal is a continuous muscular tube, open at both ends. Question 10 2 / 2 pts True/False: Lipids can be divided into three categories: saturated fat, unsaturated fat, and cholesterol. True False True/False: Anabolism combines smaller molecules to make larger molecules. True False True/False: The oropharynx is the most superior region of the pharynx. True False (The nasopharynx is the most superior region) True/False: The pharynx has two types of skeletal muscle: circumferential and oblique. True False (It does not include an oblique layer) True/False: The digestive work of salivary amylase is an example of mechanical digestion. True False (Chemical digestion) Label the following three types of raised bumps on the tongue. Describe the purpose of type C. A: B: C: Describe C: Your Answer: A. Filiform papillae B: Circumvallete papillae C; Fungiform Papillae C: They are raised bumps and located on the tounge.Fungiform papillae contain taste buds. There type of papillae help to grip food on the tounge. A: Filiform papillae B: Circumvallate papillae C: Fungiform papillae Describe C: The papillae are raised bumps on the tongue. The three types of papillae help to grip food on the tongue: circumvallate, fungiform and filiform. Fungiform papillae contain taste buds. Which of the following statements is true concerning glycolysis? Pyruvic acid are broken down into glucose. Two ATP molecules are formed in first breakdown of glucose. Glucose is broken down into three pyruvate molecules. Glucose is broken down into two sucrose molecules. Which of the following statements is false concerning the second stage of glucose breakdown? This second stage is also known as the TCA cycle. Pyruvic acid is converted to carbon dioxide. Additional ATP is formed. This is also known as the electron transport system. Which of the following statements is false concerning the Electron Transport System? Anaerobic respiration is more efficient than aerobic respiration. Approximately a total of 34 ATP are formed. Protons are pumped out of the inner mitochondrial membrane. The proton motive force forms ATP molecules. Label the diagram below, including left or right. Describe tooth (A). A: C: E: F: Describe tooth type A: Your Answer: A: Left Central Incisor C: Left Canine E: Right Molar F: Maxilla (Hard Palate ) A: Left Central Incisor; It is Chisel-shaped for biting food. A: Left Central Incisor C: Left Canine (cuspid) E: Right Molar F: Maxilla (Hard Palate) Describe tooth type A:Chisel-shaped for biting food Match the structure with the best description: Pancreas: Storage site for bile Attached to the soft palate Secretes juices which digest all types of foods Stores glycogen and produces urea Forms food into a bolus Match the structure with the best description: Small Intestine: First section is called the jejunum Contains the LES Attaches to the greater omentum Pancreas secretions enter here via Hepatopancreatic ampulla Secretes Vitamin K Match the structure with the best description: Muscularis externa (layer of tissue): Made of two layers of muscle Innermost layer Secretes mucous Contains blood and lymph vessels Begins in the mouth [Show Less]
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