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ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exam Bundle
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TEAS Exam Questions and Answers | Graded to Pass
Biological Classification System - ✔✔ Domain Kingdoms Phylum Order Family Genus Species Difference between RNA and DNA - ✔✔ Ribose(found in ... [Show More] RNA) Deoxyribose (found in DNA) Uracil in RNA Thyamine in DNA Difference between transcription and translation - ✔✔ Transcription: Transcription, or RNA synthesis, is the process of creating an equivalent RNA copy of a sequence of DNA Translation: Translation is the first stage of protein biosynthesis (part of the overall process of gene expression). In translation, messenger RNA (mRNA) produced in transcription is decoded to produce a specific amino acid chain, or polypeptide, that will later fold into an active protein. Prokaryotic - ✔✔ Bacteria-(both Eubacteria and Archaebacteria) Contains Cell Wall. Contains Nucleoid no nucleus. Lysome - ✔✔ Contains digestive enzymes that capable of disposing cellular debris and worn cellular parts. Vacuole - ✔✔ storage unit of the cell. Nucleolus - ✔✔ within the nucleus produces ribosomes to make cell proteins. Difference between eukaryotic and plant cells - ✔✔ Plant and animal cells have several differences and similarities. For example, animal cells do not have a cell wall or chloroplasts but plant cells do. Animal cells are round and irregular in shape while plant cells have fixed, rectangular shapes. Zygote - ✔✔ a fertilized egg that begins dividing to produce a mass of cells Embryo - ✔✔ an animal or plant in the early stages of development after fertilization. Heterotrophs - ✔✔ organisms that can not produce their own food. Autotroph - ✔✔ organism that can produce it's own food. colors listed longest to shortest wavelength. - ✔✔ red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo, violet. ROY G BIV Short to long wavelengths - ✔✔ Gamma ray, x ray, ultraviolet, visible, infrared, microwave, and radio waves Kinetic Energy - ✔✔ KE=1/2mv^2 Potential Energy - ✔✔ PE=mgh Ion - ✔✔ negative or positive charged atom..imbalance of protons and electrons. Atomic Number, Mass Number, Atomic Mass - ✔✔ Atomic number- # of protons, Mass Number- # of protons and neutrons, Atomic Mass-average of mass of all the known isotopes of an element. Isotopes - ✔✔ Atoms with the same number of protons but different number of neutrons Alkane - ✔✔ completely single bonded, saturated, =CnH(2n+2) Alkene - ✔✔ unsaturated, contains double bond, CnH(2n) Alkyne - ✔✔ unsaturated, contains triple bond , CnH(2n-2) Kelvin scale - ✔✔ 0'C=-273 KelvinK-273= C / K= C+ 273 triple point - ✔✔ the temperature and pressure at which water wil lco exist as a solid, liquid, and gas. 273.16 phase transistion - ✔✔ H=MxL mass=grams. L=cal/g valves on the right side of heart - ✔✔ tricuspid and pulmonary valves on the left side of the heart - ✔✔ mitral and aortic physiology of the heart - ✔✔ Deoxygenated blood is pumped into the right side of the heart via superior and vena cava, the blood flows into RA contracts then pumps into triscuipid valve into RV then contracts into the pulmonary valve into the pulmonary artery, then pulmonary veins into the LA, through mitral valve, into LV. LV in aortic valve into aorta into the entire body. Central Nervous System - ✔✔ Brain and spinal cord Peripheral Nervous System - ✔✔ Nerves that extend beyond the brain and spinal cord. Autonomic nervous system - ✔✔ part of the PNS, controls automatic body functions such as digestion and heart beat. Sympathetic nerves (active when a person is scared or excited.) Parasympathetic nerves (when is person eating or at rest) Sensory-somatic nervous system - ✔✔ part of the PNS that consists of 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs for spinal nerves and associated ganglia, that controls voluntary movements, such as walking and talking. Hierararchy of the structure of the Human Body - ✔✔ ORGANISM ORGAN SYSTEMS ORGANS TISSUES CELLS MOLECULES ATOMS Gastrulation - ✔✔ most critical stage of development, stage of individual tissues begin to form stages of interphase...? - ✔✔ ... Lymphatic System - ✔✔ Consists of lymph nodes, lymph vessels that carry lymph, the spleen, the thymus, and tonsils, are made up pof lymphoid tissue. It supports the immune system by housing and transporting white blood cells to and from lymph nodes. Transcription - ✔✔ DNA to RNA Translation - ✔✔ RNA to ribosomes Nervous System - ✔✔ Consists of the brain, spinal cord, and nerves, and serves as the body's control system. Reproductive System - ✔✔ Main purpose is to produce offspring. The system consists of the testes, penis, ovaries, vagina, and breasts. Deductive Reasoning - ✔✔ is a method whereby conclusions follow from general principles Inductive Reasoning - ✔✔ is a method of arriving at general principles from specific facts. Flow of oxygen - ✔✔ Inhaled through the nose into the trachea, passing into the left and right bronchial tubes, then into the alveoli, oxygen is then transported by red blood cells into the blood stream. Cilia - ✔✔ within bronchial tubes that are tiny hairs to help clear the airway by removing unwanted matter from the lungs Dendrites - ✔✔ nerve cells that receive stimuli from the internal and external environment and bring those stimuli to the neurons. Digestive System - ✔✔ Includes mouth, esophoagus, stomach, small intestine, (duodenum, jejunum, ileum) large intestine(or colon) and anus peristalis - ✔✔ the process of smooth muscle contracting to propel food down towards the colon and anus. [Show Less]
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ATI Predictor Test Questions and Answers| Graded A+
1 oz - ✔✔ 30 mL 1 tsp - ✔✔ 5mL 1 tbsp - ✔✔ 15 mL 1 tbsp - ✔✔ 3 tsp 1 kg - ✔✔ 2.2 lbs Dosages by weight - ✔�... [Show More] � a nurse is preparing 8 mg/kg/day to divide equally every 12 hours to a toddler that weighs 22 lb. Available is 100mg/5mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? 2.2 lb/1 kg = client's desired weight in lb/X kg so for example, a 22 lb toddler would weigh 10 kg. mg*kg/day= X 8 mg* 10 kg/1 day = 80 mg/day or 40 mg every 12hr have/quanity = desired/X 100mg/5mL = 40 mg/xmL x= 2 so 2 mL PO every 12 hours (Page 20) Tetracyclines - ✔✔ Antibiotics Doxycycline Minocycline Demeclocycline Expected Action Tetracyclines - ✔✔ inhibit micro-organism growth by preventing protein synthesis (bacteriostatic) Tetracyclines complications - ✔✔ 1. GI discomfort: cramping, NV, diarrhea, esophageal ulceration -Monitor I&O, suggest taking with meal (doxy./mino.), avoid at bedtime 2. Yellow or brown tooth discoloration, hypoplasia of tooth enamel -avoid to children and pregnant women 3. Hepatoxicity: lethargy, jaundice -avoid administration of high daily doses 4. Photosensitivity (intense sunburn) 5. Suprainfection: pseudomembranous colitis (diarrhea), yeast infections of mouth pharynx vagina bowels -notify if any of these manifest 6. Dizziness, lightheadedness (*mino.) -take care with ambulation & report Tetracyclines contraindications - ✔✔ Pregnancy Risk D. Stain teeth of pregnant and children. Use cautiously in liver/kidney disease. Tetracyclines interactions - ✔✔ milk products, calcium, and iron supplements, laxatives containing magnesium, and antacids cause formation of non absorbable chelates, thus reducing the absorption of tetracyclines. (take on empty stomach with 8 oz water (1 hr before or 2 hr after meals). Decrease the efficacy of oral contraceptives Mino and doxy increase risk of digoxin toxicity Tetracyclines nursing admnistration - ✔✔ -take on empty stomach (Except mino.) with 8 oz of water. It may be taken with food if gastric distress occurs. -Do not take before lying down because increased risk of esophageal ulceration. -Maintain 2hr interval between ingestion of chelating agents and tetracyclines -complete entire course of therapy -additional contraception Tetracyclines evaluation of effectiveness - ✔✔ decrease in manifestations of infection such as fever, pain, inflammation, and adventitious breath sounds. Resolutions of yeast infections of mouth, vagina, and bowels. Resolution of acne vulgaris. Identifying a causative agent to select antimicrobials - ✔✔ lab testing of body fluids, such as blood, urine, sputum, and wound drainage to identify the micro-organism causing the infection. 1. Gram Stain: technicians examine an aspirate of body fluid under a microscope 2. Culture: colonies of microorganisms grow under several days Varicella (Chicken Pox) mild adverse effects - ✔✔ tenderness and swelling at injection site fever rash for up to 1 month after immunization Varicella (Chicken Pox) moderate adverse effects - ✔✔ seizures Varicella (Chicken Pox) severe adverse effects - ✔✔ pneumonia, low BC, severe brain reactions Varicella (Chicken Pox) contraindications - ✔✔ pregnancy, anaphylactic section to gelatin or neomycin Varicella (Chicken Pox) precautions - ✔✔ transfusion with blood product containing antibodies within the prior 11 months, tx with antiviral med within 24 hr prior to immunization (avoid taking antivirals for 14 days following immunization), extended use (2 weeks or longer) of corticosteroids or other meds that can affect IS, cancer ANTIDIURETIC HORMONE - ✔✔ vasopressin, desmopressin ANTIDIURETIC HORMONE vasopressin, desmopressin purpose - ✔✔ reabsorption of water within the kidney. -Vasopressin stimulates the potent action of ADH (vasoconstriction due to contraction of smooth muscle) -Desmopressin causes much less vasoconstriction ANTIDIURETIC HORMONE vasopressin, desmopressin complications - ✔✔ 1. Reabsorption of too much water: -monitor for indications of over hydration (Sleepiness, pounding ha). Notify -Reduce fluid intake -Smallest effective dose 2. Myocardial Ischemia -from excessive vasoconstriction (vasopressin) -monitor ECG and blood pressure. notify of chest pain, tightness, or diaphoresis. ANTIDIURETIC HORMONE vasopressin, desmopressin contraindications - ✔✔ -CAD (risk for angina, MI) decreased peripheral circulation or chronic nephritis -renal impairment use with caution . If creatinine clearance is less than 50mL/min do not administer. ANTIDIURETIC HORMONE vasopressin, desmopressin interactions - ✔✔ carbamazepine & tricyclic antidepressants can increase action concurrent use of alcohol, heparin, lithium, and phenytoin can decrease ADH effects ANTIDIURETIC HORMONE vasopressin, desmopressin admin - ✔✔ monitor VS, central venous pressure, I&O, specific gravity, and lab studies (K, Na, BUN, creatinine, specific gravity, osmolality) monitor BP/heart rate monitor for headache, confusion, etc.. (water intox) for IV vasopressin watch for extravasation which can lead to gangrene intranasal desmopressin starts at bedtime and I&O is monitored and when nocturne is controlled doses are given twice daily ANTIDIURETIC HORMONE vasopressin, desmopressin effectiveness - ✔✔ reduction in large volumes of urine output associated with DI to normal levels of urine output (1.5 to 2L/24 hr) OR cardiac arrest survival ANTIDIURETIC HORMONE vasopressin, desmopressin use/routes - ✔✔ treat diabetes insidious (mainly desmopressin), vasopressin is sometimes used during CPR to temporarily decrease blood flow to the periphery and increase flow to brain and heart D: oral, intranasal, SQ, IV V: SQ, IM, IV Thyroid Hormone - ✔✔ Levothyroxine (T4) Levothyroxine (T4) Expected - ✔✔ increase metabolic rate, protein synthesis, cardiac output, renal perfusion, oxygen use, body temperature, blood volume, and growth processes Levothyroxine (T4) uses - ✔✔ tx of hypothyroidism emergency tx of myxedema coma (IV) a severe deficiency of thyroid hormone -give either PO or IV Complications of Levothyroxine (T4) - ✔✔ 1. Overmedication -hyperthyroidism (anxiety tachycardia, palpitations, altered appetite, abdominal cramping, heat intolerance, fever, diaphoresis, weight loss, menstrual irregularities.. REPORT) 2. Chronic Overtreatment -Atrial Fibrillation and an increased risk of fractures from bone loss especially in older adults (TSH levels should be monitored at least once a year) [Show Less]
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ATI Predictor Practice Test Questions and Answers| Graded to Pass
A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints (15-30min)... [Show More] . Which of the following should the actions the nurse take? A. Request a renewal of the prescription every 8 hr. B. Check the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 min C. Obtain a prescription for restraint within 4 hr. D. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes. D. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes. A nursing planning care for a school-age child who is 4 hr postoperative following perforated appendicitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Offer small amounts of clear liquids 6 hr following surgery b. Give cromolyn nebulizer solution every 6 hr c. Apply a warm compress to the operative site every 4 hr d. Administer analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hr d. Administer analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hr A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first? a. A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring b. A client who has diabetes mellitus and a hemoglobin A1C of 6.8% c. A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities d. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea d. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea A nurse is preparing to apply a transdermal nicotine patch for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. Shave hairy areas of skin prior to application b. Wear gloves to apply the patch to the client's skin c. Apply the patch within 1 hr of removing it from the protective pouch d. Remove the previous patch and place it in a tissue b. Wear gloves to apply the patch to the client's skin A nurse has just received change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first? a. A client who was just given a glass of orange juice for a low blood glucose level b. A client who is schedule for a procedure in 1 hr (can wait) c. A client who has 100 mL fluid remaining in his IV bag (can wait) d. A client who received a pain medication 30 min ago for postoperative pain a. A client who was just given a glass of orange juice for a low blood glucose level A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration? a. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease b. Receiving a high osmolarity formula c. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding d. A residual of 65 mL 1hr postprandial a. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has Cushing's disease. The nurse should expect the client to have an increase in which of the following laboratory values? a. Serum glucose level- increased b. Serum calcium level-decreased c. Lymphocyte count- decreased immune system. d. Serum potassium level- decreased a. Serum glucose level- increased A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. The nurse discontinues the magnesium sulfate after the client displaces toxicity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. Position the client supine b. Prepare an IV bolus of dextrose 5% in water c. Administer methylergonovine IM d. Administer calcium gluconate IV d. Administer calcium gluconate IV A charge nurse is teaching new staff members about factors that increase a client's risk to become violent. Which of the following risk factors should the nurse include as the best predictor of future violence? a. Experiencing delusions b. Male gender c. Previous violent behavior d. A history of being in prison c. Previous violent behavior A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when setting up the sterile field? a. Place the cap from the solution sterile side up on clean surface b. Open the outermost flap of the sterile kit toward the body c. Place the sterile dressing within 1.25 cm (0.5in) of the edge of the sterile field d. Set up the sterile field 5 cm (2 in) below waist level a. Place the cap from the solution sterile side up on clean surface A nurse is providing teaching to an older adult client about methods to promote nighttime sleep. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? a. Eat a light snack before bedtime b. Stay in bed at least 1 hr if unable to fall asleep c. Take a 1 hr nap during the day d. Perform exercises prior to bedtime a. Eat a light snack before bedtime A home health nurse is preparing for an initial visit with an older adult client who lives alone. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? a. Educate the client about current medical diagnosis b. Refer the client to a meal delivery program c. Identify environmental hazards in the home d. Arrange for client transportation to follow-up appointments c. Identify environmental hazards in the home A nurse is assessing the remote memory of an older adult client who has mild dementia. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask the client? a. "Can you tell me who visited you today?" b. "What high school did you graduate from c. "Can you list your current medications?" d. "What did you have for breakfast yesterday?" b. "What high school did you graduate from A nurse is providing teaching to an adolescent who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following goals should the nurse include in the teaching a. HbA1c level greater than 8% b. Blood glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL at bedtime c. Blood glucose level less than 60 mg/dL before breakfast d. HbA1c level less than 7% d. HbA1c level less than 7% [Show Less]
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ATI Predictor Test Questions and Correct Solutions| Graded to Pass| 2022
What is a kosher diet? - ✔✔ no shellfish but yes fish with fins and scales; no pork; no mixing meat with milk, ever woman is post pelvic surgery a... [Show More] nd asks why she has a foley catheter inserted, what is your response? - ✔✔ it avoids stress on the incision site/bladder crutches on what side when rising? when walking? - ✔✔ unaffected side when rising; affected side when walking; Arms at what degrees when hands on crutch rails while standing? - ✔✔ 30 degrees What walking gate for stairs? (crutches) - ✔✔ 3 point Normal stoma findings - ✔✔ moist shiny/pink; mild soap and water, then dry gently and completely, apply paste if used, apply barrier pastes to creases Cholecystitis diet - ✔✔ no cheese! low fat, low cholesterol (<200), if AST & lipase, any type of bilirubin, WBC, amylase, LDH, are elevate = bad expect what during latent phase of labor? - ✔✔ (0-3, 5-30, 30-45) 0-3 cm, contractions mild and moderate, 5-30 min apart/30-45 seconds contractions 3 minutes apart = what phase of labor? - ✔✔ active variable decelerations = what? intervention? - ✔✔ cord compression! prep for emergency c-section or inducing labor. also can change position, d/c oxytocin, o2 8-10L/min per mask, perform/assist with vaginal exam, assist with amnioinfusion if ordered Which of the following is the initial nursing action for the nurse to take when late decelerations appear on the fetal monitor? a - reposition the client in to left-lateral position b - apply a fetal scalp electrode c - increase the iv fluid rate d - perform a vaginal exam to assess dilation - ✔✔ a - reposition the client in to left-lateral positioning best pain management for 8-10 post open cholecystectomy; demerol, hydromorphine, fentanyl, morphine - ✔✔ DEMEROL NOT morphine or others; morphine can cause biliary spasms fontanels close when? - ✔✔ posterior 2-3 months; anterior 12-18 months do you report chlamydia, do you need consent, etc? - ✔✔ mandated reporting to CDC, without verbal or written consent Empty JP drain when? clean how? - ✔✔ before half full, or every 8-12 hrs, NOT 24 hours. Clean with soap and water, NOT antimicrobials or Dakin's etc. If JP drainage has doubled in last two hours, possible cause? - ✔✔ hemorrhage. Access, stat CBC, notify physician What do bananas, avocado and spinach have in common? If patient on what med, these are good foods? - ✔✔ high K+, so good for hypokalemic patients; if patients on thiazide diuretics (Diuril, enduron), may be HYPOKalemic, so give these! MAOI's/Nardil, avoid what? - ✔✔ Cheese! Cheese is not good with what? Cheese is good for what and why? - ✔✔ nardil/maoi! good for hyponatremia because high in sodium, high in protein is drainage at pin sites ok with bucks traction? - ✔✔ drainage ok, note the type/color/odor/amount; leave crust as a barrier, pin care 3x/day phenytoin, SMZ-TMP, command hallucinations = what? - ✔✔ phenytoin toxicity! If patient has command hallucinations, withold med? - ✔✔ yes! methergine risk? what does it do? - ✔✔ treats postpartum hemorrhage by inducing uterine contractions; reducing hemorrhage; HYPERTENSION is a risk, so check bp prior to administration, watch for n/v, headache high pressure alarm, do what? - ✔✔ assess for kinkds, client bitingg, excess secretions (suction), pulmonary edema, etc. Notify provider Low pressure alarm do what? - ✔✔ assess for leaks, displacement, if can't find anything wrong, MANUALLY ventilate & call respiratory stat, do NOT leave alone 2 years of age, presentation of arms longer than torso, or round & soft abdomen - ✔✔ round & soft abdomen, NOT arms longer than torso 3 years of age normals; immunization? - ✔✔ 2-3kg/yr, 2.5-3 in/yr, picky eaters, initiative vs guilt, imaginary friends, ride tricycle, jump off bottom step, stand on one foot for a few seconds, DTaP, IPV, MMR, varicella, influenza first thing to do with a newborn; take temperature, weight, dry... - ✔✔ DRY terminally ill patient only wants family, not friends with them. Type of grief? - ✔✔ anticipatory, not dysfunctional, normal or disenfranchised a client involved in a motor vehicle crash presents to the emergency department with severe internal bleeding. The client is severely hypotensive & unresponsive. The nurse anticipates that which IV solution will most likely be prescribed to increase intravascular volume, replace immediate blood loss volume & increase BP? (5% dextrose in LR, 0.33 NaCl, 0.225% NaCl, 0.45 NaCl) - ✔✔ 5% dextrose in LR Give what for hypovolemic shock ? - ✔✔ 5% dextrose in LR Client's family asks you to pray with them. Response? - ✔✔ refer to spiritual services After a blood transfusion, will you look at hub, hct, BP or HR for changes? - ✔✔ hgb!!! 1-2 pt increase per unit of blood can you give an antibiotic in a TPN infusion line? what can you add to a TPN infusion line? - ✔✔ NO! Nothing! change a TPN infusion line every 24 hours or how often? - ✔✔ yes! every 24 hours can clients family change dressing daily? tie tubing to neck? - ✔✔ no, every 8 hours? yes, square knot with 1-2 finger width TPN, slow down infusion before endingg, d/c until new bag ready? - ✔✔ no, dont d/c or change rate, don't change flow rate! hip arthroplasty, what to watch out for? - ✔✔ peripheral pulses! cool & weak, 1+ peripheral pulses, sign to call provider [Show Less]
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ATI EXIT EXAM 2022 Questions and Correct Solutions| Rated A+
A nurse in a pediatric unit is preparing to insert an IV catheter for 7-year-old. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. (Unable to re... [Show More] ad) B. Tell the child they will feel discomfort during the catheter insertion. C. Use a mummy restraint to hold the child during the catheter insertion. D. Require the parents to leave the room during the procedure. - ✔✔ B. Tell the child they will feel discomfort during the catheter insertion. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has an implantable cardioverter defibrillator which of the following statements demonstrates understanding of the teaching? A. "I will soak in the tub rather and showering" B. "I will wear loose clothing around my ICD" C. "I will stop using my microwave oven at home because of my ICD" D. "I can hold my cellphone on the same side of my body as the ICD" - ✔✔ B. "I will wear loose clothing around my ICD" A nurse is caring for a client who is at 14 weeks gestation and reports feelings of ambivalence about being pregnant. Which of the following responses should the nurse make? A. "Describe your feelings to me about being pregnant" B. "You should discuss your feelings about being pregnant with your provider" C. "Have you discussed these feelings with your partner?" D. "When did you start having these feelings?" - ✔✔ A. "Describe your feelings to me about being pregnant" A nurse in an emergency department is performing triage for multiple clients following a disaster in the community. To which of the following types of injuries should the nurse assign the highest priority? A. Below-the knee amputation B. Fractured tibia C. 95% full-thickness body burn D. 10cm (4in) laceration to the forearm - ✔✔ A. Below-the knee amputation A nurse manager is updating protocols for the use of belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include? A. Remove the client's restraint every 4hr B. Document the client's condition every 15 min C. Attach the restrain to the bed's side rails D. Request a PRN restrain prescription for clients who are aggressive - ✔✔ B. Document the client's condition every 15 min A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. The nurse should identify that which of the following sexually transmitted infections is a nationally notifiable infectious disease that should be reported to the state health department? A. Chlamydia B. Human papillomavirus C. Candidiasis D. Herps simplex virus - ✔✔ A. Chlamydia A nurse is working on a surgical unit is developing a care plan for a client who has paraplegia. The client has an area of no blanchable erythema over his ischium. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the care plan? A. Place the client upright on a donut-shaped cushion B. Teach the client to shift his weight every 15 min while sitting C. Turn and reposition the client every 3 hr while in bed D. Assess pressure points every - ✔✔ B. Teach the client to shift his weight every 15 min while sitting A charge nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about clients designating a health care proxy in situations that require a durable power of attorney for heal care (DPSHC). Which of the following information should the charge nurse include? A. "The proxy should make health care decisions for the client regardless of the client's ability to do so." B. "The proxy can make financial decisions if the need arises." C. "The proxy can make treatment decisions if the client is under anesthesia." D. "The proxy should manage legal issues for the client." - ✔✔ C. "The proxy can make treatment decisions if the client is under anesthesia." A nurse is caring for a client who is dilated to 10 cm and pushing. Which of the following pain-management (Unable to read) a safe option for the client? A. Naloxone hydrochloride. B. Spinal anesthesia. C. Pudendal block. D. Butorphanol tartrate - ✔✔ C. Pudendal block. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a group of clients. The nurse should recommend a referral to a dietitian A. A client who has a prescription for warfarin and states "I will need to limit how much spinach I eat". B. A client who has gout and states, "I can continue to eat anchovies on my pizza." C. A client who has a prescription for spironolactone and states "I will reduce my intake of foods that contain potassium". D. A client who has (Unable to read) and states "I'll plan to take my calcium carbonate with a full glass of water" - ✔✔ B. A client who has gout and states, "I can continue to eat anchovies on my pizza." A nurse is assessing a child who is being treated for bacterial pneumonia. The nurse notes an increase in the child's glucose. The nurse should identify this finding as an adverse effect of which of the following medications? A. Methylprednisolone. B. Ondansetron. C. Guaifenesin. D. Amoxicillin - ✔✔ A. Methylprednisolone. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has schizophrenia. Which of the following should the nurse report to the provider? Exhibit 1 Blood pressure: 102/56 mm Hg. Heart rate: 95/min Respiratory rate: 18/min Temperature: 37.4C (99.3F) Exhibit 2 Medication Administration Record Clozapine 150 mg PO twice daily Benztropine 0.5 mg PO twice daily as needed for tremors. Exhibit 3 Nurse's notes: Client reports feeling dizzy when changing positions, Reports weight gain of 1kg (2.2 lb.) in the past month. Also reports a sore throat for the past 3 days and dry mouth. Client ate 75% of breakfast and reports slightly nauseous. A. Dietary intake B. Heart rate. C. Sore throat. D. Blood pressure - ✔✔ C. Sore throat. A nurse is planning care for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing mania. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan? A. Encourage the client to spend time in the day room B. Withdraw the client's TV privileges is the does not attend group therapy C. Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods D. Place the client in seclusion when he exhibits signs of anxiety - ✔✔ C. Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods [Show Less]
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ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exam Questions and Answers| Graded to Pass
Do not delegate - ✔✔ What you can *EAT* *E*-evaluate *A*-assess *T*-teach Addison's & Cushings - ✔✔ Addison's = down down down up dow... [Show More] n Cushings= up up up down up hypo/hypernatremia, hypo/hypertension, blood volume, hypo/hyperkalemia, hypo/hyperglycemia Better peripheral perfusion? - ✔✔ Elevate veins, D-Angle Arteries APGAR (Score 1-10) (2,1,0) - ✔✔ Appearance (all pink, pink and blue, blue (pale) Pulse (>100, <100, absent) Grimace (cough, grimace, no response) Activity (flexed, flaccid, limp) Respirations (strong cry, weak cry, absent) Airborne precautions - ✔✔ MTV or My chicken hez tb measles, chickenpox (varicella) Herpes zoster/shingles TB Airborne precautions protective equip - ✔✔ private room, neg pressure with 6-12 air exchanges/hr mask & respirator N95 for TB Droplet precautions - ✔✔ spiderman! sepsis, scarlet fever, streptococcal pharyngitis, parvovirus, pneumonia, pertussis, influenza, diptheria, epiglottitis, rubella, mumps, meningitis, mycoplasma or meningeal pneumonia, adeNovirus (Private room and mask) Contact precaution - ✔✔ MRS WHISE protect visitors & caregivers when 3 ft of the pt. Multidrug-resistant organisms RSV, Shigella, Wound infections, Herpes simplex, Impetigo, Scabies, Enteric diseases caused by micro-organisms (C diff), Gloves and gowns worn by the caregivers and visitors Disposal of infectious dressing material into a single, nonporous bag without touching the outside of the bag PMGG= Private room/ share same illness, mask, gown and gloves Skin infection- *VCHIPS* - ✔✔ Varicella zoster Cutaneous diptheria Herpes simplez Impetigo Peduculosis Scabies Air or Pulmonary Embolism - ✔✔ S/S chest pain, dyspnea, tachycardia, pale/cyanotic, sense of impending doom. (turn pt to LEFT side and LOWER the head of bed.) Woman in labor (un-reassuring FHR) - ✔✔ (late decels, decreased variability, fetal bradycardia, etc) Turn pt on Left side, give O2, stop pitocin, Increase IV fluids! - FLIP, FLOAT, FLOW Tube feeding with decreased LOC - ✔✔ Pt on Right side (promotes emptying of the stomach) Head of bed elevated (prevent aspiration) LOC - ✔✔ Level of Consciousness After lumbar puncture and oil based myelogram - ✔✔ pt is flat SUPINE (prevent headache and leaking of CSF) Pt with heat stroke - ✔✔ flat with legs elevated during Continuous Bladder Irrigation (CBI) - ✔✔ catheter is taped to the thigh. leg must be kept straight. After Myringotomy - ✔✔ position on the side of AFFECTED ear, allows drainage. Myringotomy - ✔✔ surgical incision into the eardrum, to relieve pressure or drain fluid. After Cateract surgery - ✔✔ pt sleep on UNAFFECTED side with a night shield for *1-4 weeks* after Thyroidectomy - ✔✔ low or semi-fowler's position, support head, neck and shoulders. Infant with Spina Bifida - ✔✔ Prone so that sac does not rupture Buck's Traction (skin) - ✔✔ elevate foot of bed for counter traction After total hip replacement - ✔✔ don't sleep on side of surgery, don't flex hip more than 45-60 degress, don't elevate Head Of Bed more than 45 degrees. Maintain hip abduction by separating thighs with pillows. Prolapsed cord - ✔✔ Knee to chest or Trendelenburg oxygen 8 to 10 L Cleft Lip - ✔✔ position on back or in infant seat to prevent trauma to the suture line. while feeding hold in upright position. To prevent dumping syndrome - ✔✔ Dumping syndrome is a condition that can develop after surgery to remove all or part of your stomach or after surgery to bypass your stomach to help you lose weight. Also called rapid gastric emptying, dumping syndrome occurs when food, especially sugar, moves from your stomach into your small bowel too quickly.(post operative ulcer/stomach surgeries) eat in reclining position. Lie down after meals for 20-30 min. also restrict fluids during meals, low carb and fiber diet. small, frequent meals. avoid simple sugars. AKA (above knee amputation) - ✔✔ elevate for first 24 hours on pillow. position prone daily to maintain hip extension. BKA (below knee amputation) - ✔✔ foot of bed elevated for first 24 hours. position prone to provide hip extension. detached retina - ✔✔ area of detachment should be in the dependent position. S&S: blurred vision, inability to see in dim light, partial loss of vision, seeing flashes of light, seeing spots, sensitivity to light, temporary loss of vision in one eye, tunnel vision, or vision loss dependent position - ✔✔ supported. Placement of a limb so that its distal end is lower than the level of the heart. to prevent edema. [Show Less]
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ATI Comprehensive Predictor Test Questions And Answers| Graded A+
APGAR - ✔✔ Appearance (all pink, pink and blue, blue (pale) Pulse (>100, <100, absent) Grimace (cough, grimace, no response) Activity (flexed, fla... [Show More] ccid, limp) Respirations (strong cry, weak cry, absent) Woman in labor (un-reassuring FHR) - ✔✔ (late decels, decreased variability, fetal bradycardia, etc) Turn pt on Left side, give O2, stop pitocin, Increase IV fluids! Infant with Spina Bifida - ✔✔ Prone so that sac does not rupture Prolapsed cord - ✔✔ Knee to chest or Trendelenburg oxygen 8 to 10 L Cleft Lip - ✔✔ position on back or in infant seat to prevent trauma to the suture line. while feeding hold in upright position. FHR patterns for OB - ✔✔ Think VEAL CHOP! V-variable decels; C- cord compression caused E-early decels; H- head compression caused A-accels; O-okay, no problem L- late decels; P- placental insufficiency, can't fill what to check with pregnancy - ✔✔ Never check the monitor or machine as a first action. Always assess the patient first. Ex.. listen to fetal heart tones with stethoscope. Position of the baby by fetal heart sounds - ✔✔ Posterior --heard at sides Anterior---midline by unbilicus and side Breech- high up in the fundus near umbilicus Vertex- by the symphysis pubis. Heroin withdrawal neonate - ✔✔ irritable, poor sucking lead poisoning - ✔✔ test at 12 months of age pt with leukemia may have - ✔✔ epistaxis due to low platelets when a pt comes in and is in active labor - ✔✔ first action of nurse is to listen to fetal heart tones/rate NCLEX answer tips - ✔✔ choose assessment first! (assess, collect, auscultate, monitor, palpate) only choose intervention in an emergency or stress situation. If the answer has an absolute, discard it. Give priority to the answers that deal with the patient's body, not machines, or equipment. 1 tsp - ✔✔ 5 mL 1 oz - ✔✔ 30 mL 1 cup - ✔✔ 8 oz 1 quart - ✔✔ 2 pints 1 pint - ✔✔ 2 cups 1 g (gram) - ✔✔ 1000 mg 1 kg - ✔✔ 2.2 lbs I lb - ✔✔ 16 oz centigrade to Fahrenheit conversion - ✔✔ F= C+40 multiply 5/9 and subtract 40 C=F+40 multiply 9/5 and subtract 40 birth weight - ✔✔ doubles by 6 months triples by 1 year early sign of cystic fibrosis - ✔✔ meconium in ileus at birth hemophilia is x linked - ✔✔ passed from mother to son perform amniocentesis - ✔✔ before 20 weeks to check for cardiac and pulmonary abnormalities Rh mothers receive Rhogam - ✔✔ to protect next baby anterior fontanelle closes by...posterior by.. - ✔✔ 18 months, 6-8 weeks caput succedaneum - ✔✔ diffuse edema of the fetal scalp that crosses the suture lines. reabsorbes within 1 to 3 days pathological jaundice occurs: physiological jaundice occurs: - ✔✔ before 24 hours (lasts 7 days) after 24 hours placenta previa s/s placental abrution s/s - ✔✔ there is no pain, but there is bleeding there is pain, but no bleeding (board like abd) bethamethasone (celestone) - ✔✔ surfactant. premature babies Developmental - ✔✔ 2-3 months: turns head side to side 4-5 months: grasps, switch and roll 6-7 months: sit at 6 and waves bye bye 8-9 months: stands straight at 8 10-11 months: belly to butt 12-13 months: 12 and up, drink from a cup Apgar measures - ✔✔ HR RR Muscle tone, reflexes, skin color. Each 0-2 points. 8-10 ok, 0-3 resuscitate Guthrie test - ✔✔ Tests for PKU. Baby should have eaten protein first Transesophageal fistula - ✔✔ esophagus doesn't fully develop. This is a surgical emergency (3 signs in newborn: choking, coughing, cyanosis) Stranger anxiety is greatest at what age? - ✔✔ 7-9 months..separation anxiety peaks in toddlerhood infants IM site - ✔✔ Vastus lateralis Toddler 18 months+ IM site - ✔✔ Ventrogluteal IM site for children - ✔✔ deltoid and gluteus maximus ECG - ✔✔ no sleep the night before, meals allowed, no stimulants/tranquilizers for 24-48 hours before. may be asked to hyperventilate 3-4 min and watch a bright flashing light. watch for seizures after the procedure. Myelogram - ✔✔ NPO for 4-6 hours. allergy hx phenothiazines, cns depressants and stimulants withheld 48 hours prior. Table moved to various positions during test. Post--neuro assessment q2-4 hours, water soluble HOB UP. oil soluble HOB down. oralanalgesics for HA. No po fluids. assess for distended bladder. Inspect site [Show Less]
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ATI comprehensive predictor Test Questions and Answers| Rated A+
What can be delegated to Assistive personnel (AP)? - ✔✔ - ADLs - bathing - grooming - dressing - ambulating - feeding (w/o swallow precautions) - pos... [Show More] itioning - bed making - specimen collection - I&O - VS (stable clients A nurse on a med surge unit has recieved change of shift report and will care for 4 clients. Which of the following clients needs will the nurse assign to an AP? A. Feeding a client who was admitted 24 hours ago with aspiration pneumonia B. Reinforcing teaching with a client who is learning to walk with a quad cane C. Reapplying a condom catheter for a client who has urinary incontinence D. Applying a sterile dressing to a pressure ulcer - ✔✔ C A nurse is delegating the ambulation of a client who had knee arthroplasty 5 days ago to an AP. Which of the following info should the nurse share with the AP? Select all: A. the roommate is up independently B. The client ambulates with his slippers on over his antiembolic stockings C. The client uses a front wheeled walker when ambulating D. The client had pain meds 30 minutes ago E. The client is allergic to codeine F. the client ate 50 % of his breakfast this morning - ✔✔ B C D An RN is making assignments for client care to an LPN at the beginning of the shift. Which of the following assignments should the LPN question? A. Assisting a client who is 24 hr postop to use an incentive spirometer B. Collecting a clean catch urine specimen from a client who was admitted on the previous shift C. providing nasopharyngeal suctioning for a client who has pneumonia D. Replacing the cartridge and tubing on a PCA pump - ✔✔ D A nurse is preparing an inservice program about delegation. Which of the following elements should she identify when presenting the 5 rights of delegation. Select all: A. Right client B. Right supervision/evaluation C. Right direction/communication D. Right time E. Right circumstances - ✔✔ B C E A nurse manager of a med surge unit is assigning care responsibilities for the oncoming shift. A client is waiting transfer back to the unit from the PACU following thoracic surgery. To which staff member should the nurse assign the client? A. Charge nurse B. RN C. LVN D. AP - ✔✔ B What is the study of conduct and character? - ✔✔ Ethics What are the values and beliefs that guide behavior and decision making? - ✔✔ Morals What is the right to make ones own personal decisions, even tho those decisions might not be in the persons best interest - ✔✔ Autonomy What are positive actions to help others - ✔✔ Beneficience What is an agreement to keep promises - ✔✔ Fidelity What is fairness in care delivery and use of resources - ✔✔ Justice What is avoidance of harm or injury - ✔✔ Non-maleficence A nurse is caring for a client who decides not to have surgery despite significant blockages in his coronary arteries. The nurse understands that this clients choice is an example of what principles? A. Fidelity B. Autonomy C. Justice D. Nonmalificience - ✔✔ A A nurse offers pain meds to a client who is postop prior to ambulation. The nurse understands that this aspect of care delivery is an example of which of the following ethical principles? A. Fidelity B. Autonomy C. Justice D. Beneficience - ✔✔ D A nurse is instructing a group of nursing students about the responsibilities involved with organ donation and procurement. When the nurse explains that all clients waiting for a kidney transplant have to meet the same qualifications, the students should understand that this aspect of care delivery is an example of which ethical principle A. Fidelity B. Autonomy C. Justice D. Nonmaleficence - ✔✔ C A nurse questions a med prescription as too extreme and light of the clients advanced age and unstable status. The nurse understands that this action is an example of which ethical principle A. Fidelity B. Autonomy C. Justice D. Nonmalificence - ✔✔ D Which of the following situations can be identified as an ethical dilemma? A. A nurse on a med surge unit demonstrates signs of chemical impairment B. A nurse over hears another nurse telling an older adult client that if he doesnt stay in bed she will restrain him C. A family has conflicting feelings about the initiation of enteral tube feedings of their father who is terminally ill D. A client who is terminally ill hesitates to name her spouse on her durable power of attorney form - ✔✔ C Most managers can be categorized as - ✔✔ authoritative, democratic, and laissez faire makes decisions of the group motivates by coercion communication occurs down the chain of command Work output by the staff is usually high-good for crisis situations and bureaucratic settings - ✔✔ Authoritative includes the group when decisions are made Motivates by supporting star achievements Communication occurs up and down the chain of command Work output by staff is usually of good quality-good when cooperation and collaboration is necessary - ✔✔ Democratic makes very few decisions and does little planning motivation is largely the responsibility of individuals staff members Communication occurs up and down the chain of command and between group members Work output is low unless an informal leader evolves from the group *the use of any of these styles may be appropriate depending on the situation - ✔✔ Laissez faire The nurse should consider the hierarchy of human needs when prioritizing interventions, which are? - ✔✔ - Physiological needs first (oxygen, shelter, food) - Safety & security needs (physical safety) - Love and belonging - Self esteem - Self actualization [Show Less]
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ATI Comprehensive Predictor Questions and Correct Answers | 100% Correct
RBC - ✔✔ females 4.2-5.4 million males 4.7-6.1 million decrease RBC - ✔✔ anemia WBC - ✔✔ 5,000-10,000 elevated WBC - ✔✔ i... [Show More] nfection decreased WBC - ✔✔ immunosuppression Iron - ✔✔ females 60-160 mcg males 80-180 elevated iron - ✔✔ hemochromatosis, iron excess liver disorder, magaloblastic anemia decreased iron - ✔✔ anemia or hemorrhage platelets - ✔✔ 150,000-4000,000 increased platelets - ✔✔ malignancy or polycythemia vera decreased platelets - ✔✔ autoimmune disease bone marrow suppression or enlarged spleen Hbg - ✔✔ females 12-16 males 14-18 decrease Hgb and Hct - ✔✔ anemia Hct - ✔✔ females 37%-47% males 42-52% anemia in children S & SX: - ✔✔ pallor, brittle spoon shaped nails irritability, muscle weakness systolic heart murmur, enlarged heart, HF iron supplements - ✔✔ give 1 hr before or 2 hr after antacid to prevent malabsorpt N/D and constipation common at start of therapy use straw for liquid iron to prevent staining of teeth aPTT - ✔✔ 1.5-2X control range of 30-40 seconds test clotting factors and monitor heparin therapy increased aPTT - ✔✔ hemophilia disseminated intravascular coagulation DIC liver disease PT - ✔✔ 11-12.5 seconds, 85-100% increased PT time - ✔✔ evidence of deficiency or clotting decreaed PT time - ✔✔ evidence of vit K excess= bleed out acute hemolytic blood transfusion reactions - ✔✔ **low back pain, TACHYcardia, HYPOtension febrile reactions - ✔✔ 30 min-6 hr after transfusion -chills, fever, flushing, headache use WBC filter, administer antipyretics mild allergic reactions - ✔✔ during or up to 24hr after transfusion - itching, urticarial, flushing administer benadryl anaphylactic shock - ✔✔ wheezing, dyspnea, cyanosis, hypotension maintain airway, admin O2, IV fluids, antihistamines, corticosteroids and vasopressor fluid overload - ✔✔ HYPERtension, jugular vein distention, peripheral edema orthopnea, crackles at base of lungs sudden anxiety sepsis and septic shock - ✔✔ -fever, N/V, abdominal pain, chills HYPOtension administer antibiotics, blood cultures, vasopressor (dopamine) if disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) - ✔✔ admin heparin in early stage -blood products and clotting factors in late stage PICA - ✔✔ eating things like soil, chalk, for at least 1 month parenteral iron - ✔✔ given Z track erythropoietin - epoetin alfa (epogen, Procrit) - ✔✔ used to increased production of RBC monitor increase in BP, Hgb, Hct folic acid - ✔✔ turn urine dark yellow necessary for new RBC hypovolemia causes - ✔✔ peritonitis, ascites, burns , NPO causes of dehydration - ✔✔ hyperventilation DKA tube feeding without sufficient water intake subjective and objective HYPOvolemia - ✔✔ Hyperthermia, Tachycardia, HYPOtension decreased central venous pressure hypoxia thirst, dizziness, N/V, -poor skin turgor, tentin lab test hypovolemia - ✔✔ increased: HCT, specific gravity, NA, protein, BUN, glucose Hypervolemia causes - ✔✔ HF, cirrhosis, increased gluccorticosteroids hypertonic fluids S & SX HYPERvolemia - ✔✔ bounding pulse, increased CVP, HYPERtension, confusion, muscle weakness, ascites, diminished breath sounds, distended neck veins lab test HYPERvolemia - ✔✔ Decreased: HCT, BUN, electro respiratory alkalosis PaCO2 less than 35, increased PH notify doctor if - ✔✔ weight gain 1-2 lb/24 or 3 lb in a wk foods high in potassium - ✔✔ avocados, broccoili, dairy products, dried fruit, cantaloupe, bananas HYPOcalcemia - ✔✔ positive chvosteks ( facial twitching) positive trousseau (hand/finger spasm with blood pressure cuff inflation excess caffeine causes excretion - ✔✔ calcium in urine secondary osteoporosis results from - ✔✔ hyperparathyroidism, long term corticosteroid long term anticonvulsant (Dilantin) manifestations: kyphosis stages of grief - ✔✔ 1. denial 4. depression 2. anger 5. acceptance 3. bargaining theophylline - ✔✔ relaxation of bronchioles causing bronchodilator oral used to control asthma or COPD therapeutic range 5-15 avoid in HTN, liver and kidney dysfunction theophylline interactions - ✔✔ caffeine glucocorticoids: beclomethasone- inhalation prednisone- PO - ✔✔ prevent inflammation, suppress airway mucus production leukotriene (monelukast) - ✔✔ suppressing inflammation, bronchoconstriction's, airway edema, mucus production digoxin - ✔✔ makes the heart beat stronger and regular rhythm therapeutic 0.5-2.0 S & SX of dig tox - ✔✔ fatigue, weakness, vision changes, GI effects infuse over 5 min hemophilia - ✔✔ difficulty controlling bleeding X linked recessive disorder joint pain and stiffness, impaired mobility, easy bruising slurred speech lab test indication of hemophilia - ✔✔ prolonged aPTT avoid unnecessary needle sticks, apply pressure for 5 mins after needle sticks monitor for occult blood DDAVP - ✔✔ synthetic form of vasopressin increases plasma factor VIII not for hemophilia B acute hemolytic blood transfusion reactions - ✔✔ **low back pain, TACHYcardia, HYPOtension, hemoglobinuria, ICP - ✔✔ 10-15 mm Hg mannitol - ✔✔ osmotic diuretic treat cerebral edema phenytoin (Dilantin) - ✔✔ prophylactically to prevent or treat seizures crainiotomy - ✔✔ removal of nonviable brain tissue that allows for expansion or removal of epidural or subdural hematomas KUB (kidneys, urter, bladder - ✔✔ determines size shape and position of structures cystoscopy - ✔✔ use a scope to visualize the bladder and urthera reflex incontinence - ✔✔ Reflex - The involuntary loss of a moderate amount of urine usually without warning due to hyperreflexia of the detrusor muscle, usually from altered spinal cord activity. treatment for urinary infections - ✔✔ gentamycin and Keflex take with food may change urine odor and report loose stools TCA (nortriptyline (pamelor) - ✔✔ helps relieve urinary incontinence -cause dizziness monitor BP, don't take with MAOI [Show Less]
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ATI comprehensive predictor Questions and Answers| 100% Correct
Do not delegate - ✔✔ What you can EAT E-evaluate A-assess T-teach Addison's & Cushings - ✔✔ Addison's = down down down up down Cushings= up... [Show More] up up down up hypo/hypernatremia, hypo/hypertension, blood volume, hypo/hyperkalemia, hypo/hyperglycemia Better peripheral perfusion? - ✔✔ EleVate Veins, DAngle Arteries APGAR - ✔✔ Appearance (all pink, pink and blue, blue (pale) Pulse (>100, <100, absent) Grimace (cough, grimace, no response) Activity (flexed, flaccid, limp) Respirations (strong cry, weak cry, absent) Airborne precautions - ✔✔ MTV or My chicken hez tb measles, chickenpox (varicella) Herpes zoster/shingles TB Airborne precautions protective equip - ✔✔ private room, neg pressure with 6-12 air exchanges/hr mask & respirator N95 for TB Droplet precautions - ✔✔ spiderman! sepsis, scarlet fever, streptococcal pharyngitis, parvovirus, pneumonia, pertussis, influenza, diptheria, epiglottitis, rubella, mumps, meningitis, mycoplasma or meningeal pneumonia, adeNovirus (Private room and mask) Contact precaution - ✔✔ MRS WHISE protect visitors & caregivers when 3 ft of the pt. Multidrug-resistant organisms RSV, Shigella, Wound infections, Herpes simplex, Impetigo, Scabies, Enteric diseases caused by micro-organisms (C diff), Gloves and gowns worn by the caregivers and visitors Disposal of infectious dressing material into a single, nonporous bag without touching the outside of the bag PMGG= Private room/ share same illness, mask, gown and gloves Skin infection - ✔✔ VCHIPS Varicella zoster Cutaneous diptheria Herpes simplez Impetigo Peduculosis Scabies Air or Pulmonary Embolism - ✔✔ S/S chest pain, dyspnea, tachycardia, pale/cyanotic, sense of impending doom. (turn pt to LEFT side and LOWER the head of bed.) Woman in labor (un-reassuring FHR) - ✔✔ (late decels, decreased variability, fetal bradycardia, etc) Turn pt on Left side, give O2, stop pitocin, Increase IV fluids! Tube feeding with decreased LOC - ✔✔ Pt on Right side (promotes emptying of the stomach) Head of bed elevated (prevent aspiration) After lumbar puncture and oil based myelogram - ✔✔ pt is flat SUPINE (prevent headache and leaking of CSF) Pt with heat stroke - ✔✔ flat with legs elevated during Continuous Bladder Irrigation (CBI) - ✔✔ catheter is taped to the thigh. leg must be kept straight. After Myringotomy - ✔✔ position on the side of AFFECTED ear, allows drainage. After Cateract surgery - ✔✔ pt sleep on UNAFFECTED side with a night shield for 1-4 weeks after Thyroidectomy - ✔✔ low or semi-fowler's position, support head, neck and shoulders. Infant with Spina Bifida - ✔✔ Prone so that sac does not rupture Buck's Traction (skin) - ✔✔ elevate foot of bed for counter traction After total hip replacement - ✔✔ don't sleep on side of surgery, don't flex hip more than 45-60 degress, don't elevate Head Of Bed more than 45 degrees. Maintain hip abduction by separating thighs with pillows. Prolapsed cord - ✔✔ Knee to chest or Trendelenburg oxygen 8 to 10 L Cleft Lip - ✔✔ position on back or in infant seat to prevent trauma to the suture line. while feeding hold in upright position. To prevent dumping syndrome - ✔✔ (post operative ulcer/stomach surgeries) eat in reclining position. Lie down after meals for 20-30 min. also restrict fluids during meals, low CHO and fiber diet. small, frequent meals. AKA (above knee amputation) - ✔✔ elevate for first 24 hours on pillow. position prone daily to maintain hip extension. BKA (below knee amputation) - ✔✔ foot of bed elevated for first 24 hours. position prone to provide hip extension. detached retina - ✔✔ area of detachment should be in the dependent position administration of enema - ✔✔ pt should be left side lying (Sim's) with knee flexed. After supratentorial surgery - ✔✔ (incision behind hairline on forhead) elevate HOB 30-40 degrees After infratentorial surgery - ✔✔ (incision at the nape of neck) position pt flat and lateral on either side. During internal radiation - ✔✔ on bed rest while implant in place Autonomic Dysreflexia/Hyperreflexia - ✔✔ S/S pounding headache, profuse sweating, nasal congestion, chills, bradycardia, hypertension. Place client in sitting position (elevate HOB) FIRST! Shock - ✔✔ bedrest with extremities elevated 20 degrees. knees straight, head slightly elevated (modified Trendelenberg) Head Injury - ✔✔ elevate HOB 30 degrees to decrease ICP Peritoneal Dialysis (when outflow is inadequate) - ✔✔ turn pt from side to side BEFORE checking for kinks in tubing Lumbar Puncture - ✔✔ After the procedure, the pt should be supine for 4-12 hours as prescribed. Myesthenia Gravis - ✔✔ worsens with exercise and improves with rest Myesthenia Gravis - ✔✔ a positive reaction to Tensilon---will improve symptoms Cholinergic Crisis - ✔✔ Caused by excessive medication ---stop giving Tensilon...will make it worse. Liver biopsy (prior) - ✔✔ must have lab results for prothrombin time Myxedema/ hypothyroidism - ✔✔ slowed physical and mental function, sensitivity to cold, dry skin and hair. [Show Less]
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ATI Predictor Practice Test Questions and Correct Solutions | Rated A+
A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints (15-30min)... [Show More] . Which of the following should the actions the nurse take? A. Request a renewal of the prescription every 8 hr. B. Check the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 min C. Obtain a prescription for restraint within 4 hr. D. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes. D. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes. A nursing planning care for a school-age child who is 4 hr postoperative following perforated appendicitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Offer small amounts of clear liquids 6 hr following surgery b. Give cromolyn nebulizer solution every 6 hr c. Apply a warm compress to the operative site every 4 hr d. Administer analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hr d. Administer analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hr A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first? a. A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring b. A client who has diabetes mellitus and a hemoglobin A1C of 6.8% c. A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities d. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea d. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea A nurse is preparing to apply a transdermal nicotine patch for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. Shave hairy areas of skin prior to application b. Wear gloves to apply the patch to the client's skin c. Apply the patch within 1 hr of removing it from the protective pouch d. Remove the previous patch and place it in a tissue b. Wear gloves to apply the patch to the client's skin A nurse has just received change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first? a. A client who was just given a glass of orange juice for a low blood glucose level b. A client who is schedule for a procedure in 1 hr (can wait) c. A client who has 100 mL fluid remaining in his IV bag (can wait) d. A client who received a pain medication 30 min ago for postoperative pain a. A client who was just given a glass of orange juice for a low blood glucose level A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration? a. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease b. Receiving a high osmolarity formula c. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding d. A residual of 65 mL 1hr postprandial a. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has Cushing's disease. The nurse should expect the client to have an increase in which of the following laboratory values? a. Serum glucose level- increased b. Serum calcium level-decreased c. Lymphocyte count- decreased immune system. d. Serum potassium level- decreased a. Serum glucose level- increased A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. The nurse discontinues the magnesium sulfate after the client displaces toxicity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. Position the client supine b. Prepare an IV bolus of dextrose 5% in water c. Administer methylergonovine IM d. Administer calcium gluconate IV d. Administer calcium gluconate IV A charge nurse is teaching new staff members about factors that increase a client's risk to become violent. Which of the following risk factors should the nurse include as the best predictor of future violence? a. Experiencing delusions b. Male gender c. Previous violent behavior d. A history of being in prison c. Previous violent behavior A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when setting up the sterile field? a. Place the cap from the solution sterile side up on clean surface b. Open the outermost flap of the sterile kit toward the body c. Place the sterile dressing within 1.25 cm (0.5in) of the edge of the sterile field d. Set up the sterile field 5 cm (2 in) below waist level a. Place the cap from the solution sterile side up on clean surface A nurse is providing teaching to an older adult client about methods to promote nighttime sleep. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? a. Eat a light snack before bedtime b. Stay in bed at least 1 hr if unable to fall asleep c. Take a 1 hr nap during the day d. Perform exercises prior to bedtime a. Eat a light snack before bedtime A home health nurse is preparing for an initial visit with an older adult client who lives alone. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? a. Educate the client about current medical diagnosis b. Refer the client to a meal delivery program c. Identify environmental hazards in the home d. Arrange for client transportation to follow-up appointments c. Identify environmental hazards in the home A nurse is assessing the remote memory of an older adult client who has mild dementia. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask the client? a. "Can you tell me who visited you today?" b. "What high school did you graduate from c. "Can you list your current medications?" d. "What did you have for breakfast yesterday?" b. "What high school did you graduate from A nurse is providing teaching to an adolescent who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following goals should the nurse include in the teaching a. HbA1c level greater than 8% b. Blood glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL at bedtime c. Blood glucose level less than 60 mg/dL before breakfast d. HbA1c level less than 7% d. HbA1c level less than 7% A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination? a. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin b. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control c. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity d. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy c. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postoperative following rhinoplasty. Which of the following manifestations requires immediate action by the nurse? a. Increase in frequency of swallowing b. Moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad c. Bruising to the face d. Absent gag reflex a. Increase in frequency of swallowing [Show Less]
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ATI Predictor exam Questions and Correct Solutions| A+
A nurse is caring for a client who was admitted for acute alcohol delirium withdrawal 2 days ago. Which of the following findings is associated with this d... [Show More] iagnosis? A. Increased appetite B. Elevated Temperature C. Bradycardia D. Drowsiness - ✔✔ Elevated Temperature Rationale: The content of this question emphasizes the concept of client-centered care through identifying findings associated with a client's diagnosis. Client-centered care focuses on the client and emphasizes the client's cultural, ethnic, and social values. The identification of expected and unexpected findings associated with a client's diagnosis assists the nurse to distinguish possible unrelated complications the client might be experiencing, which indicates the need for further investigation. The specific focus on the client enhances the provision of safe, quality nursing care. An elevated temperature is a finding associated with acute alcohol delirium. A nurse working in a hospice facility is talking to a client's son who is distressed because his mother cries frequently and says she wants to die. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate? A. "I know this must be difficult, but your mother will calm down soon." B. "Lets discuss some strategies you can use when this happens again." C. Individuals near death are ready to let go toward the end." D. "Have you determined why she is crying and saying she is ready to die?" - ✔✔ " Let's discuss some strategies you can use when this happens again." Rationale: This response by the nurse offers to provide information, which can reduce anxiety and enhance decision making. This response creates a safe environment, fosters trust and respect, and is appropriate. A nurse is caring for a client who had cerebrovascular accident 2 days ago. Which of the following is the first sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)? A. pupil dilation B. Ataxia C. Lethargy D Bradycardia - ✔✔ Lethargy rationale: Lethargy occurs when pressure is placed on the reticular activating system within the brainstem. Along with other indicators of a change in level of consciousness, such as restlessness, irritability, and disorientation. Lethargy is the first sign of increased ICP. A nurse working in a provider's office is reinforcing teaching with a client who is 14 weeks of gestation. The nurse should instruct the client to immediately notify the provider if she experiences which of the following? A. facial edema b. urinary frequency c. acid indigestion d. breast leakage - ✔✔ Facial edema rationale: facial edema is an indication of pregnancy-induced hypertension and should be reported immediately to the provider. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving parenteral nutrition through a nontunneled central venous catheter and reports hearing a gurgling sound on the side of the catheter. The nurse suspects the catheter has migrated to the jugular vein. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A. Notify the provider B. Obtain a chest x-ray C. Flush the catheter. D. Stop the infusion. - ✔✔ Stop the infusion Rationale: This prevents further damage to vessel and minimizes any additional harm to the client A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a caregiver who has aphasia. The nurse should include which of the following communication strategies in the teaching? A. Cue the client by providing picture cards that portray common needs. B. Increase the volume of the voice when speaking to a client. C. Encourage the client to limit hand gestures when communicating. D. Vary the use of phrases and terminology in discussions. - ✔✔ Cue the client by providing picture cards that portray common needs. Rationale: Using picture cards enhances communication. The nurse should include this communication strategy in the teaching. A nurse is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection and is prescribed ciprofloxacin (Cipro). The client exhibits urticaria and angioedema following administration of the medication. Which of the following is the first action the nurse should take? A. Administer epinephrine (Adrenaline) B. Elevate the lower extremities C. Determine respiratory status D. Apply oxygen via non-rebreather mask. - ✔✔ Determine respiratory status Rationale: The client is experiencing angioedema indicating a possible anaphylactic reaction, which is life-threatening; therefore, the nurse should first determine the client's respiratory status. A nurse is caring for a client who has an acid-base imbalance. For which of the following manifestations is metabolic alkalosis a possible complications? A. Hyperkalemia B. Severe diarrhea C. Atelectasis D. Excessive vomiting - ✔✔ Excessive vomiting rationale: Metabolic alkalosis is a potential complication of excessive vomiting because of loss of acid from the body. A nurse is caring for neonate who was delivered at 30 weeks of gestation after his mother received two injections of betamethasone (Celestone). because of administration of betamethasone to the client's mother, the nurse should monitor the neonate for which of the following effects? A. Tachycardia B. Sternal retractions C. Hypoglycemia D. Hypothermia - ✔✔ hypoglycemia [Show Less]
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ATI PREDICTOR/NCLEX Test Questions and Correct Answers
CBC (complete blood count) Components - ✔✔ RBC< Hbg, Hct, WBC, PLT BMP/CMP Components - ✔✔ NA, K, Ca, Mg, Phos, Creatinine, BUN,Albumin, Glu... [Show More] cose Normal RBC count - ✔✔ 4-5.3 million/mm3w What happens to body temp prior to ovulation? - ✔✔ Drops Normal: Hbg (hemoglobin) level - ✔✔ 12-17g/dL Normal Hct level (Portion of RBC/ Plasma) - ✔✔ -33-51% (3x Hbg) -See increase if plasma decreases (even if RBC doesn't increase) -See decrease if over hydrated (even if RBC doesn't decrease) *If someone is bleeding out, they are losing RBC and Plasma equally, so you will not see an initial decline in Hct Normal PLT count - ✔✔ 150,000-450,000/mm3 Normal WBC count - ✔✔ -4,500-11,000/mm3 -Differential or % of each of the 5 types of WBCs which will total 100% -with inflammation (72 hours after) post-OP, see high WBC (NOT infection) What two types of WBC are indicative of infection? - ✔✔ Neutrophils and Eosinophils What is elevated with patients that have chronic "Osis" And "itis?" - ✔✔ Monocytes Normal BUN level; what it shows? - ✔✔ -8-21 -Indicator for hydration -decreased=fluid overload -increased=Dehydration, kidney damage -IF linked at with Creatinine, shows kidney function If albumin is low, and the med you are giving is protein bound, what happens to patient? - ✔✔ Affects them more intensity Normal Creatinine level, meaning? - ✔✔ -0.5-1.2mg/dL (once 25% of nephrons are dead, we see increase) ->1.5=50% nephrons dead -waste product of muscle tissue, MORNING labs With Addison's disease do we see increase or decrease in Glucose? - ✔✔ decrease What is the renal threshold for glucose? (at what level will glucose spill into urine?) - ✔✔ 160-190 Are venus blood draws higher or lower than capillary? - ✔✔ 10-15% higher Normal Na level? - ✔✔ 135-145 Normal K level? - ✔✔ 3.5-5 Normal Ca level? - ✔✔ 8.4-10.2 Normal Phos level? - ✔✔ 2.6-4.6 Normal Mg level? - ✔✔ 1.5-2.6 Serum Osmol normal level? - ✔✔ 275-295 (2x Na) Hypertonic solutions - ✔✔ -D5% in .45% (commonly used) -D5% in .9% (commonly used) -3% NaCl (not commonly used) -Dextrose 10% (not commonly used) With hyperaldosteronism what will we see? - ✔✔ Hypernatremia with hypernatremia, what do we see in BP and P? - ✔✔ increase BP and P What formula do we use to treat hypernatremia? - ✔✔ 1L fluid for every 3mEq above 145 with what diseases will we see hyponatremia? - ✔✔ -SIADH -Adrenal insufficiency (Na loss) In the first 1-2 hours we can increase Na by___________? - ✔✔ 4-6mEq Hyperkalemia Manifestations? Treatment? - ✔✔ -Tall T waves, long PR, Wide QRS -diarrhea, cramps -weak muscles Tx: -Calcium Gluconate -Sodium Bicarbonate -Dextrose & Regular Insulin hypokalemia manifestations - ✔✔ -Bradycardia, ST depression, flat T wave -decreased intestinal movement, ileus, N/V -decreased reflexes parathyroid has what type of relationship with Ca? (direct or indirect?) - ✔✔ Direct S/S and Tx of Hypercalemia/Hypophosphatemia? - ✔✔ -decreased DTR -lathargic -N/V/ Constipation -Short ST Tx: loop diuretics, increase fluids S/S and Tx of Hypocalemia/Hyperphosphatemia? - ✔✔ -Cramps, increased DTRs -Chvostek (cheek) and Trousseau's -Numbness and tingling -long ST Tx: tums, IV calcium What two tests go with hypocalcemia? - ✔✔ Chadwick's (cheek) and Trusods (thumb) Normal Magnesium levels - ✔✔ 1.5-2.6 Hypermagnesemia S/S and treatment - ✔✔ lethargy, drowsiness, N/V, absent DTR, cardiac arrest Tx: calcium gluconate Hypomagnesemia S/S and Tx - ✔✔ tetny, increased DTR, arrhythmias Tx: mag sulfate, mag gluconate Normal albumin levels- up or down with age? - ✔✔ 3.7-5.1 (trends down with age) [Show Less]
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