Bundle
ATI COMPREHENSIVE EXIT EXAMS 2020 & STUDY GUIDE BUNDLE | 100% Best Grade
10 Items
ATI COMPREHENSIVE EXIT EXAM –STUDY GUIDE
Xerostomia, what is it & how do you treat it = feeling of oral dryness-treat w/ sugarless candy or gum Labs to check for pernicious anemia = B12 Contrain... [Show More] dication for the use of combination oral contraceptives = HYPERtension (↑ BP) Sign of mild anxiety = Extreme focus What is remote memory loss = Inability to remember things from YEARS ago Heart failure dietary teaching = Low sodium & fluid restriction Diverticulitis dietary teaching = Low fiber Diverticulosis dietary teaching = High fiber IBS dietary teaching = High fiber Urine Culture on baby = straight catheter Parents are nervous about how their 3-year-old will act when newborn arrives. What can they do = Provide gift from the infant to the sibling Methylprednisolone sodium succinate lab to watch for? Serum glucose (because glucocorticoids cause hyperglycemia) At 14 weeks' gestation, what should the patient report to the MD = Swelling of the face (sign of preeclampsia) A patient is 14 weeks pregnant, where do you check to find the FHR = below the pubs symphysis area. Change of shift report should include = The blood lost Patient teaching for colostomy care = patient doesn't need to change the bag every day (only needs to be changed every 4-7 days) Scoliosis manifestation = Lateral curvature of the spin & asymmetrical hips/ribs Lab values that are elevated for Cushing's disease = ↑ Cortisol, ↑sodium, ↑ glucose Cushing disease Sx: Moon face Administering medications through an NG tube = * Administer meds separately * DO NOT mix with enteral feedings * Dissolve crushed tablets in 15-30mL of water * Flush tubing before & after each medication with 10-30mL of water Tobramycin adverse reaction = Ototoxicity (hearing damage & loss of balance) & Cloudy/bloody urine (nephrotoxicity Anorexia expected finding = pre-albumin 10 (normal is 3.5-5) Amniocentesis patient teaching = empty bladder before the procedure (S/E: can cause contractions) Expected finding during cardiac catheterization = Patient will feel warmth and flushed when dye is inserted lOMoARcPSD|7225888 2 Retinoblastoma = white eye reflex What action should you instruct the patient to do prior to postural drainage? Administer a bronchodilator or nebulizer prior to treatment, postural drainage should be done 1 hour before meals or two hours after meals (perform twice daily) IV phlebitis =Discontinue IV & apply a warm/moist compress IV is infiltrated = Discontinue IV & apply a cool compress Female is to undergo an NST = Doppler transducer placed around abdomen When a patient is receiving mannitol, what should the nurse monitor for = Hypovolemia Co-worker is impaired, what do you do = Report it to the charge nurse Fine hair is a result of this disease = HYPERthyroidism How do you draw blood out of a PICC line = Draw 10mL of blood and discard it, then draw another 10mL of blood for sample, and then flush with 10mL of 0.9% sodium chloride Crohn’s disease = LOW fiber diet latex allergy if they have a sensitivity to what food = Bananas Buddhist patient = vegetarians Food Label = greatest weight is listed first. Child with positional plagiocephaly = Child will wear a molded helmet for 23 hours a day Pregnant women should eat more of what to prevent neural defects = Folate/folic acid A caregiver states they are becoming tired when caring for their parent with Alzheimer's disease, what can the nurse suggest = Respite care (care to give caregivers a break) Cleft palate teaching for feeding = don’t use a spoon, Position infant upright while cradling head & burp them frequently A wound that would heal by primary intention = A surgical incision Sign of glaucoma is loss of = Peripheral vision loss Baby w/reflux = small frequent meals, thicken formula with rice cereal, HOB 30 Radiation implant precautions = * Private room with radiation sign * Wear dosimeter film badge * Limit visitors to 30 min and to remain 6ft away from the patient * Keep lead container in room and tongs * No pregnant ladies or anyone under the age of 16 should come into contact with the patient Discharge teaching for a patient who is going home with HIV/AIDS = * Good hygiene & frequent hand washing * Avoid crowds * Avoid cleaning litter boxes lOMoARcPSD|7225888 3 * Avoid raw foods such as veggies or meats Adolescent nutrition = 1300mg of calcium Priority nursing care for a patient who has been sexually assaulted = Assess their anxiety Identifying a need for hearing evaluation = * Absence of talking by 7 months * Uses gestures rather than talking by 15 months * Speaks in monotone * Speaks loudly for the situation Compartment syndrome = client with cast and has white extremity (6 P’s assessment) NG placement in the Jejunum = X-ray How should you confirm the placement of an NG tube = Aspirate gastric contents (pH less than 4) Methylphenidate patient teaching = It's Ritalin, so take once daily in the morning Simvastatin reaction that you report to the MD = Muscle aches/pain (rhabdomyolysis) Diabetic foot care patient teaching = Cut toe nails straight across, No lotion between toes, wear clean socks made of cotton or wool Where should you insert a peripheral catheter = Distal veins in the non-dominant hand Who receives Rhogam = an O- women following a spontaneous abortion Losartan adverse effect = Angioedema Patient teaching for dabigatran = Report bleeding (it's an anticoagulant) Pacemaker teaching = Take pulse at same time each day & report if HR is less than 5bpm below the pacemaker rate, Report dizzy, fatigue, hiccups or palpitations EKG that has no P wave, has a wavy baseline and increased HR = Atrial fibrillation Newborn genetic screening = Heel-stick test done 24 hours after birth and the infant must be fed within those 24 hours for accurate results Acupuncture contradiction: Herpes Zoster What medication is given for an ectopic pregnancy = Methotrexate Washing hands for a patient who is immunosuppressed = use chlorohexidine Betamethasone causes HYPERglycemia in the mom & HYPOglycemia in the neonate Betamethasone = used to promote fetal lung maturity NG Tube feeding = suction gas residuals every 4 hours. A client who has a history of domestic abuse = discuss an escape plan Cleansing a radiation area = Clean with mild soap or water, Avoid use of powders/lotions/creams lOMoARcPSD|7225888 4 Furosemide [Show Less]
- Study guide
- $13.45
- 1
- 1011
ATI COMPREHENSIVE EXIT EXAM 2019 |100% best grade
1) A nurse in an emergency department completes an assessment on an adolescent client that has conduct disorder. The client threatened suicide to teacher ... [Show More] at school. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the assessment? a) Tell me about your siblings b) Tell me what kind of music you like c) Tell me how often do you drink alcohol d) Tell me about your school schedule 2) *A nurse is observing bonding to the client her newborn. Which of following actions by the client requires the nurse to intervene? a) Holding the newborn in an en face position b) Asking the father to change the newborn's diaper c) Requesting the nurse take the newborn nursery so she can rest d) Viewing the newborn’s actions to be uncooperative 3) A nurse is caring for client who is taking levothyroxin. Which of the following findings should indicate that the medication is effective? a) Weight loss (this drug acts as T4 and will normalize the effects of hypothyroidism) b) Decreased blood pressure c) Absence of seizures d) Decrease inflammation 4) A nurse is planning discharge teaching for cord care for the parent of a newborn. Which instructions would you include in the teaching? a) Contact provider if the cord still turns black (it’s going to turn black) b) Clean the base of the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily (clean with neutral pH cleanser) c) Keep the cord dry until it falls off (cord should be kept clean and dry to prevent infection) d) The cord stump will fall off in five days (cord falls off in 10-14 days) 5) A nurse is assessing a client in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output? a) Shivering b) Oliguria c) Bradypnea d) Constricted pupils 6) A nurse is assisting with mass casualty triage: explosion at a local factory. Which of the following client should the nurse identify as the priority? a) A client that has massive head trauma b) A client has full thickness burns to face and trunk c) A client with indications of hypovolemic shock d) A client with open fracture of the lower extremity 7) A nurse is a receiving report on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first? a) A client who has illeal conduit and mucus in the pouch b) Client pleasant arteriovenous additional vibration palpated 1 of 28 c) A client whose chronic kidney disease with cloudy diasylate outflow d) A client was transurethral resection of the prostate with a red tinged urine in the bag 8) A nurse is caring for a client just received the first dose of lisinopril. The following is an appropriate nursing intervention? a) Place’s cardiac monitoring b) Monitor the clients oxygen saturation level c) Provide standby assist with the client from bed d) Encourage foods high in potassium 9) A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and his seat is receiving electronic fetal monitoring. The nurse is reviewing the monitor tracing and notes early decelerations. Which the following should the nurse expect? a) Feta hypoxia b) Abrupto placentae c) Post maturity d) Head Compression 10) A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease. The nurse should identify which of the following laboratory values as in an indication for hemodialysis? a) glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/ minute b) BUN 16 mg/DL c) serum magnesium 1.8 mg mg/dl d) Serum phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL 11) A nurse is caring for an infant who has a prescription for continuous pulse oximetry. The following is an appropriate action for the nurse to take? a) Placed infant under radiant warmer b) Move the probe site every 3 hours c) Heat the skin one minute prior to placing the program d) Placed a sensor on the index finger 12) A nurse in a mental health facility receives a change of shift report on for clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first? a) Client placed in restraints to the aggressive behavior b) A new limited client pleasures history of 4.5 kg weight loss in the past two months c) Client is receiving a PRN dose of health heard all two hours ago for increased anxiety d) Applied he’ll be receiving his first ECT treatment today 13) A nurse working at the clinic is teaching a group of clients who are pregnant on the use of nonpharmacological pain management. Which of the following statements by the nurse is an appropriate description of the use of hypnosis during labor? a) Hypnosis focuses on the biofeedback as a relaxation technique b) Hypnosis promotes increased control of her pain perception during contractions c) Hypnosis uses therapeutic touch to reduce anxiety during labor d) Hypnosis provides instruction to minimize pain 2 of 28 14) A nurse in a County Jail health clinic is leading group therapy session. A client who was incarcerated for theft is addressing the group. Which of the following is an example of reaction formation? (rxn formation is when you use opposite feelings; ex: being super nice to someone you dislike) a) I steal things because it’s the only way I can keep my mind off my bad marriage b) I can’t believe I was accused of something I didn’t do c) I don’t want talk about my feelings right now. We will talk more next time d) I think that people just you’re just lazy and should earn money honestly 15) A nurse is obtaining the medical history of a client who has a new prescription for isosorbide monotitrate. Which of the following should the nurse identify as a contraindication to medication? a) Glaucoma b) Hypertension c) Polycythemia d) Migraine headaches 16) ? 17) The nurses is caring for a client recovering from an acute myocardial infarction. Which following intervention should the nurse include in the point of care? a) Draw a troponin level every four hours b) Performance EKG every 12 hours c) Plant oxygen tent fell over minutes via rebreather mask d) Obtain a cardiac rehabilitation consult 18) A Nurses caring for client who has breast cancer and has been covering receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following laboratory values should nurse report to provider? a) WBC 3,000/mm3 b) Hemoglobin 14 g/dl c) Platelet 250,000/mm3 d) aPTT 30 seconds 19) Home health nurse is carefully planned for Alzheimer’s disease. To the following action should the nurse include in the plan of care a) Place a daily calendar in the kitchen b) Replace button clothing with zippered items c) Replace the carpet with hardwood floors d) Create variation in daily routine 20) Nurse is performing change of shift assessments on 4 clients. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to provider first? a) The client was cystic fibrosis and has a thick productive clock and reports thirst b) Client who has gastroenteritis and is lethargic and confused c) The Client has diabetes mellitus has morning fasting Legal cost of 185 mg over deal d) The client was sick of signing it reports pain 15 minutes after receiving oral analgesic 21) A nurse is caring for a client was in the second trimester of pregnancy and asks how to treat constipation. Which of the following statements by the nurse is appropriate? a) Decrease taking vitamins and supplements to every other day 2 of 28 b) Eat 15 g of fiber per day c) Consume 48 ounces of water each day (need at least 64 oz) d) Drink hot water with lemon juice each morning when you wake up 22) ? 23) A nurse is caring for a client who is preparing his advance directives. Which is the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of advanced directives? select all that apply a) I can’t change my instructions once a minute b) My doctor will need to approve my advance directives c) I need an attorney to witness my signature on the advance directives d) I have the right to refuse treatment e) My health care proxy can make medical decisions for me 24) A nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks gestation and has a history of cardiac disease. Which of the following positions should the nurse place the client to best promote optimal cardiac output? a) The chest b) Standing c) Supine [Show Less]
- Exam
- $14.65
- 0
- 210
ATI RN COMPREHENSIVE EXIT EXAM 2
diet for chronic renal failure low protein & potassium DM pt teaching change shoes, wash feet w/soap & water pulse pressure subtract systolic value... [Show More] from diastolic value lantus never mix, long lasting, no peak rhogam given @ 28 weeks & 72 hours post delivery when mom is negative & baby positive indication of baby dehydration improving smooth fontanel pt w/orthostatic hypotension put near nursing station cleaning a wound clean to dirty use bulb syringe peripheral arterial disease cramp in leg while walking intermittent claudication seizure precautions supine position 20 weeks gestation, having urinary frequency u/a & c/s report to new nurse @ shift change pt @ xray s/s of hemolytic blood transfusion flank pain ER rape victim priority acess anxiety nutrition carbs 45%, protein 10-15% latex allergy tape up cords first ingredient on a food label most content thoracentesis, & painful w/breathing put pt on UNAFFECTED side for 1 hour or longer pt w/IV sedation check LOC if not responsive help older brother get used to baby get a gift for big brother early decelerations head compressions methergine contraindication HTN delegate to AP I & O HF monitoring weights location for peripheral line radial prioritizing care for multiple pt's low flank pain ativan for seizures med for diabetes insipidus desmopressin radiation tatoo use mild soap & water uric acid stones eat low fat yogurt antigout med decreases uric acid level allopurinol non-pharm relation technique for pain management in labor hypnosis psychotic disorder assessment finding flat affect newborn withdrawal from heroin (opioids) hypertonicity mitral valve location 5th intercostal amniocentesis go pee before procedure total gastrectomy lack b 12 takes 30-60 meal to eat a meal stoma color pink or red is normal MAOI's diet no pepperoni, no tyramine, COTTAGE CHEESE OKJ give iron w/? OJ statins contraindication Grapefruit juice haldol lip smacking mag sulfate decreased urine output decreased respirations decreased pulmonary edema antidote for mag sulfate calcium gluconate clozaril interventions monitor WBC valproic acid liver function thyroid med effectiveness weight loss diuretics don't skip doses DIG adverse effects N/V & HA prednisone take with milk hemo/peritoneal dialysis pt teaching medical asepsis cranial nerve 11 shoulder peripheral catheter insertion advance catheter when you see flash back of blood return dispose of insulin needles @ home in coffee container confirmation of ng placement x ray swallowing difficulty referral speech therapy acrabose skip a meal, skip dose, give w/1st bite of food sprains & strains RICE pt DNR-CC & family asking questions related to. therapeutic communication: THERAPEUTIC RESPONSE What did the dr tell you? delegating to AP about skeletal traction: NEEDS MORE TEACHING AP places weight on bed daughter feeling guilty about admitting parent into long-term facility: THERAPEUTIC RESPONSE rephrase what daughter is feeling how good nurse plans her day rechecks her priorities half way through her shift good nurse sets these when she works GOALS pt gets bad dx, & asks you not to tell her spouse:YOUR RESPONSE you have a right to privacy delegate to AP CPR baby in contact precautions in a private room, what would you do to save hospital $? bring formula prn how does a nurse properly manage her time mid-shift? reevaluates goals which psych pt would you see first? hallucinations dementia pt @ ER, w/marks on coccyx & wrist, suspected abuse. what do you do? ask pt. INTERVIEW HIM psych pt yelling in front of group. very agitated, what do you do? isolate pt charge nurse scheduling resolution between nurses nurse listens to both sides respite care gives family a break pt in seclusion documentation what happened prior to seclusion that caused for seclusion parkinson's : pt teaching nutrition- thicken liquids pt receiving radiation, what should you wear? lead apron pt suffering from hyperthermia seizure precautions pt refuses last minute for a procedure he already consented for okay to stop procedure s/s of smallpox rash on tongue xerostoma humidifier vagina procedure, cervical cancer place catheter Lyme disease report it lice (pediculodis capitis) can survive on surfaces for up to 48 hours RSV keep stethescope in room (droplet) 16 weeks gestation can get AFP test done bacterial meningitis droplet precautions when can kid return to school for chicken pox when lesions are crusted over kicks a ball: developmental stage 24 months baby w/cleft lip untie arms & perform ROM wrong ostomy care changing everyday may lead to skin irritation after male circumcision apply petroleum jelly w/every diaper change breastfeeding w/hep c don't breast feed if you have cracked nipples contraindication w/oral contraceptives HTN combination contraceptives contraindications pt w/migraines when percussing RUQ, what should we feel dullness dementia pt offer finger foods black males @ great risk for CVA med for alcohol withdrawal disulfiran (antabuse) better nutririon canola oil healthy eating 45 % carbs to prevent neuro tube defects folate prevnting delays of healing protein & o2 pt raped & @ ER assess anxiety pt reports abuse assess pt, check for injuries anorexia 60% refeeding-pre-albumin of 10 telemetry is used for check for dysrythmia do not give mmr to child bearing pt b4 pregnancy test pt w/hx of blood transfusion diet for hf dry spices to flavor food TURP: closed intrermittment irrigation let it drain Cranial nerve XI (hot spot) shoulder Proper lifting technique (picture) bending at knees 24 month old walk up steps Food label greatest weight listed first IV technique [Show Less]
- Exam
- $12.45
- 0
- 196
ATI RN COMPREHENSIVE EXIT EXAM 2020
1. A nurse is implementing interventions for a group of patients. Which actions are nursing interventions? (Select all that apply.) a. Order chest x-ray f... [Show More] or suspected arm fracture. b. Prescribe antibiotics for a wound infection. c. Reposition a patient who is on bed rest. d. Teach a patient preoperative exercises. e. Transfer a patient to another hospital unit. ANS: C, D, E A nursing intervention is any treatment based on clinical judgment and knowledge that a nurse performs to enhance patient outcomes. Repositioning, teaching, and transferring a patient are examples of nursing interventions. Ordering a chest x-ray and prescribing antibiotics are examples of medical interventions performed by a health care provider. 2. A nurse is providing nursing care to a group of patients. Which actions are direct care interventions? (Select all that apply.) a. Ambulating a patient b. Inserting a feeding tube c. Performing resuscitation d. Documenting wound care e. Teaching about medications ANS: A, B, C, E All of the interventions listed (ambulating, inserting a feeding tube, performing resuscitation, and teaching) are direct care interventions involving patient and nurse interaction, except documenting wound care. Documenting wound care is an example of an indirect intervention. 3. A nurse is preparing to carry out interventions. Which resources will the nurse make sure are available? (Select all that apply.) a. Equipment b. Safe environment c. Confidence d. Assistive personnel e. Creativity ANS: A, B, D A nurse will organize time and resources in preparation for implementing nursing care. Most nursing procedures require some equipment or supplies. Before performing an intervention, decide which supplies you need and determine their availability. Patient care staff (assistive personnel) work together as patients’ needs demand it. A patient’s care environment needs to be safe and conducive to implementing therapies. Confidence and creativity are needed to provide safe and effective patient care; however, these are critical thinking attitudes, not resources. 4. Which interventions are appropriate for a patient with diabetes and poor wound healing? (Select all that apply.) a. Perform dressing changes twice a day as ordered. b. Teach the patient about signs and symptoms of infection. c. Instruct the family about how to perform dressing changes. d. Gently refocus patient from discussing body image changes. Administer medications to control the patient’s blood sugar as e. ordered. ANS: A, B, C, E Nursing priorities include interventions directed at enhancing wound healing. Teaching the patient about signs and symptoms of infection will help the patient identify signs of appropriate wound healing and know when the need for calling the health care provider arises. Performing dressing changes, controlling blood sugars through administration of medications, and instructing the family in dressing changes all contribute to wound healing. As long as a patient is stable and alert, it is appropriate to allow family to assist with care. The patient should be allowed to discuss body image changes. 1. A nurse determines that the patient’s condition has improved and has met expected outcomes. Which step of the nursing process is the nurse exhibiting? a. Assessment b. Planning c. Implementation d. Evaluation ANS: D Evaluation, the final step of the nursing process, is crucial to determine whether, after application of the first four steps of the nursing process, a patient’s condition or well-being improves and if goals have been met. Assessment, the first step of the process, includes data collection. Planning, the third step of the process, involves setting priorities, identifying patient goals and outcomes, and selecting nursing interventions. During implementation, nurses carry out nursing care, which is necessary to help patients achieve their goals. 2. A nurse completes a thorough database and carries out nursing interventions based on priority diagnoses. Which action will the nurse take next? a. Assessment b. Planning c. Implementation d. Evaluation ANS: D Evaluation, the final step of the nursing process, is crucial to determine whether, after application of the first four steps of the nursing process, a patient’s condition or well-being improves. Assessment involves gathering information about the patient. During the planning phase, patient outcomes are determined. Implementation involves carrying out appropriate nursing interventions. 3. A new nurse asks the preceptor to describe the primary purpose of evaluation. Which statement made by the nursing preceptor is most accurate? A. “An evaluation helps you determine whether all nursing interventions were completed.” B. “During evaluation, you determine when to downsize staffing on nursing units.” C. “Nurses use evaluation to determine the effectiveness of nursing care.” D. “Evaluation eliminates unnecessary paperwork and care planning.” ANS: C Evaluation is a methodical approach for determining if nursing implementation was effective in influencing a patient’s progress or condition in a favorable way. During evaluation, you do not simply determine whether nursing interventions were completed. The evaluation process is not used to determine when to downsize staffing or how to eliminate paperwork and care planning. 4. After assessing the patient and [Show Less]
- Exam
- $8.45
- 0
- 548
ATI COMPREHENSIVE EXAM (LATEST)
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which... [Show More] of the following should the actions the nurse take? A. Request a renewal of the prescription every 8 hr. B. Check the client’s peripheral pulse rate every 30 min C. Obtain a prescription for restraint within 4 hr. D. Document the client’s condition every 15 minutes 2. A nursing planning care for a school-age child who is 4 hr postoperative following perforated appendicitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Offer small amounts of clear liquids 6 hr following surgery (assess for gag reflex first) b. Give cromolyn nebulizer solution every 6 hr (for asthma) c. Apply a warm compress to the operative site every 4 hr d. Administer analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hr 3. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first? a. A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring b. A client who has diabetes mellitus and a hemoglobin A1C of 6.8% c. A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities d. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea 4. A nurse is preparing to apply a transdermal nicotine patch for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse tak e? a. Shave hairy areas of skin prior to application (apply to hairless, clean & dry areas to promote absorption; avoid oily or broken skin) b. Wear gloves to apply the patch to the client’s skin c. Apply the patch within 1 hr of removing it from the protective pouch (apply immediately) d. Remove the previous patch and place it in a tissue (fold patch in half with sticky sides pressed together) 5. A nurse has just received change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first? a. A client who was just given a glass of orange juice for a low blood glucose level b. A client who is schedule for a procedure in 1 hr (can wait) c. A client who has 100 mL fluid remaining in his IV bag (can wait) d. A client who received a pain medication 30 min ago for postoperative pain 6. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration? a. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease b. Receiving a high osmolarity formula c. Sitting in a high-Fowler’s position during the feeding d. A residual of 65 mL 1hr postprandial 7. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has Cushing’s disease. The nurse should expect the client to have an increase in which of the following laboratory values? a. Serum glucose level- increased b. Serum calcium level-decreased c. Lymphocyte count- decreased immune system. d. Serum potassium level- decreased . 8. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. The nurse discontinues the magnesium sulfate after the client displaces toxicity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. Position the client supine b. Prepare an IV bolus of dextrose 5% in water c. Administer methylergonovine IM d. Administer calcium gluconate IV Calcium gluconate is given for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Always have an injectable form of calcium gluconate available when administering magnesium sulfate by IV. 9. A charge nurse is teaching new staff members about factors that increase a client’s risk to become violent. Which of the following risk factors should the nurse include as the best predictor of future violence? a. Experiencing delusions b. Male gender c. Previous violent behavior d. A history of being in prison Risk factors also include: past history of aggression, poor impulse control, and violence. Comorbidity that leads to acts of violence (psychotic delusions, command hallucinations, violent angry reactions with cognitive disorders). Individual Assessment for Violence 10. A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when setting up the sterile field? a. Place the cap from the solution sterile side up on clean surface b. Open the outermost flap of the sterile kit toward the body→ flap AWAY from the body's first c. Place the sterile dressing within 1.25 cm (0.5in) of the edge of the sterile field → 2.5 cm (1-inch) border around any sterile drape or wrap that is considered contaminated. d. Set up the sterile field 5 cm (2 in) below waist level→ it says BELOW waist level; should be ABOVE waist level 11. A nurse is providing teaching to an older adult client about methods to promote nighttime sleep. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? a. Eat a light snack before bedtime b. Stay in bed at least 1 hr if unable to fall asleep c. Take a 1 hr nap during the day d. Perform exercises prior to bedtime 12. A home health nurse is preparing for an initial visit with an older adult client who lives alone. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? a. Educate the client about current medical diagnosis b. Refer the client to a meal delivery program c. Identify environmental hazards in the home d. Arrange for client transportation to follow-up appointments Rationale Priority: Assess first. 13. A nurse is assessing the remote memory of an older adult client who has mild dementia. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask the client? a. “Can you tell me who visited you today?” b. “What high school did you graduate from c. “Can you list your current medications?” d. “What did you have for breakfast yesterday?” 14. A nurse is providing teaching to an adolescent who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following goals should the nurse include in the teaching a. HbA1c level greater than 8%- 6.5 - 8 is the target reference. > b. Blood glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL at bedtime c. Blood glucose level less than 60 mg/dL before breakfast- < 70 = HYPOGLYCEMIC d. HbA1c level less than 7% 15. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination? a. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin b. The client’s seizure disorder is no longer under control c. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity d. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy 16. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postoperative following rhinoplasty. Which of the following manifestations requires immediate action by the nurse? a. Increase in frequency of swallowing→ may indicate bleeding b. Moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad c. Bruising to the face→ side effect d. Absent gag reflex→ possibly due to anesthesia given. (1 hour postoperative) Rationale “Requires immediate action” choose the worst possibility that could lead to. ABC 17. A nurse is planning care for a preschool-age child who is in the acute phase Kawasaki disease. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Give scheduled doses of acetaminophen every 6 hr b. Monitor the child’s cardiac status c. Administer antibiotics via intermittent IV bolus for 24 hr d. Provide stimulation with children of the same age in the playroom 18. A nurse is planning an educational program for high school students about cigarette smoking. Which of the following potential consequences of smoking is most likely to discourage adolescents from using tobacco? a. Use of tobacco might lead to alcohol and drug abuse b. Smoking in adolescence increases the risk of developing lung cancer later in life c. Use of tobacco decreases the level of athletic ability d. Smoking in adolescence increases the risk of lifelong addiction 19. A nurse is assessing a client who is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for this client? a. Total bilirubin b. Urine ketones c. Serum potassium- diuretic that retains potassium= hyperkalemic risk d. Platelet count Rationale ATI PDF p: 146 Pharm Complications: hyperkalemia 20. A nurse has agreed to serve as an interpreter for an older adult client who is assigned to another nurse. Which of the following statements by the nurse indicates an understanding of this role? a. “I will let the client know that I am available as the interpreter.” b. “I will receive a small fee for interpreting for this client.” c. “I am glad I’m available today, but when I’m not, you can use a family member.” d. “I will let the client know that an interpreter is unavailable during the night shift.” 21. A nurse is performing assessments on newborns in the nursery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? a. A two day old newborn who has a respiratory rate of 70 --> 30 - 60 is normal b. A 16 hour old new newborn who has yet to pass meconium- you got 24 hours to pass stool c, A 2 day old newborn who has a small amount of blood tinged vaginal discharge d. A 16 hr old newborn whose blood glucose is 45 mg/dl- 40 - 60 is normal 22. A nurse on an acute unit has received change of shift report for 4 clients which of the following clients should the nurse assess first? Pain pallor pulselessness paresthesia a. A client who is 1 hr postoperative and has hypoactive bowel sounds b. A client who has fractured left tibia and pallor in the affected extremity c. A client who had a cardiac catheterization 3 hr ago and has 3+ pedal pulses d. A client who has a elevated AST level following administration of azithromycin 23. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for haloperidol which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report to the provider? a. Weight gain b. Dry mouth→ anticholinergic effects c. Sedation → s/s neuroleptic malignant syndrome??>> life threatening d. Shuffling gait →A/E EPS: is an indication of parkinsonism and should be reported to t 24. A nurse is planning discharge teaching about cord care for the parents of a newborn b. Potato pancakes c. Disorganized speech c. Apply an orthotic to the clients foot which [Show Less]
- Exam
- $14.95
- 0
- 305
ATI COMPREHENSIVE EXIT EXAM – PRIORITY ONE
ATI COMPREHENSIVE EXIT EXAM – PRIORITY ONE 1. A nurse is assessing a client’s pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP). The nurse should recognize that... [Show More] an elevated PAWP indicates which of the following complications? A. Left ventricular failure B. Cardiogenic shock C. Hypovolemia D. Hypotension 2. A nursing planning care for a school-age child who is 4 hr postoperative following perforated appendicitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Offer small amounts of clear liquids 6 hr following surgery (assess for gag reflex first) b. Give cromolyn nebulizer solution every 6 hr (for asthma) c. Apply a warm compress to the operative site every 4 hr d. Administer analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hr Rationale Fundamentals ATI PDF p229: Managing acute severe pain with short-term (24 to 48 hr) around-the-clock administration of opioids is preferable to following a PRN schedule. ATI PEDS 144 Maintain NPO. Administer IV fluids and antibiotics as prescribed. NO cromolyn nebulizer stated on ATI. 3. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first? a. A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring b. A client who has diabetes mellitus and a hemoglobin A1C of 6.8% c. A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities d. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea 4. A nurse is preparing to apply a transdermal nicotine patch for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse tak e? a. Shave hairy areas of skin prior to application (apply to hairless, clean & dry areas to promote absorption; avoid oily or broken skin) b. Wear gloves to apply the patch to the client’s skin c. Apply the patch within 1 hr of removing it from the protective pouch (apply immediately) d. Remove the previous patch and place it in a tissue (fold patch in half with sticky sides pressed together) Rationale: https://medlineplus.gov/druginfo/meds/a601084.html: How to apply patch Rationale ATI Skills Module Medication Administration: Topical medications include lotions, creams, ointments, patches, and paste. Because topical medications are absorbed by the skin, wear gloves when applying them to protect yourself against accidental exposure Shaving may cause skin irritation and change the absorption of the drug. 5. A nurse has just received change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first? a. A client who was just given a glass of orange juice for a low blood glucose level b. A client who is schedule for a procedure in 1 hr (can wait) c. A client who has 100 mL fluid remaining in his IV bag (can wait) d. A client who received a pain medication 30 min ago for postoperative pain Rationale Med Surg ATI PDF p529: assess for improvement or worsening of hypoglycemia. Repeat the administration of carbohydrates if not within normal limits, and recheck blood glucose in 15 min. Risk for seizure & coma if condition worsens. 6. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration? a. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease b. Receiving a high osmolarity formula c. Sitting in a high-Fowler’s position during the feeding d. A residual of 65 mL 1hr postprandial Rationale ATI MS p309: Complications: Aspiration of gastric secretion Causes: Reflux of gastric fluids into the esophagus can be aspirated into the trachea. 7. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has Cushing’s disease. The nurse should expect the client to have an INCREASED in which of the following laboratory values? a. Serum glucose level- increased b. Serum calcium level-decreased c. Lymphocyte count- decreased immune system. d. Serum potassium level- decreased Rationale ATI MS PDF p518: Cushing disease→ everything is UP except Potassium & Calcium: DECREASED. 8. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. The nurse discontinues the magnesium sulfate after the client displaces toxicity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? P . 235 pharm ch 30 a. Position the client supine b. Prepare an IV bolus of dextrose 5% in water c. Administer methylergonovine IM d. Administer calcium gluconate IV Rationale ATI PHARM PDF p398: Calcium gluconate is given for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Always have an injectable form of calcium gluconate available when administering magnesium sulfate by IV. 9. A charge nurse is teaching new staff members about factors that increase a client’s risk to become violent. Which of the following risk factors should the nurse include as the best predictor of future violence? a. Experiencing delusions b. Male gender c. Previous violent behavior d. A history of being in prison Rationale ATI MH p185: Risk factors also include: past history of aggression, poor impulse control, and violence. Comorbidity that leads to acts of violence (psychotic delusions, command hallucinations, violent angry reactions with cognitive disorders). Rationale ATI COMMUNITY p50: Individual Assessment for Violence 10. A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when setting up the sterile field? a. Place the cap from the solution sterile side up on clean surface b. Open the outermost flap of the sterile kit toward the body→ flap AWAY from the body's first c. Place the sterile dressing within 1.25 cm (0.5in) of the edge of the sterile field → 2.5 cm (1-inch) border around any sterile drape or wrap that is considered contaminated. d. Set up the sterile field 5 cm (2 in) below waist level→ it says BELOW waist level; should be ABOVE waist level Rationale POTTER & PERRY SKILLS & TECH p187: Remove sterile seal and cap from bottle in upward motion. 11. A nurse is providing teaching to an older adult client about methods to promote nighttime sleep. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? a. Eat a light snack before bedtime b. Stay in bed at least 1 hr if unable to fall asleep c. Take a 1 hr nap during the day d. Perform exercises prior to bedtime 12. A home health nurse is preparing for an initial visit with an older adult client who lives alone. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? a. Educate the client about current medical diagnosis b. Refer the client to a meal delivery program c. Identify environmental hazards in the home d. Arrange for client transportation to follow-up appointments Rationale Priority: Assess first. 13. A nurse is assessing the remote memory of an older adult client who has mild dementia. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask the client? a. “Can you tell me who visited you today?” b. “What high school did you graduate from?” c. “Can you list your current medications?” d. “What did you have for breakfast yesterday?” Rationale ATI How to assess “remote memory”? Have patient state a verifiable fact (e.g. birthdate). OR ask the client to state a fact from their past that is verifiable. Memory of events that occurred in the distant past. 14. A nurse is providing teaching to an adolescent who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following goals should the nurse include in the teaching? P .528 med surg ch 82 a. HbA1c level greater than 8%- 6.5 - 8 is the target reference. > 8 means NON COMPLIANT b. Blood glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL at bedtime c. Blood glucose level less than 60 mg/dL before breakfast- < 70 = HYPOGLYCEMIC d. HbA1c level less than 7% 15. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination? a. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin b. The client’s seizure disorder is no longer under control c. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity d. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy Rationale: http://www.webmd.com/drugs/2/drug-4157/dilantinoral/ details#interactions Rationale ATI Pharm p96: Phenytoin complications include ataxia, sedation & cognitive impairment (http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/816447-clinical#b4 also states that this is an indication of phenytoin toxicity); According to my Davis Drug Guide book, progressive s/s of phenytoin toxicity include ataxia, nystagmus, confusion, nausea, slurred speech & dizziness. 16. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postoperative following rhinoplasty. Which of the following manifestations requires immediate action by the nurse? a. Increase in frequency of swallowing→ may indicate bleeding b. Moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad c. Bruising to the face→ side effect d. Absent gag reflex→ possibly due to anesthesia given. (1 hour postoperative) Rationale “Requires immediate action” choose the worst possibility that could lead to. ABC 17. A nurse is planning care for a preschool-age child who is in the acute phase Kawasaki disease. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Give scheduled doses of acetaminophen every 6 hr b. Monitor the child’s cardiac status c. Administer antibiotics via intermittent IV bolus for 24 hr d. Provide stimulation with children of the same age in the playroom Rationale ATI PDF p: PEDS p. 120 Monitor VS, cardiac status. Maintain cardiac monitoring. Assess for HF (decrease urine output, gallop heart rhythm, tachycardia, and respiratory distress) Kawasaki disease cause inflammation in the walls of medium-sized arteries throughout the body. It primarily affects children. The inflammation tends to affect the coronary arteries, which supply blood to the heart muscle. 18. A nurse is planning an educational program for high school students about cigarette smoking. Which of the following potential consequences of smoking is most likely to discourage adolescents from using tobacco? a. Use of tobacco might lead to alcohol and drug abuse b. Smoking in adolescence increases the risk of developing lung cancer later in life c. Use of tobacco decreases the level of athletic ability d. Smoking in adolescence increases [Show Less]
- Exam
- $14.95
- 1
- 789
ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Exam Practice 2022
ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor A nurse is caring for a client who underwent a subtotal gastrectomy. To manage dumping syndrome, the nurse should advise t... [Show More] he client to: a) restrict fluid intake to 1 qt (1,000 ml)/day. b) drink liquids only between meals. c) don't drink liquids 2 hours before meals. d) drink liquids only with meals. A patient who has undergone colostomy surgery is experiencing constipation. Which of the following interventions should a nurse consider for such a patient? a) Instruct the patient to keep a record of food intake b) Instruct the patient to avoid prune or apple juice c) Suggest fluid intake of at least 2 L per day d) Assist the patient regarding the correct diet or to minimize food intake- A client is admitted with a diagnosis of acute appendicitis. When assessing the abdomen, the nurse would expect to find rebound tenderness at which location? a) Left lower quadrant b) Left upper quadrant c) Right upper quadrant d) Right lower quadrant-D Which outcome indicates effective client teaching to prevent constipation? a) The client reports engaging in a regular exercise regimen. b) The client limits water intake to three glasses per day. c) The client verbalizes consumption of low-fiber foods. d) The client maintains a sedentary lifestyle.- Patients diagnosed with esophageal varices are at risk for hemorrhagic shock. Which of the following is a sign of potential hypovolemia? a) Hypotension b) Bradycardia c) Warm moist skin d) Polyuria- The nurse is assessing a client with a bleeding gastric ulcer. When examining the client's stool, which of the following characteristics would the nurse be most likely to find? a) Green color and texture b) Black and tarry appearance c) Clay-like quality d) Bright red blood in stool- After teaching a group of students about the various organs of the upper gastrointestinal tract and possible disorders, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which of the following structures as possibly being affected? a) Large intestine b) Ileum c) Stomach d) Liver- A nurse is caring for a client with active upper GI bleeding. What is the appropriate diet for this client during the first 24 hours after admission? a) Skim milk b) Nothing by mouth c) Regular diet d) Clear liquids- The nurse is supervising the staff providing care for an 18-month-old hospitalized with hepatitis A. The nurse determines that the staff's care is appropriate if which of the following is observed? 1. The child is placed in a private room. When using restraints for an agitated/aggressive patient, which of the following statements should NOT influence the nurse's actions during this intervention? 3. The patient's voluntary/involuntary status. The nurse is caring for an 80-year-old client with Parkinson's disease. Which of the following nursing goals is MOST realistic and appropriate in planning care for this client? 2. Maintain optimal function within the client's limitations. A client with a peptic ulcer had a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy (Billroth I). In planning the discharge teaching, the client should be cautioned by the nurse about which of the following? 4. Avoid eating large meals that are high in simple [Show Less]
- Exam
- $13.95
- 0
- 272
ATI RN Comprehensive Exam
ATI RN Comprehensive Exam 1. A nursing planning care for a school-age child who is 4 hrs. postoperative following perforated appendicitis. Which of the f... [Show More] ollowing actions should the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Offer small amounts of clear liquids 6 hrs. following surgery (assess for gag reflex first) b. Give cromolyn nebulizer solution every 6 hrs. (for asthma) c. Apply a warm compress to the operative site every 4 hrs. d. Administer analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hrs. Rationale Fundamentals ATI PDF p229: Managing acute severe pain with short‑term (24 to 48 hrs.) around‑the‑clock administration of opioids is preferable to following a PRN schedule. ATI PEDS 144 Maintain NPO. Administer IV fluids and antibiotics as prescribed. NO cromolyn nebulizer stated on ATI. 2. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first? a. A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring b. A client who has diabetes mellitus and a hemoglobin A1C of 6.8% c. A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities d. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea Rationale Med Surg ATI PDF p457: s/s of fat embolism (dyspnea, increased RR, decreased O2, headache, decreased LOC r/t low O2 levels, respiratory distress, tachycardia, confusion, chest pain), Hip and pelvis fractures are common causes, can occur after injury usually within 12-48 hrs. 3. A nurse is preparing to apply a transdermal nicotine patch for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. Shave hairy areas of skin prior to application (apply to hairless, clean & dry areas to promote absorption; avoid oily or broken skin) b. Wear gloves to apply the patch to the client’s skin c. Apply the patch within 1 hr. of removing it from the protective pouch (apply immediately) d. Remove the previous patch and place it in a tissue (fold patch in half with sticky sides pressed together) Rationale ATI Skills Module Medication Administration: Topical medications include lotions, creams, ointments, patches, and paste. Because topical medications are absorbed by the skin, wear gloves when applying them to protect yourself against accidental exposure Shaving may cause skin irritation and change the absorption of the drug. 4. A nurse has just received change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first? a. A client who was just given a glass of orange juice for a low blood glucose level b. A client who is schedule for a procedure in 1 hr. (can wait) c. A client who has 100 mL fluid remaining in his IV bag (can wait) d. A client who received a pain medication 30 min ago for postoperative pain Rationale Med Surg ATI PDF p529: assess for improvement or worsening of hypoglycemia. Repeat the administration of carbohydrates if not within normal limits, and recheck blood glucose in 15 min. Risk for seizure & coma if condition worsens. 5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration? a. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease b. Receiving a high osmolarity formula c. Sitting in a high-Fowler’s position during the feeding d. A residual of 65 mL 1hr postprandial Rationale ATI MS p309: Complications: Aspiration of gastric secretion Causes: Reflux of gastric fluids into the esophagus can be aspirated into the trachea. 6. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has Cushing’s disease. The nurse should expect the client to have an INCREASED in which of the following laboratory values? a. Serum glucose level- increased b. Serum calcium level-decreased c. Lymphocyte count- decreased immune system. d. Serum potassium level- decreased Rationale ATI MS PDF p518: Cushing disease→ everything is UP except Potassium & Calcium: DECREASED. 7. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. The nurse discontinues the magnesium sulfate after the client displaces toxicity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? P . 235 pharm Ch. 30 a. Position the client supine b. Prepare an IV bolus of dextrose 5% in water c. Administer methylergonovine IM d. Administer calcium gluconate IV Rationale ATI PHARM PDF p398: Calcium gluconate is given for magnesium [Show Less]
- Exam
- $13.95
- 0
- 313
ATI COMPREHENSIVE EXIT EXAM
ATI COMPREHENSIVE EXIT EXAM 1. A charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is planning assignments for a licensed practical nurse (LPN) who has been sent f... [Show More] rom the postpartum unit due to a staffing shortage for the shift. Which of the following client assignments should the nurse delegate to the LPN? a. A client who is postoperative following a bowel resection with an NGT set to continuous suction b. A client who has fractured a femur yesterday and is expecting SOB c. A client who sustained a concussion and has unequal pupils d. A client who has an Hgb of 6.3 g/dl and a prescription for packed RBCs 2. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 41 weeks of gestation and is receiving oxytocin for labor induction. The nurse notes early deceleration on the fetal heart rate monitor . Which of the following nursing actions should the nurse take? p . 88 Ch. 13 maternity a. Continue to monitor the fetal heart rate b. Stop the oxytocin infusion c. Perform a vaginal examination d. Initiate an amnioinfusion 3. A nurse is conducting an initial assessment of a client and noticed a discrepancy between the client’s current IV infusion and the information received during the shift report. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. Complete an incident report and place it in the client's medical record. b. Compare the current infusion with the prescription in the client's medication record. c. Contact the charge nurse to see if the prescription was changed. d. Submit a written warning for the nurse involved in the incident. 4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has schizophrenia and is taking clozapine. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a contraindication to the administration of clozapine ? a. WBC count 2,900 /mm3 - AGRANULOCYTOSIS - 4,800- 15,000 is normal range b. Fasting blood glucose 100 mg/dl c. Hgb 14 g/Dl d. Heart rate 58/min ATI PHARM 116 Complications 5. A nurse is caring for a client who has hyperthermia .Which of the following actions for the nurse to take? a. Submerge the adolescent feet in ice water b. Cover the adolescent with a thermal blanket → if hypothermia. c. Administer oral acetaminophen d. Initiate seizure precautions Rationale: Hyperthermia occurs when a person's body temperature rises and remains above the normal; 98.6°F Most frequently, this occurs during the heat of summer and among the elderly. However, it may also be triggered by other medical conditions or certain medications. Rapid cooling may be the single most important action to prevent death or permanent disability. To mitigate organ damage, the goal should be to reduce rectal temperature to below 40°C within 30 minutes of beginning cooling therapy. The question does not indicate whether it is malignant hyperthermia which could have been caused by a medication. The question simply asks that the person has hyperthermia. 6. A nurse manager is updating protocols for belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include? a. Document the client's conditions every 15 minutes b. Attach the restraints to the beds side rails c. Request a PRN restraints prescription for clients who are aggressive d. Remove the client restraints every 4 hours 7. A nurse in emergency department is caring for a [Show Less]
- Exam
- $13.95
- 0
- 233
ATI RN Comprehensive Exam Review
ATI RN Comprehensive Exam Radiation implant precautions = * Private room with radiation sign * Wear dosimeter film badge * Limit visitors to 30 min ... [Show More] and to remain 6ft away from the patient * Keep lead container in room and tongs * No pregnant ladies or anyone under the age of 16 should come into contact with the patient Discharge teaching for a patient who is going home with HIV/AIDS = * Good hygiene & frequent hand washing * Avoid crowds * Avoid cleaning litter boxes * Avoid raw foods such as veggies or meats Adolescent nutrition = 1300mg of calcium Priority nursing care for a patient who has been sexually assaulted = Assess their anxiety Identifying a need for hearing evaluation = * Absence of talking by 7 months * Uses gestures rather than talking by 15 months * Speaks in monotone * Speaks loudly for the situation Compartment syndrome = client with cast and has white extremity (6 P’s assessment) NG placement in the Jejunum = X-ray How should you confirm the placement of an NG tube = Aspirate gastric contents (pH less than 4) Methylphenidate patient teaching = It's Ritalin, so take once daily in the morning Simvastatin reaction that you report to the MD = Muscle aches/pain (rhabdomyolysis) Diabetic foot care patient teaching = Cut toe nails straight across, No lotion between toes, wear clean socks made of cotton or wool Where should you insert a peripheral catheter = Distal veins in the non-dominant hand Who receives Rhogam = an O- women following a spontaneous abortion Losartan adverse effect = Angioedema Patient teaching for dabigatran = Report bleeding (it's an anticoagulant) Pacemaker teaching = Take pulse at same time each day & report if HR is less than 5bpm below the pacemaker rate, Report dizzy, fatigue, hiccups or palpitations EKG that has no P wave, has a wavy baseline and increased HR = Atrial fibrillation Newborn genetic screening = Heel-stick test done 24 hours after birth and the infant must be fed within those 24 hours for accurate results Acupuncture contradiction: Herpes Zoster What medication is given for an ectopic pregnancy = Methotrexate Washing hands for a patient who is immunosuppressed = use chlorohexidine Betamethasone causes Hyperglycemia in the mom & Hypoglycemia in the neonate Betamethasone = used to promote fetal lung maturity NG Tube feeding = suction gas residuals every 4 hours. A client who has a history of domestic abuse = discuss an escape plan Cleansing a radiation area = Clean with mild soap or water, Avoid use of powders/lotions/creams Furosemide & gentamicin drug interaction causes = Kidney problems & dehydration What can you expect after ECT treatments = Temporary short term memory loss When a group strep B culture is obtained during the 35-36 week of gestation and is positive, what do you do = Administer penicillin every 4 hours during labor List some ways to prevent or treat supine hypotension syndrome = Left-lateral side lying, Semi-fowlers, Wedge under one hip while supine [Show Less]
- Exam
- $13.45
- 0
- 258
Purchase the bundle to get the full access instantly
- 3 Million+ Study Documents
- 100% Money Back Guarantee
- Immediate Download Access
Add To Cart
Reviews 0
Bundle Details
$26.95
- Trusted by 800,000+ Students
- 24/7 Money Back Guarantee
- Download is directly available
215
0
Seller Details
