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APEA TEST EXAM COMPILATION BUNDLE
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APEA HxAssessment_MensHealth Questions and ANSWERS 2023
When examining the scrotum in a young male child, test the cremasteric reflex by: scratching the medial aspect of the thigh A 33 year old male pres... [Show More] ents for examination because of a scrotal complaint. The exam reveals the presence of 2 testicles and palpable tissue resembling a "bag of worms" over the left testicle. When in the supine position with the scrotum elevated, the "bag of worms" disappears. This condition is suggestive of a: varicocele of the spermatic cord During assessment of a 3-month-old, an incomplete descent of the left testicles into the scrotum is noted. The practitioner understands that: testicles should descend by 6 months of age A 40-year-old male states that he felt "something" above his left testis. On examination, a painless cyst is noted above the left testicle. Transillumination is consistent with a: spermatocele of the epididymis When screening for bladder cancer in a primary care setting, the test that would be LEAST appropriate is: cystoscopy When the scrotum is transilluminated in a 4-month-old boy, it lights up brightly. This finding may be consistent with: a hydrocele The prostate is assessed by: a digital rectal examination (DRE) Undescended testicle(s) in a young male is termed: cryptorchidism When palpating the prostate gland during the rectal exam, the prostate feels tender, swollen, "boggy", and warm. This finding is consistent with: acute bacterial prostatitis When palpating the prostate gland during the rectal exam, the prostate feels enlarged and non-tender. This finding is consistent with: benign prostatic hyperplasia A 26-year-old man with a past medical history of sickle cell disease arrives at the office with complaints of a penile erection that has lasted 4 hours. He is experiencing symptoms of: low flow priapism When examining the prostate gland the examiner should inform the patient that this procedure may: prompt an urge to urinate What is the most common non-skin cancer in America? Prostate cancer A 30-year-old man is seen in the clinic for complaints of scrotal irritation, bilateral testicular pain, and enlarged lymph nodes in the groin that began 2 weeks after having unprotected intercourse. This subjective history describes: epididymitis A 30-year-old man who has a history of heart disease will present with which symptom related to the development of arteriosclerosis? Erectile dysfunction Which examination finding is defined as a congenital ventral displacement of the meatus on the penis? Hypospadias When assessing for the presence of a direct inguinal hernia in a man, the practitioner should palpate for a distinct bulge while instructing the patient to: cough [Show Less]
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APEA 3P EXAM Prep Neuro Questions and Answers 2023
A patient who is 82 years old is brought into the clinic. His wife states that he was working in his garden today and became disoriented and had slurred sp... [Show More] eech. She helped him back into the house, gave him cool fluids, and within 15 minutes his symptoms resolved. He appears in his usual state of health when he is examined. He states that although he was scared by the event, he feels fine now. How should the nurse practitioner proceed? Prescribe an aspirin daily. Re-examine him tomorrow. Send him to the emergency department. Order an EKG. This patient likely suffered a transient ischemic attack. He needs urgent evaluation with head CT and/or MRI, ECG, lab work (CBC, PTT, lytes, creatinine, glucose, lipids and sedimentation rate); possible magnetic resonance angiography, carotid ultrasound, and/or transcranial Doppler ultrasonography. He is at increased risk of stroke within the first 48 hours after an event like this one. On initial evaluation, the most important determination to be made is whether the etiology of the stroke or TIA is ischemic or hemorrhagic. After this determination, treatment can begin. Unfortunately, this determination cannot be made in the clinic. The patient needs urgent referral to a center where this evaluation and possible treatment can be performed. The most common presenting sign of Parkinson’s disease is: muscular rigidity. tremor. falling. bradykinesia. Approximately 70% of patients with Parkinson’s disease have tremor as the presenting symptom. The tremor typically involves the hand but can involve the legs, jaw, lips, tongue. It seldom involves the head. Muscular rigidity and bradykinesia are two less common presenting signs. When should medications be initiated in a patient who is diagnosed with Parkinson’s disease? As soon as the disease is diagnosed When symptoms interfere with life’s activities When nonpharmacologic measures have been exhausted After MRI and CT have ruled out stroke or tumor The medications used to treat patients who have Parkinson’s disease do not prevent the progression of the disease. Therefore, it is not necessary to start medications until symptoms interfere with the patient's quality of life. Levodopa is often used initially at the lowest dose that helps a patient manage symptoms. It can be titrated upward as needed. Orthostatic hypotension is a common side effect of levodopa, so blood pressure should be monitored closely. A 72-year-old patient with history of polymyalgia rheumatica complains of new onset, unilateral headache and visual changes. Her neurologic exam is otherwise normal. Her CT results are WNL. ESR is 75 (Normal: 0-29). VS: BP 140/82, HR 67, RR 18, T 100. What is the most likely reason for her symptoms? Transient ischemic attack Temporal arteritis Meningitis CVA Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a chronic inflammatory condition that produces morning stiffness in the neck, shoulders, and hips. Its peak incidence is 70-80 years old. PMR is commonly associated with temporal arteritis, also known as giant cell arteritis. Temporal arteritis is a chronic vasculitis of the medium and large vessels. Temporal arteritis is characterized by new onset unilateral temporal headache, abrupt onset of visual disturbances, elevated sedimentation rate, jaw claudication, and unexplained fever. This is best diagnosed by temporal artery biopsy. She should be referred to neurology for evaluation today. What recommendation should be made to an older adult who is diagnosed with mild dementia? Driving will probably not increase your risk of an accident. The healthcare provider should recommend that the patient stop driving today. The healthcare provider should recommend assessment of driving to determine risk of an accident. The patient may continue to drive as long as he feels comfortable. Dementia independently increases the risk of motor vehicle accidents if the patient drives. The healthcare provider should discuss this with the patient and a family member if a family member is present during the older adult’s evaluation. Depending on the degree of impairment, the healthcare provider could recommend stopping driving, or recommend that an assessment be done. The assessment is usually completed by either an occupational or physical therapist or someone trained to assess this. A person with 20/60 vision: is legally blind. will have difficulty reading a newspaper. will be unable to see the big “E” on the eye chart. has better vision than someone with 20/80 vision. Using the Snellen nomenclature for describing visual acuity (example 20/80), the first number represents the test distance. In most cases this is 20 feet. The second number represents the distance at which the average eye can see the letters on a specific line of the chart. In other words, the examinee can see at 20 feet what an average eye (20/20) can see at 80 feet. 20/80 is a measure of distant vision, not near vision such as reading a newspaper. The big “E” represents 20/200 vision. 20/200 is considered legally blind by most standards. A patient reports a history of transient ischemic attack (TIA) 6 months ago. His daily medications are lisinopril, pravastatin, and metformin. After advising him to quit smoking, what intervention is most important in helping to prevent stroke in him? Auscultation of carotid arteries at each visit Taking low dose aspirin daily Assessing hemoglobin A1C every 3-6 months Encouraging smoking cessation at each visit Antiplatelet therapy, usually aspirin, inhibits the enzyme cyclooxygenase and reduces thromboxane A2 production, which stimulates platelet aggregation. Thus, risk of ischemic stroke is reduced. The dosage of aspirin needed to prevent an event is debatable. Most studies found that 75-150 mg daily was as effective in preventing stroke as was higher doses. Lower doses of aspirin are associated with less GI toxicity and fewer side effects. A 75-year-old is diagnosed with essential tremor. What is the most commonly used medication to treat this? Carbidopa Long-acting propanolol Phenobarbital Gabapentin Tremor is the most common of all movement disorders and essential tremor is the most common cause of all tremors. It is characterized by rhythmic movement of a body part, commonly the hands or head. Beta blockers are the most commonly used medication class to treat essential tremor. Propanolol is the most commonly used medication, but other beta blocking agents are used as well. Both gabapentin and phenobarbital are used, but, not nearly as often. Carbidopa is used in patients with Parkinson’s disease. A patient who had an embolic stroke has recovered and is performing all of her activities of daily living. Taking aspirin for stroke prevention is an example of: primary prevention. secondary prevention. tertiary prevention. quaternary prevention. The patient is taking aspirin to prevent recurrent stroke. Research demonstrates that taking an aspirin daily can significantly reduce the risk of subsequent strokes and MI. Secondary prevention means that the intervention is performed to prevent another occurrence of the deleterious event. If she had never had a stroke but took aspirin daily for prevention of stroke, that would be primary prevention. Taking aspirin at home during the course of having an MI is an example of tertiary prevention. There is no reference in the literature to quaternary prevention. An older adult patient with organic brain syndrome is at increased risk of abuse because she: lives in a nursing home. has multiple caregivers. is incontinent of stool and urine. has declining cognitive function. Older adults are at increased risk of abuse because of their decline in cognitive function. Caregiver strain, stress, and depression occur at higher rates than in the general population. According to the National Center of Elder Abuse, family members are likely to be abusers of infirm older adults. Healthcare providers should remain alert to signs of abuse and caregiver stress. A patient with migraine headaches and hypertension should receive which medication class with caution? Beta blockers Triptans Pain medications ACE inhibitors The class of medications called “triptans” work to eradicate migraine headaches by producing vasoconstriction. This can produce a potentially serious drug-disease interaction in patients with hypertension. An episode of severe hypertension can result. Triptans may be used in patients with well-controlled hypertension, but a hypertensive episode is always possible. A patient who is 60 years old complains of low back pain for the last 5-6 weeks. She states that the severity is about 4/10 and that she gets no relief from sitting, standing, or lying. The NP should consider: sciatica. ankylosing spondylitis. disk disease. systemic illness. Systemic illness, like cancer or infection, is a serious consideration when patients report no relief of pain with position change. Additionally, this patient is female, older, and has had pain longer than 4 weeks. These are three risk factors for systemic cause of low back pain. Sciatica presents with pain that radiates down the leg. Ankylosing spondylitis is typical in males in their 40s and produces pain at nighttime that is improved with being upright. Disk disease is a consideration, but, an absence of relief with lying down is unusual. A patient complains of severe right-sided facial pain. She states that her symptoms have worsened over the past 48 hours. Which diagnosis below is NOT part of the differential diagnosis? Bell’s palsy Trigeminal neuralgia Tooth abscess Shingles Bell’s palsy does not produce pain. It usually produces symptoms over several hours. Common symptoms include sagging eyebrow, an impaired eye blink or the inability to blink the eye on the affected side, and mouth drawn up on the affected side. The facial nerve, Cranial Nerve VII, is affected in patients who present with Bell’s palsy. Trigeminal neuralgia (TN) is a common cause of facial pain characterized by paroxysmal electric shock like pains. TN involves the Cranial Nerve V (trigeminal nerve). A patient has developed loss of hearing over the past several weeks. His otoscopic exam is normal. What cranial nerve should be assessed? Cranial Nerve III Cranial Nerve V Cranial Nerve VIII Cranial Nerve X Cranial Nerve (CN) VIII is the CN responsible for hearing. When assessing CN VIII, each ear should be assessed individually. The Weber and Rinne tests can be used to distinguish between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss. A 68-year-old smoker with a history of well-controlled hypertension describes an event that occurred yesterday while mowing his lawn. He felt very dizzy and "passed out" for less than 1 minute. He awakened spontaneously. Today, he has no complaints and states that he feels fine. Initially, the NP should: perform a complete neurological and cardiac exam with auscultation of the carotid arteries. order a 12-lead ECG and carotid ultrasound, and perform a physical exam. order a CT of the brain, blood clotting studies, and cardiac enzymes. check blood pressure in three positions, order a 12-lead ECG, and schedule an exercise stress test. The event described is syncope. Syncope is a brief and sudden loss of consciousness that occurs with spontaneous recovery. This is a significant event but it is especially so in a smoker with hypertension. The assessment of this patient must start with an examination of the cardiac and neurological systems. Based on the findings and tentative diagnosis of syncope, coupled with the patient’s history of the event, other tests might be ordered to evaluate arrhythmias, stroke, transient ischemic attack, myocardial infarct, carotid stenosis, other vascular etiologies. A referral to specialty care is indicated after initial workup by the nurse practitioner. Which characteristic is true of tension headaches, but not of cluster headaches? Cluster headaches are always bilateral. Tension headaches are always bilateral. Cluster headaches always cause nausea. Tension headaches cause photosensitivity. Cluster headaches are always unilateral. The affected side produces a red, teary eye with nasal congestion on the affected side. Nausea and photosensitivity are common. Tension headaches are always bilateral with no nausea or photosensitivity associated with them. Which condition listed below does NOT impact an elder’s ability to eat? Stroke Parkinson’s disease Dysphagia Hyperlipidemia Many, many diseases impact an elder patient’s ability to eat. About 50% of patients who have had stroke have impaired ability to eat. This can include difficulty feeding self as well as difficulty swallowing. Parkinson’s disease and many other neurological diseases have great impact on eating, since coordinated muscle movement is needed for swallowing and feeding. Hyperlipidemia has no significant impact on a patient’s ability to eat. [Show Less]
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Peds (APEA) Questions and Answers 2023
Hep A immunization schedule First dose at 1 year, second dose after 6 months Hep B immunization schedule 3 doses: 0, 1-2 months, 6-18 months after... [Show More] 1st You are caring for a newborn whose mother is known to be HBsAg (+). How should this be handled? Administer Hep B vaccine and Hep B immunoglobulin within 12 hrs of birth How many doses are in the DTaP series? 5 Tdap in pregnancy 1 dose of tdap during each pregnancy, preferably at 27-36 wks PCV vaccine amount 4 doses Fever or rash after receiving a live attenuated immunization indicates? Reaction to a viral replication, not the vaccine Examples of live attenudated vaccines MMR Varicella MMR and varicella immunization schedule At 12 months (can be on the same day), then must wait one month for second Earliest age to receive flu vaccine >6 months A mother reports that her one year old child has an allergy to eggs that produces hives. How should this be handled? Influenza vaccine should be given Is it ok to give influenza to a patient who has experienced an allergic reaction and signs of angioedema, respiratory distress? Yes, under the supervision of a HCP who can manage severe allergic reactions A 15 year old patient who is sexually active is in your clinic to receive her first HPV vaccine. How should the NP handle this? Administer today without checking pregnancy status CDC recommends monitoring a child after immunization for: 15 mins When is diabetes usually diagnosed in kids? During puberty Managing ADHD preschool v. school-age Preschool: behavioral School-age: stimulant medication At what age are meds considered first line for kids with ADHD? 6 years old Is PNA in kids usually viral or bacterial? Viral What is the most sensitive sign of PNA in kids? Increased RR Preferred treatment for kids diagnosed with PNA? Amoxicillin 90 mg/kg/day in divided doses Biggest symptom found in kids with bronchiolitis? Paroxysmal wheezing Symptoms of croup Inspiratory stridor Barking cough Hoarseness Med for croup Single dose of oral dexamethasone (0.6 mg/kg) Two systems affected by cystic fibrosis Pulmonary & GI How to test for cystic fibrosis Sweat test Symptom associated with cystic fibrosis Thick mucous with productive cough Lead toxicity masqueredes as... iron deficiency anemia What is an abnormally high billirubin for an infant? > 25 Newborns with hyperbilirubinemia are at risk for? Neurological dysfunction When does billirubin peak? 3-4 day Colic symptoms "rule of 3" crying for > 3 hours occurs > 3 days/wk > 3 months of age At what age are symptoms of pyloric stenosis most likely to occur? 4-6 wks Signs of pyloric stenosis Projectile vomiting immediately after eating Olive-like mass What imaging study is used to diagnose pyloric stenosis? US Interventions for GER None, unless "red flags" Intussusception Sudden onset of crampy abdominal pain Surgical emergency Currant jelly stools Encopresis Involuntary soiling of stool in child Underlying problem is constipation Screen & assess for psych issues Laxatives given for initial cleansing Viral gastroenteritis > 3 watery/loose stools in 24 hours What is a collection of peritoneal fluid in the scrotum? Hydrocele When should hydrocele resolve? Before 12 months [Show Less]
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Hematology (APEA) Questions and Answers 2023
Anemia is defined as reduction in one or more RBC measurements: RBC count Hgb Hct Lab value to look at size of RBC MCV Lab value to look ... [Show More] at color of RBC MCH Lab value to look at degree of variation of RBC size (<15% is normal) RDW Why would the bone marrow make small RBC? Not enough iron Iron lab values Serum iron Serum ferritin TIBC Serum iron Measure of iron in circulation Serum ferritin Measure of iron in storage TIBC (total iron-binding capacity) Reciprocal relationship to iron count Peripheral smear Visual description of RBC Should always be considered when a patient presents with anemia Reticulocytes Immature RBC Usually about 1% Indicates ability of bone marrow to produce RBC Microcytic anemia examples Iron deficiency anemia Thalassemia Iron deficiency anemia: what type & clinical presentation Microcytic hypochromic Young-adults: fatigue, weakness, headache, exercise intolerance Older-adults: worsening symptoms of another disease How to tell the difference between IDA and thalasemmia? Serum iron and ferritin will be low and TIBC will be high in IDA How much elemental iron does a person need daily for IDA and for how long? 150-200 mg daily for 4-6 months What is the most well-tolerated iron source? Ferrous sulfate What normal lab values indicates that iron supplementation may be stopped? Serum ferritin level What kind of anemia is anemia of chronic disease and why? Normocytic, normochromic RBC life is shortened Best way to treat anemia of chronic disease? Better control of underlying chronic disease Macrocytic anemia examples B12 deficiency Folate deficiency Symptoms and causes of B12 and folate anemias Often asymptomatic May present with neuro symptoms Often older adults, malnourished, alcohol abuse, bariatric surgery patients Multiple melanoma: What is it? Symptoms Labs Affects plasma cells Fatigue, weakness, bone pain Proteinuria, hypercalcemia, normocytic anemia Hemophilia A: What is it? Factor VIII deficiency aPTT prolonged Gold standard test to diagnosis hemoglobinopathies: Hemoglobin electropheresis Pernicious anemia: What is it? Treatment Autoimmune disorder stops intrinsic factor production (necessary for vit B 12 absorption) Tx: B12 injection every week x 4 wks, injection once a month for life Aplastic anemia: What is it? Gold standard test Destruction of cells in bone marrow results in pancytopenia Bone marrow biopsy Hemochromatosis: What is it? Labs Treatment Total body iron overload High ALT/AST, ferritin Phlebotomy When will Hgb/Hct return to normal after treatment? 1-2 wks will starting increasing 4-8 wks back to normal Vit B12 vs. folate deficiences B12 will cause nerve damage MCV < 80 Microcytic MCV > 80 Macrocytic [Show Less]
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Gastrointestinal APEA Questions and Answers 2023
Positive Murphy's sign pain felt when taking a deep breath when the examiner's fingers are on the approximate location of the inflamed gallbladder ... [Show More] Murphy's sign pain with palpation of the RUQ during inspiration, indicative of cholecystitis McBurney's point Pain in RLQ with appendicitis McBurney's sign rebound tenderness associated with appendicitis Gold standard diagnostic tool for gallbladder disease Ultrasound The harder the gallbladder works, the _________ it gets. Thicker Muscle becomes bigger causing thickening What could cause dilated loops of bowel? Obstruction What diagnostic test determines level of obstruction? CT Name the initial diagnostic test for suspected divirtuculitis CT abd Which antibiotics treat diverticulitis? Flagyl and cipro What protects the lining of the stomach from the acid within it? Prostaglandins True negative Specificity True positive Sensitivity What class of medications work the quickest to relieve GERD? antacids How long to antacids last? 30 minutes What class of medications decrease acid production? H2 antagonists How long do H2 antagonists work? 6-12 hours How long does it take for H2 antagonists to work? 60-120 minutes Name some examples of H2 antagonists Cimetidine (Tagamet) Ranitidine (Zantac) * pulled off market Famotidine (Pepcid) Nizatidine (Axid) What class of medications reduce gastric secretion? PPIs How long to prescribe PPIs 4-8 weeks If symptoms return after PPI trial? EGD Name some examples of PPIs Omeprazole (Prilosec) Lansoprazole (Prevacid) Rabeprazole (Aciphex) Esomeprazole (Nexium) Pantoprazole (Protonix) Do Bulk laxatives cause dependence? Name a few. NO psyllium (metamucil) methylcellulose (citrucel) Fibercon What might bloody noctural diarrhea indicate? Inflammatory bowel disease Name 2 inflammatory bowel diseases chrons and ulcerative colitis How to diagnose ulcerative colitis colonoscopy Symptoms of IBD (inflammatory bowel disease) bloody diarrhea, fatigue, fever, abdominal pain adenomatous polyps 1. Most common neoplasm of the intestine 2. Benign neoplasms coming from the intestinal epithelium 3. Most cases of colorectal cancer begin as adenomatous colonic polyps Hyperplastic polyps a benign polyp of the colon How long does it take a polyp in the colon to become cancerous? 10 years How often is a FIT recommended? Annually How often is the cologuard recommended 1-3 years What is the gold standard for colon cancer screening? colonoscopy What lab measures the liver integrity? AST/ALT What lab measures the synthetic activity of the liver? PT/Albumin What lab measures the excretory function of the liver? Bilirubin, ALP What could an elevation of the AST/ALT indicate? Liver injury hepatitis NAFLD Acute liver failure What could an elevation of the ALP indicate? Bone disease liver disease obstructed bile ducts What could an elevation in the bilirubin indicate? Red cell destruction liver disease bile duct obstruction gilberts disease What could an elevated PT/INR indicate (in the setting of abnormal LFTs) Cirrhosis, cancer of the liver Where is bilirubin stored? In the RBC What happens to the bilirubin when the RBC dies? It spills out of the RBC What happens with the spilled bilirubin from the dead RBC? The liver grabs it to recycle it. It the liver is sick, it cant catch all of the bilirubin, thus the bilirubin levels build up. The alkaline phosphatase (ALP) will be elevated in patients that present with issues such as- prostate cancer (poss mets to bone) causing bone breakdown= elevation in ALP and old adults that have potential/likely bone breakdown and slowed regeneratioin In viral hepatitis will the AST or ALT usually be higher? ALT Which forms of hepatitis causes chronic hepatitis? B,C,D IgM vs IgG IgM: antibody in INITIAL immune response; IgG: antibody in REPEATED exposure to the same antigen First immunoglobulin during acute infection- IgM Immunoglobulin produced when immune (after infection is gone) IgG What does it mean if + anti-HAV IgG Immune What does it mean if + anti-HAV IgM Infected (acute) - anti HAV IgM and - IgG no infection, no immunity. consider vax HBsAg What does it mean? hepatitis B surface antigen Infected! Current or past anti-HBs Hepatitis B surface antibody indicates immunity to HBV, either natural or vaccinated anti-HBc Totally hepatitis B core antibody. Indicates current or previous infection. IgM anti-HBc acute hep B BUT ... ** can persist 3-6 month or more and reappear with flare-ups of chronic hep B Zollinger-Ellison syndrome Gastrin-secreting tumor associated with ulcers of the stomach or duodenum Symptoms in infant including olive shaped mass located in the RUQ abdomen, projectile vomiting after eating, weight loss, irritability, dehydration. Pyloric stenosis How is pyloric stenosis diagnosed? abdominal ultrasound Rovsing's sign palpation of the left lower quadrant causes right lower quadrant pain that may indicate appendicitis celiac disease an inherited autoimmune disorder characterized by a severe reaction to foods containing gluten Antigliadin antibodies Celiac disease Which NSAID do less damage to the GI tract? WHy? Celecoxib (Celebrex) Because the only block COX 2 (they are selective nsaid) McBurney's point Pain in RLQ with appendicitis Which GI disruption causes diarrhea and is common among backpackers, campers? Giardiasis What is the incubation period of giardias? 7-14 days How long do the symptoms of giardiasis last? 2-4 weeks Treatment of Giardiasis - Tinidazole: 80-100% cure rate - Metronidazole: metallic taste with n/v - Nitazoxanide: no bitter taste so take with food to avoid GI upset [Show Less]
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Derm APEA Questions and Answers 2023
Pediculosis capitis RX 1. 1% permethrin (Nix) - most effective Macule 2 - Flat - Change in skin color Papule 4 - Raised - Solid lesion ... [Show More] - Change is skin color - <0.5cm Plaque (3) - Raised - Solid - >0.5 cm Nodule (2) - Solid - 0.5-2cm Tumor (2) - Solid - >2cm Vesicle - Raised - Fluid - <0.5cm Bulla - Raised - Fluid - >0.5cm Abscess= furuncle= boil Deep skin infection of the hair follicle Confluent or Coalescen Multiple lesions blending together Reticular Pattern Netlike pattern Lichenification Skin thickening usually found over pruritic or friction area Annular Ring formation Cellulitis Description SX (7) - Acute infection of the skin - SX: redness, edema, warm, fever & pain on the face of legs *puss= MRSA Cellulitis: TX Without purulence & With 1. MSSA - Cephalexin (Keflex) - Cefadroxil -Clindamycin* 2. MRSA I&D 1st line THEN - TMP-SMX - Clindamycin* - Teracycline - Linezolid x5-10 days Folliculitis Description Classic presentation Etiology RF TX - Superficial OR deep infection/irritation of the hair follicles. - Follicullar pustules or papules on hair-bearing areas - Staph most common - Shaving, tight jeans, poor hygiene - Bacroban small area OR Keflex for large Carbunculosis: Description Deep coalescence lesions of several inflamed follicles that form a purulent mass Carbunculosis TX (2) 1. I& D 2. Consider Abx if fever or systemic sx present or initial tx failed (TMP-SMX) Impetigo Description TX - Superficial infection of the skin that begins as small superficial vesicles. Vesicles rupture and form honey-colored crusts. (Bullous and nonbullous) - Topical for small Oral for Large; Mupirocin (Bactroban) or retapamulin (Altabax) BID x 5 days * children should avoid school until 48 hrs after abx or until bolsters become dry Ecthyma: Description TX - It is a deep form of impetigo; characterized by crusted sores beneath which ulcers form (Affects butt, thighs, legs, ankle, feet) RX MSSA= - dicloxacillin - cephalexin OR MRSA= - doxycycline - clindamycin - TMP-SMX Bites (cat, dog, human) TX (5) 1. Copious Irrigation 2. Cautious debridement 3. Leave wound open (unless on face) 4. Tetanus/Rabies 5. Abx prophylaxis 4. RX for Cat Bite Prophylaxis - Augmentin 3-5 days - PCN allergy use doxycycline Tinea capitis - Head - TX = oral Griseofulvin RX 4-6 wks Tinea Corporis - Body - Topical "conazole" creams x 2wks *Clotrimazole-Betamethasone Cream 1-0.5% BID *hydroxyzine for itching Tinea cruris - Jock (man) - Topical "conazole" creams x 2 weeks Tinea pedis - Feet - Topical x 6 weeks Tinea unguium - Fingernail/Toe - Oral 6-8 weeks plus Topical (Ciclopirox) 48wks QD Pityriasis Versicolor - Axilla, shoulders, chest, back (sebum rich areas) - Well marginated lesions in varying colors, rare itching, lesions do not tan! - Ketaconazole 2% Shampoo (leave on 5mins)x 1 or Selenium sulfide 2.25% Shampoo (leave on 10min) x 7days Description of fungal infection -Central clearing -Circular plaque -Oval Patch -Annular Ring -Dry, erythematous scales *Hyphae or buds under microscope Herpes Zoster: Description - A reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus (chickenpox virus) that has lain dormant in nerve cells. - This involves the skin of a single dermatome or less commonly, several dermatomes. Herpes Zoster: Prodrome SX - 1-10 days - Itching Burning Photophobia Herpes Zoster: Acute Phase - 3-4 days - Maculopapular rash which progresses to grouped vesicles on an erythematous base, and then pustules in 3-4 days. Successive crops of vesicles may appear for a week Herpes Zoster: Convalescent Phase - Within 2-3 weeks, rash resolves - Pain (burning, throbbing, or stabbing) Herpes Zoster: Complications - Postherpetic neuralgia is pain >1m after rash has resolved. Common in older adults Herpes Zoster: Shingrix - >50 - 2 IM doses 2-6months apart - Non-attuniated - Contraindicated: Pregnancy, severe immunocompromised - Highly effective Herpes Zoster: Transmission Patients who have shingles are not able to transmit shingles to other susceptible patients. They may only transmit the chickenpox virus to susceptible patient Herpes Zoster: TX (2) Refer 1. Antiviral (<72hr of sx or if new lesions appear >72hr) x 7 days high dose 2. Analgesics; NSAIDS or narcotics for severe pain, topical lidocaine 3. Urgent consultation of ophthalmologist for dermatomes involving the eye* or send to ER * Prophylactic oral corticosteroids have not shown to prevent the development of PHN: 3-week tapering dose may modestly reduce duration of pain and neurologic involvement Herpes Zoster: Expected course - Resolution of acute phase usually 14-21 days - Postherpetic neuralgia may last for months Lyme Disease: Description - Complex, multisystem disease transmitted by the Ixodid tick* - Tick must be attached for 36-48hrs before transmission (groin, armpit, scalp) Lyme Disease: SX - Erythema migrans (60-80%) - Presents as a targetoid lesion or "bull's eye rash" - Headache, malaise - Fever - Myalgias, arthralgias Lyme disease DX* 2-Tired 1. Step 1: ELISA/EIA; if positive or indeterminate, preform 2. Step 2: Western blot; IgG or IgM antibodies Lyme Disease: RX Prevention Stage 1 (2) - Doxycycline 200mg single dose - Doxycycline 100mg BID for 21days OR Amoxicillin BID for 21 days; Ceftin 500mg BID 14 days Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever: Etiology SX - Bacterial infection transmitted by a tick Rickettsia rickettsii bacteria (early spring & summer) - Petechial rash to wrist and ankles followed by palms/soles*(Incubation phase 6-7 days before rash) - Doxycycline Cat Scratch Disease SX Etiology TX - Subacute tender* lymphadenitis that develops after contact with a cat (kitten) - Bartonella henselae bacteria TX - Analgesics - Resolves 2-6 months w/out treatment. Abx are for the compromised! Pityriasis Rosea: Description - Idiopathic, self-limiting skin disorder characterized by papulosquamous lesions distributed over the trunk and extremities. [Show Less]
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Men's Health APEA Questions and Answers 2023
What is the urological assessment scale used to assess severity of prostate symptoms american urologic assessment symptom score Name the 7 question... [Show More] s used to assess prostate symptoms frequency nocturia weak stream hesitancy intermittence incomplete emptying urgency 0= not present 5= almost always present total score mild-0-7 moderate- 8-19 severe 20-35 what should the prostate feel like firm, smooth, symmetrically enlarged gland what are the major causes of an elevated psa bph, prostate cancer, prostate infection how long does it take for psa to reduce after ejaculation 24 hours what does an alpha blocker do? cause blood vessels to dilate; lowering blood pressure--also treats BPH what is an example of an alpha blocker flomax (tamusulosin) alpha blocker action Stimulates central alpha receptors which decrease sympathetic outflow from the CNS, causing a decrease in peripheral vascular resistance and a slight decrease in cardiac output. Used for mild-to-moderate HTN where are alpha receptors prevalent prostate base of bladder prostate capsule prostatic uretha alpha adrenergic antagonists ______ bladder outlet obstruction decrease Name the alpa adrenergic antagonists terazosin (hytrin) tamsulosin (flomax) doxazosin (cardura) How do 5-alpha reductase inhibitors work? Blocks testosterone and reduces the size of the prostate by up to 50% how long does it take for 5-alpha reductase inhibitors to work 6-12 months Name the 5 alpha reductase inhibitors Finasteride (Proscar) Dutasteride (Avodart) How do PDE5 inhibitors work? Selective inhibition of PDE5 Maintains cGMP levels in the penis Maintains elevated pressure and impaired venous outflow in corpus cavernosum Erection is harder and lasts longer Name the PDE-5 inhibitors Sildenafil (viagra) Varenafil Tadalafil (Cialis) use caution with flomax for those with a ______ allergy sulfa which alpha blockers require renal/hepatic adjustment silodosin (rapaflo) needs renal and hepatic adjustment flomax does not require adjustment acute prostatitis Acute inflammation of the prostate usually due to bacteria what usually causes prostatitis sti gram neg organisms such as e coli, chlamydia gonorrhea assessment findings of prostatitis fever chills pelvic, perineal pain enlarged, boggy, tender prostate cloudy urine frequency urgency pain with defacation hematuria elevated psa why should gently prostate exam be performed with suspected prostatitis risk of bacteremia uncomfortable what abx to use in protatitis TMPS cipro levo X 6 weeks! if STI, treat for STI Treatment of prostatitis ABX antipyretics NSAIDS stool softeners Adequate fluid intake should see improvement in 2-6 days, if not refer to urologist when should PSA rescreening be done after acute prostatitis 1 month after treatment how common is prostate cancer 1 in 6 will be diagnosed with it, 1 in 36 will die from it, second most common form of cancer in men (after skin cancer), second most common cause of cancer death (after lung cancer) name the risk factors for prostate cancer black race 65 yoa or older family history brca mutations prostate cancer screening reduces mortality but absolute risk reduction is- small begin prostate cancer screening at age- (based on mutual decision) 50 high risk for prostate cancer screen at age- 40-45 only screen if life expectancy is > ____ 10 years what will flomax do to the psa falsely lower check baseline psa prior to med initiation! normal PSA less than 4 ng/mL PSA > ____ requires biopsy 10 scrotal tenderness with bowel sounds in the scrotum- inguinal hernia how are inguinal hernias most commonly diagnosed physical exam How is an inguinal hernia treated? surgery direct hernia inguinal hernia protruding through hesselbach triangle medial to inferior epigastric vessels testicular torsion twisting of the spermatic cord causing decreased blood flow to the testis presentation of testicular torsion Severe, sudden onset pain *No fever or pyuria* Testis is swollen and tender absent ipsilateral (same side) cremaster reflex!! tender, high riding testical how quick must testicular torsion be corrected 4-6 hours irreversible damage after 12 hours cremaster reflex Stroke inner thigh will cause the scrotum to move the testes closer to the body what ages are impacted mostly by testicular cancer 15-35 YO [Show Less]
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APEA practice exam #3 Questions and Answers 2023
When providing anticipatory guidance to adolescents aged 15-19 years, the topic that has the MOST potential to decrease the mortality rate is: a. the prev... [Show More] ention of STDs b. safety precautions to prevent accidents (unintentional injuries) c. the avoidance of alcohol and substance abuse d. weight loss and increasing physical activity c. the avoidance of alcohol and substance abuse which of the following statements is NOT correct about the removal of impacted cerumen from a patient's ear? A. A relative contraindication to cerumen removal is the inabilitv to visualize the ear canal. B- Topical cerumenolytic agents are contraindicated in children with impacted cerumen. C- A contraindication to irrigation is the presence or history of a perforated tympanic membrane D- A relative contraindication to the use of visually directed microsuction is very hard cerumen D- A relative contraindication to the use of visually directed microsuction is very hard cerumen A 50-year-old woman with diabetes complains of bilateral pain in her lower legs while walking. The pain disappears at rest. On physical examination, the nurse practitioner would expect to find: A- an increase in the ankle-brachial index. B- diminished pedal pulses, cool, dry skin, and atrophied calf muscles C- normal nail growth and muscle density. D- thickened toenails and skin below the knee with brownish discoloration A- an increase in the ankle-brachial index./ B- diminished pedal pulses, cool, dry skin, and atrophied calf muscles A 66-year-old patient experiences a sudden onset of lethargy. What is the most likely cause of these signs and symptoms! A - Dementia B- Delirium C- Bipolar disorder D- Atypical seizure activity B. delirium A 13-year-old boy presents with an erythematous raised lesion on his left forearm. Examination reveals lymphadenopathy of his left axilla with palpable tender and firm lymph nodes. His temperature is 102° F and has been between 101° F and 103° F for the past 4 days. He complains of a headache and feeling tired for the past few days. The nurse practitioner suspects a moderate to severe case of cat scratch A- inform the mother that treatment is not necessary since the disease is self-limiting B- prescribe corticosteroids to reduce the inflammation C- prescribe a 5-day course of azithromycin D- refer the patient tor lymph node aspiration C- prescribe a 5-day course of azithromycin The nurse practitioner suspects temporomandibular joint (IM) disorder in a patient. As the patient slowly opens and closes the lower jaw, the nurse practitioner palpates the TMJ, which is A- anterior to the mastoid process B- anterior to the tragus. C- at the styloid process under the ear. D- at the angle of the jaw B- anterior to the tragus. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents for follow up. He reports stopping salmeterol (Serevent), a long-acting beta agonist (LABA), because he didn't like how his heart raced after using it. The nurse practitioner could consider switching to: A- a long-acting muscarinic antagonist LAMA). B.a different long-acting beta agonist. C- a combination LAMA/LABA. D- an inhaled corticosteroid. A- a long-acting muscarinic antagonist LAMA). Which drug class is MOST effective in the treatment of very high triglyceride levels (hypertriglyceridemia) >650 mg/dL? A- Bile acid sequestrants B- Nicotinic acid C- Fibrates D- HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors C. Fibrates Test-of-cure for patients with a diagnosis of gonorrhea should be performed if the patient is treated with: A- the recommended treatment and the infectious site is urogenital. B- the recommended treatment and the infectious site is rectal. C- an alternative treätment and the infectious site is rectal. D- an alternative treatment and the infectious site is pharyngeal. D- an alternative treatment and the infectious site is pharyngeal In order to promote duress but reduce the possibility or hypokalemia, the best combination of diuretics is A- furosemide (Lasix) and bumetanide Bumex). B - spironolactone (Aldactone) and hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrazide). C- hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrazide) and furosemide (Lasix). D- bumetanide (Bumex) and hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrazide). B - spironolactone (Aldactone) and hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrazide). In addition to a microcytic anemia, patients with beta thalassemia may present with: A- jaundice. B- masked facies C-lymphadenopathy. D- hypercalcemia. A.. jaundice A diagnosis of depression is MOST likely in the older adult who: A- responds to affection from family. B- prefers to stay at home C- retains humor. D- accepts assistance and care B. prefers to stay at home A patient presents with complaints of diarrhea and malaise that began at 2:00 am. The nurse practitioner diagnoses viral gastroenteritis and tells the patient to return for worsening or unresolving symptoms after: A-12 hours B- 48 hours C- 5 days D- davs B. 48 hours Screening tests for idiopathic scoliosis in adolescent boys should be performed as early as: A - 8 years of age. B- 10 vears or age C -12 years of age. D - 14 years of age. B. 10 years of age The three most common and characteristic symptoms of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease are: A- wheezing, chest tightness, and exertional dyspnea. B- paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, wheezing, and cough. C- dyspnea, chronic cough, and sputum production. D- chronic dry cough, wheezing, and dyspnea. C- dyspnea, chronic cough, and sputum production. The mother of a 16-year-old high school student athlete is concerned that her daughter has not had a menstrual period yet. On physical examination, the nurse practitioner finds normal growth and development, including appropriate secondary sexual characteristics. What Is the most appropriate nurse practitioner action? A- Refer to a endocrinologist. B- Order a pelvic ultrasound C- Attempt a progesterone challenge D- Prescribe an oral contraceptive. B. order a pelvic ultrasound A caregiver is planning the weekly meals for an older adult with a history of diverticulosis. Which of the following foods should NOT be on the menu A - Eggs B- Bran cereal C- Yoqurt D- brown rice I answered brown rice but not sure A patient presents with complaints of urinary incontinence. Urinary tract infection has been rule out. Which of the following circumstances does NOT warrant referral to a specialist? A- Pelvic pain B- Microscopic hematuria C- Increased sensation of bladder fullness D - Persistently increased postvoid residual C- Increased sensation of bladder fullness A middle-aged woman complains of insomnia, night sweats, feeling intensely hot, emotional lability, extreme nervousness, and impatience. The LEAST likely cause of her symptoms iS: A - thyrotoxicosis. B- menopausal vasomotor InstabIlity. C- alcohol or other drug withdrawal. D- new onset Tvpe 2 diabetes mellitus. D. new onset of type 2 diabetes mellitus [Show Less]
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APEA 3P Exam Prep- Cardiovascular Questions and answers 2023
Which patient could be expected to have the highest systolic blood pressure? A 21-year-old male A 50-year-old perimenopausal female A 35-year-old ... [Show More] patient with Type 2 diabetes A 75-year-old male D. Nearly 25% of the US population has hypertension. The greatest incidence is in older adults because of changes in the intima of vessels as aging and calcium deposition occur. Males of any age are more likely to be hypertensive than females of the same age. African American adults have the highest incidence in the general population. Among adolescents, African Americans and Hispanics have the highest rates. Hypertension occurs in 5-10% of pregnancies. Mrs. Brandy is having contrast dye next week for a heart catheterization. What drug does NOT need to be stopped prior to her catheterization? Naproxen Furosemide Metformin Losartan D. Naproxen and furosemide should be stopped for 24 hours prior to the catheterization. Metformin should be stopped 48 hours prior to the catheterization. Furosemide is stopped because it contributes to volume depletion. NSAIDs like naproxen are withheld because of the impact on renal prostaglandin production. Metformin has been implicated in lactic acidosis when combined with contrast dye in an impaired kidney. In older adults, the three most common ailments are: hearing loss, vision loss, hypertension. hearing loss, hypertension, arthritis. depression, vision loss, hypertension. arthritis, hearing loss, depression. B. Hypertension and arthritis are the two most common ailments in older adults. Hearing loss occurs in half to almost 2/3 of older adults. The most common form is known as presbycusis. There is no consensus for the frequency of screening for hearing loss in older patients, but minimally, it should be grossly evaluated at each visit and screened more thoroughly if deficits are observed. Blood pressure should be screened annually, but it is usually screened at each visit. Arthritis is not routinely screened. Mr. Holbrook, a 75-year-old male, is a former smoker with a 30-pack-year history. He has come in today for an annual exam. He walks daily for 25 minutes, has had intentional weight loss, and has a near-normal BMI. On examination, the patient is noted to have an absence of hair growth on his lower legs. Which statement is true regarding this patient? This is a normal consequence of aging. This might indicate disease in the lower extremities. It might be from exercise initiation. This is secondary to long-term smoking. B. An absence of hair growth likely indicates peripheral artery disease in this patient. It is part of normal changes of aging that hair growth will diminish, but not become absent. His lower extremity pulses should be assessed, his cardiac risk factors should be assessed (he smoked for years), and he should be questioned about leg pain when he walks. An ankle-brachial index could be measured. If < 0.9, further assessment should be done. A normal ankle-brachial index should be greater than 0.9. Less than 0.4 is considered critical. The usual clinical course of mitral valve prolapse: is benign. results in sudden cardiac death. results in chronic heart failure. is associated with multiple episodes of emboli. A. The usual course of mitral valve prolapse (MVP) is benign, and most patients who have MVP are asymptomatic. A murmur may be present and is best auscultated with the diaphragm of the stethoscope over the cardiac apex. In a minority of patients, symptoms of heart failure or sudden death may occur. When heart failure results, it is usually a result of mitral regurgitation. Embolization may occur, but, this is not common or usual in the majority of patients. An ACE inhibitor is specifically indicated in patients who have: hypertension, diabetes with proteinuria, and heart failure. diabetes, hypertension, hyperlipidemia. asthma, hypertension, diabetes. renal nephropathy, heart failure, hyperlipidemia. A. ACE inhibitors have numerous indications. Three are indicated in the first choice. ACE inhibitors are also indicated in patients who have renal insufficiency. However, ACE inhibitors can worsen renal insufficiency, so the patients must be monitored closely with lab tests for BUN, Cr, and potassium. Diabetes without proteinuria is not a specific indication for ACE inhibitors use, though they are used by some healthcare providers in this way. This is an off-label use. An older adult who has hypertension and angina takes multiple medications. Which one of the following decreases the likelihood of his having angina? ACE inhibitor Beta blocker Diuretic Angiotensin receptor blocker B. The beta blocker slows down heart rate, depresses myocardial contractility, and decreases sympathetic stimulation. These decrease myocardial oxygen demand and improve angina symptoms. It is an excellent drug class to use to prevent symptoms of angina in patients who have underlying coronary artery disease. Calcium channel blockers are another class of medications that could be used to improve symptoms of angina. Orthostatic hypotension can be diagnosed in an older adult if the systolic blood pressure decreases: more than 20 points anytime after rising. more than 20 points within 3 minutes after rising. more than 20 points within 1 minute after rising. any degree drop if the patient becomes weak or dizzy. B. Orthostatic hypotension, also called postural hypotension, is diagnosed in older adults when the systolic blood pressure drops 20 mm Hg or more within 3 minutes of moving to a more upright position. Systolic blood pressure can be expected to decrease within one minute of moving to an upright position. Normally, the blood pressure returns to baseline within one minute of a position change and orthostatic hypotension does not occur. It is always abnormal when blood pressure decreases beyond one minute of moving to an upright position. Orthostatic hypotension can then be diagnosed. Moving to an upright position may be 1) lying to sitting or 2) sitting to standing. Additionally, if the systolic blood pressure does not meet these criteria, but the diastolic drops by 10 mm Hg or more with a position change, orthostatic hypotension can be diagnosed. Patients become symptomatic when this occurs and often report lightheadedness, weakness, dizziness, blurred vision, or decreased hearing. Which hypertensive patient is most likely to have adverse blood pressure effects from excessive sodium consumption? 21-year-old Asian American male 35-year-old menstruating female 55-year-old post menopausal female 70-year-old African American male D. Two groups of patients typically experience adverse blood pressure effects from consumption of sodium greater than 2,000 mg daily. Those patients considered to be most sodium-sensitive are elderly patients and African American patients. Thus, choice d is the best choice listed. A patient who takes HCTZ 25 mg daily has complaints of muscle cramps. He probably has: hypocalcemia. hypomagnesemia. hypokalemia. hypercalcemia. C. HCTZ is a thiazide diuretic that is potassium-wasting. Patients can become hypokalemic and experience side effects of this. A common one is muscle cramps. A 25-year-old patient has aortic stenosis (AS). The etiology of his AS is probably: congenital. rheumatic. acquired calcific. unknown. A. In someone younger than 65 years, the most likely cause is congenital. The aortic valve usually consists of three cusps, but some people are born with a bicuspid aortic valve. Rheumatic heart disease is the second most common cause of aortic stenosis in this age group, but the incidence has decreased drastically in the last many decades because of the use of antibiotics to treat Streptococcal infections. In more than 90% of patients older than 65 years, acquired calcifications appear on a normal aortic valve and produce aortic stenosis. [Show Less]
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APEA GASTRO QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2023
Metoclopramide (Reglan), an antiemetic, increases gastric motility by: blocking dopamine and serotonin receptors and enhancing the action of acetylcholine... [Show More] The class of medications most useful in the tx of chemo induced nausea and vomiting is the: Serotonin receptor antagonists-5-HT3 receptors antagonists ending in -setron The length of tx for oral metoclopramide should not exceed: 12 weeks, for adult use only, risk the development of tardive dyskinesia For pts who didn't respond to an initial course of triple therapy for H. pylori, an alternate regimen should be prescribed. It would include a PPI &: Metronidazole & tetracycline The following medication should not be administered concomitantly with clopidogrel (Plavix): Omeprazole (Prilosec)-reduces the effect of Plavix by blocking the conversion to its active form The most commonly reported side effect of metronidazole and clarithromycin combination therapy for H. pylori is: metallic taste H. pylori is naturally resistant to: Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) Which of the following medications is classified as n antihistamine and a phenothiazine? Promethazine (Phenergan) In addition to metoclopramide (Reglan), another prokinetic drug used to improve gastric motility is: Erythromycin base (Ery-tab)-enhance emptying the stomach and/or gut and enhance the contractions of the gut The plasma elimination half-life of esomeprazole (Nexium) is: 1-1.5 hours Promethazine (Phenergan) should not be used in children younger than 2 years due to: respiratory depression-1st gen antihistamine A pt who has failed 2 courses of therapy for H. pylori should: Receive reinforced education about compliance with meds-often times the cause of tx failure Rabeprazole (Aciphex), used in the tx of reflux, is classified as a(n): PPI The brand name for famotidine is: Pepcid Pts should be advised to remove the scopolamine patch if an adverse reaction occurs, such as: Confusion Which therapy should be initiated in a pt with moderate C. dif infection who has failed to respond to tx with metronidazole (Flagyl)? Oral vancomycin-indicated for the tx of initial episode of mild to mod infection Scopolamine (Transderm-Scop) is indicated for the tx of nausea and vomiting associated with: Motion sickness Promethazine (Phenergan), a 1st gen antihistamine, is contraindicated in the presence of: Asthma Oral promethazine used for the tx of nausea and vomiting should be administered as needed every: 4 hours The scopolamine patch should be applied: Behind the ear Corticosteroids, used in the tx of ulcerative colitis, usually do NOT: Increase the effectiveness of antibiotics-decreases effectiveness The brand name for esomeprazole is: Nexium The antibiotics in triple therapy for the tx of H. pylori should be administered: Twice daily Corticosteroids, used in the tx of ulcerative colitis, are produced by the: Adrenal glands Ondansetron (Zofran) dosage should be adjusted in pts: With hepatic impairment-5-HT3 receptor antagonists dose limited in hepatic impairment Anticholinergic agents reduce nausea and vomiting by antagonizing the: Muscarinic receptors The brand name for prochlorperazine maleate is: Compazine Infliximab (Remicade), a tumor necrosis factor inhibitor, is: Used to tx Crohn's disease in children Lubiprostone (Amitiza), used in the tx of chronic constipation, is contraindicated in pts who have: Suspected mechanical bowel obstruction The brand name for metoclopramide, an antiemetic, is: Reglan Which of the following medications used for the tx of GERD works by neutralizing hydrochloric (HCl) acid in the stomach to rapidly increase gastric pH? Calcium carbonate (Tums) The medication class indicated for the intermittent (on-demand) relief of mild gastroesophageal reflux is: antacids Side effects related to transdermal scopolamine may include: Urinary retention Oral metoclopramide is contraindicated in the patient diagnosed with: Epilepsy Which of the following is NOT a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist? Prochlorperazine (Compazine) The brand name of pantoprazole is: Protonix [Show Less]
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