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ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY
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Anatomy and Physiology openstax Test Bank (28 Chapters)
An Introduction to the Human Body 1. is the study of the larger structures of the body, those visible without the aid of magnification (A) Gross anatomy ... [Show More] (B) Microscopic anatomy (C) Macroscopic anatomy (D) Physical anatomy Ans A Diff Easy Page 8 2. The word “anatomy” comes from a Greek root that means “ ’’ (A) To cut apart (B) To fix with (C) To view inside (D) To study exterior Ans A Diff Easy Page 8 3. Dissection is still used in …………. (A) Medical schools (B) Pathology labs (C) Anatomy courses (D) All of above Ans D Diff Easy Page 8 4. Microscopic anatomy includes …………. (A) Histology (B) Cytology (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C Diff Easy Page 8 5 is the study of the structures that make up a discrete body system—that is, a group of structures that work together to perform a unique body function. (A) Regional anatomy (B) Systematic anatomy (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C Diff Easy Page 9 6. Human physiology is the scientific study of the of the structures of the body and the ways in which they work together to support the functions of life. (A) Chemistry (B) Physic (C) Both Above (D) None of Above Ans C Diff Medium Page 9 7. Homeostasis is the state of steady maintained by living things. (A) Internal Condition (B) External conditions (C) Both Above (D) None of Above Ans A Diff Easy Page 9 8. An organ is an anatomically distinct structure of the body composed of tissue types. (A) One (B) Two (C) Two or more (D) None of above Ans C Diff Easy Page 11 9. In organisms, including humans, all cells, tissues, organs, and organ systems of the body work together to maintain the life and health of the organism. (A) Unicellular (B) Bicellular (C) Multicellular (D) None of above Ans C Diff Easy Page 14 10. The different organ systems each have different functions and therefore roles to perform in physiology. (A) Unique (B) Different (C) Both Above (D) None of Above Ans C Diff Easy Page14 .........................................................................................................................................................................................................................CONTINUE. [Show Less]
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ATI RN COMP PREDICTOR QUESTIONS
A nurse in a provider’s office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. The nurse should identify that which of the following sexually ... [Show More] transmitted infections is a nationally notifiable infectious disease that should be reported to the state health department? A. Chlamydia *15.) A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets with a respiratory rate of 10/min. After securing the client’s airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse do next? B. Administer flumazenil to the client. *24.) A charge nurse on a med-surg unit is planning assignments for a LPN who has been sent from another unit due to a staffing shortage. Which of the following clients should the nurse delegate to the LPN? C. A client who is post-op following a bowel resection with an NG tube set to continuous suction. 31.) A hospice nurse is visiting with the son of a client who has terminal cancer. The son reports sleeping very little during the past week due to caring for his mother. Which of the following responses should the nurse make? A. “I can give you info about respite care if you are interested.” 31.) A nurse is assessing a child who is being treated for bacterial pneumonia. The nurse notes an increase in the child’s glucose. The nurse should identify this finding as an adverse effect of which of the following medications? A. Methylprednisolone 37.) A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? B. FHR baseline 170/min 39.) A nurse in a mental health unit is planning room assignments for four clients. Which of the following clients should be closest to the nurse’s station? C. A client who has depressive disorder and reports feeling hopeless. 47.) A nurse is admitting a client who has schizophrenia and experiences auditory hallucinations. The client states “It’s hard not to listen to the voices.” Which of the following questions should the nurse ask the client? D. “What helps you ignore what you are hearing?” 51.) A nurse is working with a client who has an anxiety disorder and is in the orientation phase of the therapeutic relationship. Which of the following statements should the nurse make during this phase? B. “We should establish our roles in the initial session.” 56.) A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is 14 weeks of gestation about findings to report to the provider. Which of the following findings should the nurse include in the teaching? C. swelling of the face 60.) A nurse is reviewing the lab report of a client who has been taking lithium carbonate for the past 12 months. The nurse notes a lithium level of 0.8mEq/L. Which of the following orders from the provider should the nurse expect? D. administer the medication 71.) A nurse is receiving chang-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first? B. a client who has a hip fracture and new onset tachypnea 72.) A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of IBS. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include? A. consume food high in bran fiber 73.) A nurse is caring for a 1-day-old newborn who has jaundice and is receiving phototherapy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? C. ensure the newborn wears a diaper 74.) A nurse is teaching a group of newly licensed nurses about client advocacy. Which of the following statements by a newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching? B. “I will intervene if there is a conflict between a client and his provider.” 77.) A nurse is caring for an infant who has coaction of the aorta. Which of the following should the nurse identify as an expected finding? A. weak femoral pulses 80.) A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the adverse effects of sertraline. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include? A. excessive sweating 90.) A nurse overhears two APs discussing care for a client while in the elevator. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? D. report the incidence to the AP’s charge nurse 91.) A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care C. check the vascular access site for bleeding after dialysis .........................................................................................................................................................................................................................CONTINUE. [Show Less]
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Burns and Grove's The Practice of Nursing Research: Appraisal, Synthesis,
MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which best describes evidence-based-practice (EBP)? a.A combination of best research evidence, clinical expertise, and the needs a... [Show More] nd values of patients. b.A determination of the factors necessary to control patient responses to care. c.The development of population care guidelines applicable to all patients. d.The utilization of quantitative and qualitative studies to enhance patient outcomes. ANS: A Feedback AEvidence-based practice evolves from the integration of the best research evidence with clinical expertise and patient needs and values. BStudies that attempt to find determinants of patient outcomes are generally experimental or quasi-experimental. They may be used to guide EBP but do not completely define it. CEBP is a combination of guidelines and specific patient needs and values. DQuantitative and qualitative studies applied to the evaluation of patient outcomes are part of EBP but do not completely define EBP. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive level: Remembering (Knowledge) REF: MCS: 3 2. The nurse is collecting data about the sleep patterns of breastfed babies as part of a larger research study. Which research method will the nurse use when collecting data for this study? a.Control b.Description c.Explanation d.Prediction ANS: B Feedback AControl can be described as the ability to write a prescription to produce the desired outcome. B Description involves identifying and understanding the nature of nursing phenomena and the relationships among these phenomena. C Explanation clarifies the relationships among phenomena and identifies why certain events occur. D Through prediction, the probability of a specific outcome can be estimated in a given situation. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive level: Understanding (Comprehension) REF: MCS: 6 3. The nurse is participating in a study and is collecting data identifying the number of obese adults whose parents were also obese or overweight. Which research method is being used in this study? a.Control b.Description c.Explanation d.Prediction ANS: D Feedback AControl indicates the ability to use a prescribed intervention to produce a desired outcome. BDescription involves identifying and understanding the nature of nursing phenomena and the relationships among these phenomena. CExplanation clarifies the relationships among phenomena and identifies why certain events occur. DThrough prediction the probability of a specific outcome can be estimated in a given situation. By knowing the percentage of parents of obese adults who were obese, the probability of predicting this may be calculated. PTS:1DIF:Cognitive level: Applying (Application) REF: pp. 7-8 4. The nurse reviews a study in which adherence to an asthma action plan is compared among groups of adolescents who received different asthma education. Which research method does this represent? a.Control b.Description c.Explanation d. Prediction ANS: C Feedback A Control indicates the ability to use a prescribed intervention to produce a desired outcome. B Description involves identifying and understanding the nature of nursing phenomena and the relationships among these phenomena. C Explanation clarifies the relationships among phenomena and identifies why certain events occur. D Through prediction, the probability of a specific outcome can be estimated in a given situation. PTS:1DIF: Cognitive level: Applying (Application) REF: MCS: 7 5. A nurse manager is interested in learning which attitudes among staff nurses may indicate relative risk of needle-stick injuries. To study this, the nurse manager will employ which method of study? a.Control b.Description c.Explanation d.Prediction ANS: D Feedback AControl indicates the ability to use a prescribed intervention to produce a desired outcome. BExplanation clarifies the relationships among phenomena and identifies why certain events occur. CDescription involves identifying and understanding the nature of nursing phenomena and the relationships among these phenomena. DThrough prediction, the probability of a specific outcome can be estimated in a given situation. PTS:1DIF:Cognitive level: Applying (Application) REF: pp. 7-8 6. Which is the most important result of Florence Nightingales data collection and statistical analysis during the Crimean War? a.Bringing awareness of the rigors of war to the general public. b.Developing a process for statistical analysis and nursing documentation. c.Identifying and defining the role of nurses in modern health care. d.Using clinical research to evaluate the importance of sanitation, clean drinking water, and adequate nutrition. ANS: D Feedback AThis was not the most important result BThis was not the most important result CThis was not the most important result DNightingales research enabled her to instigate attitudinal, organizational, and social changes, including the militarys approach to the care of the sick and societys sense of responsibility for testing public water, improving sanitation, and preventing starvation to decrease morbidity and mortality rates. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive level: Understanding (Comprehension) REF: MCS: 11 7. The nurse participates in data collection in a study in which two different pain management protocols are used with randomly assigned patients to measure differences in postoperative recovery time. Which method of study is this? a.Control b.Correlation c.Description d.Explanation ANS: A Feedback AControl indicates the ability to use a prescribed intervention to produce a desired outcome. BCorrelation examines the relationships between different phenomena. CDescription involves identifying and understanding the nature of nursing phenomena and the relationships among these phenomena. DExplanation clarifies the relationships among phenomena and identifies why certain events occur. PTS:1DIF:Cognitive level: Applying (Application) REF: MCS: 8 8. The development of nursing theories and conceptual models in the late 1960s and 1970s served to: a.determine the effectiveness of nursing interventions. b.establish the concept of evidence-based practice. c.provide funding for nursing research. d.provide direction for nursing research. ANS: D Feedback AOutcome studies are used to determine the effectiveness of nursing interventions. BThe concept of EBP was developed in the 1970s and promoted by the ANCC Magnet Designation program. CThe NINR seeks to provide funding for nursing research. DThe theories developed in the 1960s and 1970s helped to direct future nursing research. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive level: Understanding (Comprehension) REF: pp. 11-12 9. Under Ada Sue Hinshaw, the National Institute of Nursing Research (NINR) began to change its focus to: a.funding nursing rather than medical research. b.evaluating outcomes rather than process studies. c.increasing the status and funding for nursing research. d.supporting the dissemination of nursing research. ANS: C Feedback AThe change in focus from medical to nursing research came about with the first nursing programs. Specialty nursing organizations today and some nursing researchers still conduct medical research for specific studies. BOutcomes research emerged in the 1980s and 1990s to document the effectiveness of health care services. CUnder Ada Sue Hinshaw, the national Center for Nursing Research (NCNR) changed its name to the NINR to increase the status and funding of nursing research. DThe NCNRs purpose was to support the dissemination of nursing research. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive level: Remembering (Knowledge) REF: pp. 12-13 10. An emphasis of the American Nurses Credentialing Center (ANCC) Magnet Hospital Designation Program for Excellence in Nursing is: a.research and development of clinical practice guidelines. b.putting qualitative research into practice in clinical settings. c.using standard nursing care plans based on outcomes research. d.utilizing evidence-based practice in nursing. ANS: D Feedback AClinical practice guidelines are a more recent phenomenon, using evidence-based research, expert opinion, and patient needs and values to standardize care. BQualitative research was introduced in the late 1970s to gain insight into the phenomena related to nursing. COutcomes research was important in the 1980s to 1990s to document the effectiveness of health care services. DANCC implemented the Magnet Hospital Designation Program for Excellence in Nursing Service in 1990 that emphasized EBP for nursing. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive level: Remembering (Knowledge) REF: pp. 12-13 .........................................................................................................................................................................................................................CONTINUE. [Show Less]
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NCLEX RN STUDY GUIDE
Measles TB Varicella-Chicken Pox/Herpes Zoster-Shingles Private Room: Negative pressure with 6-12 air exchanges/hr Mask: N95 for TB Sepsis Scar... [Show More] let fever Streptococcal Pharyngitis (Streptococcus group A/ Strep Throat): Can Lead to Glomerulonephritis & Rheumatic Fever. Pneumonia Influenza/ Haemophilus influenza type B Diphtheria (Pharyngeal): Serious bacterial infection. Epiglottitis: Medial Emergency! No Throat Inspection. 2 NCLEX RN STUDY GUIDE Rubella/ German measles Mumps Meningitis/ Neisseria Meningitidis Mycoplasma/ Meningeal Pneumonia An - Adenovirus Private Room or Cohort Surgical mask PRN for Procedures Mask 3ft Distance Multidrug resistant organism/ MRSA/ VRE Respiratory infection Skin infections Wound infection Enteric infection - Clostridium Difficile Eye infection – Conjunctivitis *MRSA - Contact precaution ONLY. Use Chlorhexidine Wipe! *VRSA - Contact & Airborne precaution (Private room, door closed, negative pressure) *SARS (Severe Acute Resp Syndrome) Airborne & Contact (just like Varicella) Varicella Zoster Cutaneous Diphtheria (Bacteria Infection in the Wound) Herpes Simplex Impetigo (Bacterial Skin Infection) Pediculosis (Lice) Scabies (Itchy Skin condition. Burrowing Trail of the Scabies Mite) 3 NCLEX RN STUDY GUIDE Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS): Viral respiratory illness caused by Coronavirus (MERS-CoV). S/S: Fever, Cough, SOB, and Death. The Incubation Period is 5-6 days but can range from 2-14 days. CDC: Standard (Gloves), Contact (Gown), Eye Protection (Goggles), Airborne Precautions (N95) room: Negative disease (TB, Disseminated Herpes Zoster) room: Protect the Patient (HIV, Cancer) Addison’s= hyponatremia, hypotension, decreased blood vol, hypoglycemia, hyperKalemia, HyperCalcemia. Cushing’s= HyperNatremia, HyperTension, Incr. Blood Vol, HyperGlycemia, hypokalemia, hypocalcemia. Managing Stress in a patient with Adrenal Insufficiency (Addison’s) is paramount, because if the Adrenal glands are stressed further it could result in Addisonian Crisis. Addison’s: Remember BP is the most Important assessment parameter, as it causes Severe Hypotension. Addison’s: (need to "add" hormone): Hypoglycemia, Dark pigmentation, Decr. Resistance to Stress, fractures, Alopecia, Weight Loss, GI distress. Vitiligo. Mood swings (Normal) Need to Report S/S of Infection/ Fever (Addisonian Crisis) Tx: Mineral Corticoids. Addisonian Crisis: Hypoglycemia, Confusion, n/v, Abd Pain, Extreme Weakness, Dehydration, Decr. BP. Cushings: (have extra "Cushion" of Hormones): Hyperglycemia, prone to Infection, Muscle Wasting, Weakness, Edema, HTN, Hirsutism, Moonfaced/Buffalo Hump Cause: Excessive production of Corticotropin (Hyperplasia of the Adrenal Cortex) & Cortisol-secreting Adrenal Tumor. Prednisone Toxicity: Cushing’s syndrome- Buffalo Hump, Moon face, Hyperglycemia, Hypertension. Acetaminophen: 10-20. Max 4000mg per day. 4 NCLEX RN STUDY GUIDE Acetaminophen Poisoning: Possible Liver Failure for about 4 days. Close observation required. Tx: (Antidote) n-AcetylCysteine/Mucomyst AcetylSalicyclic Acid (ASA): Metabolic Acidosis. S/S: Tinnitus, Coffee Ground Emesis (Old Blood), Black tarry stools (Melena), Bruising, Tachycardia, Hypotension, GI Ulcers. Tx: Activated Charcoal, then IV Na+ Carbonate. Acromegaly: Coarse Facial feature. Assess Cardiac Problems (eg. S3, S4). Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS): The 1st Sign is Incr. Respirations. Later comes Dyspnea, Retractions, Air Hunger, Cyanosis. Cardinal sign is Hypoxemia (Low O2 level in tissues). Refractory Hypoxemia is the hallmark of ARDS, a progressive form of acute respiratory failure that has a high Mortality rate. It can develop following a Pulmonary Insult (eg, aspiration, pneumonia, toxic inhalation) or nonpulmonary insult (eg, sepsis, multiple blood transfusions, trauma) to the Lung. The Inability to improve Oxygenation With Incr. in O2 concentration. The insult triggers a Massive Inflammatory response that causes the lung tissue to release inflammatory mediators (leukotrienes, proteases) that cause damage to the alveolar-capillary (A-C) membrane. As a result of the damage, the A-C membrane becomes more permeable, and intravascular fluid then leaks into the alveolar space, resulting in a Noncardiogenic Pulmonary Edema. The lungs become Stiff and Noncompliant, which makes Ventilation and Oxygenation less than optimal and results in increased work of breathing, tachypnea and alkalosis, atelectasis, and refractory hypoxemia. ARDS (fluids in alveoli), DIC (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation) are always Secondary to something else (another disease process). – Impaired Gas Exchange. 5 NCLEX RN STUDY GUIDE PreOxygenated with 100% O2, and Suction should be applied for no more than 10 seconds to prevent hypoxia. The nurse must wait 1-2 minutes between passes to ventilate to prevent hypoxia. Deep reBreathing should be encouraged. The Suction catheter should be No more than half the width of the artificial airway and inserted without suction. Don Sterile gloves if it is not have a closed suction system. Suction should be set at Medium Pressure (100-120 mm Hg for adults, 50-75 mm Hg for children) as Excess pressure will traumatize the mucosa and can cause hypoxia. Clients usually Cough as the catheter enters the trachea, and this helps loosen secretions. The catheter should be advanced until resistance is felt and then, to prevent mucosal damage, Retracted 1 cm before applying suction. You will ask every New Admission if he has an Advance Directive, and if not you will explain it, and he will have the option to sign or not. .......................................................................................................................................................................................................................CONTINUE. [Show Less]
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NCLEX RN STUDY GUIDE
Measles TB Varicella-Chicken Pox/Herpes Zoster-Shingles Private Room: Negative pressure with 6-12 air exchanges/hr Mask: N95 for TB Sepsis Scar... [Show More] let fever Streptococcal Pharyngitis (Streptococcus group A/ Strep Throat): Can Lead to Glomerulonephritis & Rheumatic Fever. Pneumonia Influenza/ Haemophilus influenza type B Diphtheria (Pharyngeal): Serious bacterial infection. Epiglottitis: Medial Emergency! No Throat Inspection. 2 NCLEX RN STUDY GUIDE Rubella/ German measles Mumps Meningitis/ Neisseria Meningitidis Mycoplasma/ Meningeal Pneumonia An - Adenovirus Private Room or Cohort Surgical mask PRN for Procedures Mask 3ft Distance Multidrug resistant organism/ MRSA/ VRE Respiratory infection Skin infections Wound infection Enteric infection - Clostridium Difficile Eye infection – Conjunctivitis *MRSA - Contact precaution ONLY. Use Chlorhexidine Wipe! *VRSA - Contact & Airborne precaution (Private room, door closed, negative pressure) *SARS (Severe Acute Resp Syndrome) Airborne & Contact (just like Varicella) Varicella Zoster Cutaneous Diphtheria (Bacteria Infection in the Wound) Herpes Simplex Impetigo (Bacterial Skin Infection) Pediculosis (Lice) Scabies (Itchy Skin condition. Burrowing Trail of the Scabies Mite) 3 NCLEX RN STUDY GUIDE Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS): Viral respiratory illness caused by Coronavirus (MERS-CoV). S/S: Fever, Cough, SOB, and Death. The Incubation Period is 5-6 days but can range from 2-14 days. CDC: Standard (Gloves), Contact (Gown), Eye Protection (Goggles), Airborne Precautions (N95) room: Negative disease (TB, Disseminated Herpes Zoster) room: Protect the Patient (HIV, Cancer) Addison’s= hyponatremia, hypotension, decreased blood vol, hypoglycemia, hyperKalemia, HyperCalcemia. Cushing’s= HyperNatremia, HyperTension, Incr. Blood Vol, HyperGlycemia, hypokalemia, hypocalcemia. Managing Stress in a patient with Adrenal Insufficiency (Addison’s) is paramount, because if the Adrenal glands are stressed further it could result in Addisonian Crisis. Addison’s: Remember BP is the most Important assessment parameter, as it causes Severe Hypotension. Addison’s: (need to "add" hormone): Hypoglycemia, Dark pigmentation, Decr. Resistance to Stress, fractures, Alopecia, Weight Loss, GI distress. Vitiligo. Mood swings (Normal) Need to Report S/S of Infection/ Fever (Addisonian Crisis) Tx: Mineral Corticoids. Addisonian Crisis: Hypoglycemia, Confusion, n/v, Abd Pain, Extreme Weakness, Dehydration, Decr. BP. Cushings: (have extra "Cushion" of Hormones): Hyperglycemia, prone to Infection, Muscle Wasting, Weakness, Edema, HTN, Hirsutism, Moonfaced/Buffalo Hump Cause: Excessive production of Corticotropin (Hyperplasia of the Adrenal Cortex) & Cortisol-secreting Adrenal Tumor. Prednisone Toxicity: Cushing’s syndrome- Buffalo Hump, Moon face, Hyperglycemia, Hypertension. Acetaminophen: 10-20. Max 4000mg per day. 4 NCLEX RN STUDY GUIDE Acetaminophen Poisoning: Possible Liver Failure for about 4 days. Close observation required. Tx: (Antidote) n-AcetylCysteine/Mucomyst AcetylSalicyclic Acid (ASA): Metabolic Acidosis. S/S: Tinnitus, Coffee Ground Emesis (Old Blood), Black tarry stools (Melena), Bruising, Tachycardia, Hypotension, GI Ulcers. Tx: Activated Charcoal, then IV Na+ Carbonate. Acromegaly: Coarse Facial feature. Assess Cardiac Problems (eg. S3, S4). Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS): The 1st Sign is Incr. Respirations. Later comes Dyspnea, Retractions, Air Hunger, Cyanosis. Cardinal sign is Hypoxemia (Low O2 level in tissues). Refractory Hypoxemia is the hallmark of ARDS, a progressive form of acute respiratory failure that has a high Mortality rate. It can develop following a Pulmonary Insult (eg, aspiration, pneumonia, toxic inhalation) or nonpulmonary insult (eg, sepsis, multiple blood transfusions, trauma) to the Lung. The Inability to improve Oxygenation With Incr. in O2 concentration. The insult triggers a Massive Inflammatory response that causes the lung tissue to release inflammatory mediators (leukotrienes, proteases) that cause damage to the alveolar-capillary (A-C) membrane. As a result of the damage, the A-C membrane becomes more permeable, and intravascular fluid then leaks into the alveolar space, resulting in a Noncardiogenic Pulmonary Edema. The lungs become Stiff and Noncompliant, which makes Ventilation and Oxygenation less than optimal and results in increased work of breathing, tachypnea and alkalosis, atelectasis, and refractory hypoxemia. ARDS (fluids in alveoli), DIC (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation) are always Secondary to something else (another disease process). – Impaired Gas Exchange. 5 NCLEX RN STUDY GUIDE PreOxygenated with 100% O2, and Suction should be applied for no more than 10 seconds to prevent hypoxia. The nurse must wait 1-2 minutes between passes to ventilate to prevent hypoxia. Deep reBreathing should be encouraged. The Suction catheter should be No more than half the width of the artificial airway and inserted without suction. Don Sterile gloves if it is not have a closed suction system. Suction should be set at Medium Pressure (100-120 mm Hg for adults, 50-75 mm Hg for children) as Excess pressure will traumatize the mucosa and can cause hypoxia. Clients usually Cough as the catheter enters the trachea, and this helps loosen secretions. The catheter should be advanced until resistance is felt and then, to prevent mucosal damage, Retracted 1 cm before applying suction. You will ask every New Admission if he has an Advance Directive, and if not you will explain it, and he will have the option to sign or not. Alcohol: a Toxin that causes CNS Depression. Alcohol withdrawal generally starts within 8 hours after the last drink and peaks at 24-72 hours. Acute alcohol intoxication: Confusion, Coordination Impairment, Drowsiness, Slurred Speech, Mood Swings, and Uninhibited actions. Hypoglycemia. Chronic Alcohol Abuse/Alcoholism: Benzodiapepine (lorazepam, diazepam, chlordiazepoxide) – to Treat Gross Tremors, Seizures, Delirium symptom. Chlordiazepoxide: For Alcohol withdrawal. Don’t take with Alcohol (terrible N/V can occur) Thiamine (B1): to treat Wernicke Encephalopathy, a Serious complication that manifests as altered mental status, oculomotor dysfunction, and ataxia. Also can lead to death or neurologic morbidity (Korsakoff Psychosis). Give before or with IV Glucose. ........................................................................................................................................................................................................................CONTINUE. [Show Less]
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Studying the Nervous System
Multiple Choice 1. Which part of DNA is transcribed into messenger RNA? a. Exon b. Intron c. Promoter d. Non-coding DNA e. Regulatory DNA Answer: a... [Show More] Textbook Reference: Genetics and Genomics Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 2. Genomics is the analysis of a. coding DNA sequences for a species. b. regulatory DNA sequences for an individual organism and a species. c. coding and regulatory DNA sequences for a species. d. coding and regulatory DNA sequences for an individual organism. e. coding and regulatory DNA of an individual organism or a species. Answer: e Textbook Reference: Genetics and Genomics Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 3. Which of Camillo Golgi’s contributions enabled Santiago Ramón y Cajal to make observations that suggested that nerve cells are discrete entities? a. Articulation of the neuron doctrine b. Identifying the organelle later called the Golgi apparatus c. Development of a staining method based on impregnation with silver salts d. Improving the understanding of the pathophysiology of malaria e. Articulation of the reticular theory of nerve cell communication Answer: c Textbook Reference: Cellular Components of the Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 4. The major proponent(s) of the neuron doctrine was(were) a. Camillo Golgi. b. Santiago Ramón y Cajal. c. Charles Sherrington. d. Santiago Ramón y Cajal and Charles Sherrington. e. Camillo Golgi and Santiago Ramón y Cajal. Answer: d Textbook Reference: Cellular Components of the Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 5. Which function is a characteristic primarily of neurons only, and not glia? a. Transmits action potentials b. Supports electrical signals c. Repairs the nervous system d. Prevents regeneration of the nervous system e. Produces myelin Answer: a Textbook Reference: Cellular Components of the Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 6. In which part of a neuron would most of the endoplasmic reticulum be concentrated? a. Postsynaptic terminal b. Presynaptic terminal c. Axon d. Cell body e. Dendrite Answer: d Textbook Reference: Cellular Components of the Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 7. Which intracellular component facilitates the processes of endocytosis and exocytosis underlying synaptic communication? a. Mitochondria b. Endoplasmic reticulum c. Cytoskeleton d. Golgi apparatus e. Nucleus Answer: c Textbook Reference: Cellular Components of the Nervous System Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 8. Most neurons have a. one axon hillock (initial segment). b. multiple axon hillocks (initial segments). c. one dendrite. d. one axon hillock (initial segment) and one dendrite. e. multiple axon hillocks (initial segments) and one dendrite. Answer: a Textbook Reference: Neurons Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering 9. Which statement best describes the function of a neuron with multiple, highly branched dendrites and one axon? a. It passes information directly to multiple neurons. b. It cannot integrate information from multiple neurons. c. It receives information from only one other neuron. d. It integrates information from many neurons. e. The information it receives will not be relayed. Answer: d Textbook Reference: Neurons Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 10. Which statement best describes most neurons? a. They receive information via axons. b. They transmit information to other cells via dendrites. c. They are polarized. d. They conduct signals bidirectionally. e. They transmit electrical signals via cytoplasmic continuity. Answer: c Textbook Reference: Neurons Bloom’s Level: 3. Applying 11. Compared with projection neurons, axons of local circuit neurons (interneurons) a. are longer. b. are shorter. c. have more synapses. d. have more branches. e. reach more postsynaptic neurons. Answer: b Textbook Reference: Neurons Bloom’s Level: 2. Understanding 12. An action potential is a(n) change in the electrical potential across the nerve cell membrane. a. single b. all-or-nothing c. permanent d. random e. unidirectional Answer: b Textbook Reference: Neurons Bloom’s Level: 1. Remembering ...................................................................................................................................................................................................................CONTINUE. [Show Less]
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Advanced Practice Nursing : Essentials for Role Development 4th Edition Joel Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The nurse manager of a pediatric clinic could confirm that the new nurse recognized the purpose of the HEADSS Adolescent Risk Profile... [Show More] when the new nurse responds that it is used to assess for needs related to a. anticipatory guidance. b. low-risk adolescents. c. physical development. d. sexual development. ANS: A The HEADSS Adolescent Risk Profile is a psychosocial assessment screening tool which assesses home, education, activities, drugs, sex, and suicide for the purpose of identifying high-risk adolescents and the need for anticipatory guidance. It is used to identify high-risk, not low-risk, adolescents. Physical development is assessed with anthropometric data. Sexual development is assessed using physical examination. REF: 6 OBJ: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance 2. The nurse preparing a teaching plan for a preschooler knows that, according to Piaget, the expected stage of development for a preschooler is a. concrete operational. b. formal operational. c. preoperational. d. sensorimotor. ANS: C The expected stage of development for a preschooler (3 to 4 years old) is preoperational. Concrete operational describes the thinking of a school-age child (7 to 11 years old). Formal operational describes the thinking of an individual after about 11 years of age. Sensorimotor describes the earliest pattern of thinking from birth to 2 years old. REF: 5 OBJ: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance 3. The school nurse talking with a high school class about the difference between growth and development would best describe growth as a. processes by which early cells specialize. b. psychosocial and cognitive changes. c. qualitative changes associated with aging. d. quantitative changes in size or weight. ANS: D Growth is a quantitative change in which an increase in cell number and size results in an increase in overall size or weight of the body or any of its parts. The processes by which early cells specialize are referred to asdifferentiation. Psychosocial and cognitive changes are referred to as development. Qualitative changes associated with aging are referred to as maturation. REF: 2 OBJ: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance 4. The most appropriate response of the nurse when a mother asks what the Denver II does is that it a. can diagnose developmental disabilities. b. identifies a need for physical therapy. c. is a developmental screening tool. d. provides a framework for health teaching. ANS: C The Denver II is the most commonly used measure of developmental status used by health care professionals; it is a screening tool. Screening tools do not provide a diagnosis. Diagnosis requires a thorough neurodevelopment history and physical examination. Developmental delay, which is suggested by screening, is a symptom, not a diagnosis. The need for any therapy would be identified with a comprehensive evaluation, not a screening tool. Some providers use the Denver II as a framework for teaching about expected development, but this is not the primary purpose of the tool. REF: 4 OBJ: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance 5. To plan early intervention and care for an infant with Down syndrome, the nurse considers knowledge of other physical development exemplars such as a. cerebral palsy. b. failure to thrive. c. fetal alcohol syndrome. d. hydrocephaly. ANS: D Hydrocephaly is also a physical development exemplar. Cerebral palsy is an exemplar of adaptive developmental delay. Failure to thrive is an exemplar of social/emotional developmental delay. Fetal alcohol syndrome is an exemplar of cognitive developmental delay. REF: 9 OBJ: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance 6. To plan early intervention and care for a child with a developmental delay, the nurse would consider knowledge of the concepts most significantly impacted by development, including a. culture. b. environment. c. functional status. d. nutrition. ANS: C Function is one of the concepts most significantly impacted by development. Others include sensory-perceptual, cognition, mobility, reproduction, and sexuality. Knowledge of these concepts can help the nurse anticipate areas that need to be addressed. Culture is a concept that is considered to significantly affect development; the difference is the concepts that affect development are those that represent major influencing factors (causes), hence determination of development and would be the focus of preventive interventions. Environment is considered to significantly affect development. Nutrition is considered to significantly affect development. REF: 1 OBJ: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance 7. A mother complains to the nurse at the pediatric clinic that her 4-year-old child always talks to her toys and makes up stories. The mother wants her child to have a psychologic evaluation. The nurses best initial response is to a. refer the child to a psychologist. b. explain that playing make believe with dolls and people is normal at this age. c. complete a developmental screening. d. separate the child from the mother to get more information. ANS: B By the end of the fourth year, it is expected that a child will engage in fantasy, so this is normal at this age. A referral to a psychologist would be premature based only on the complaint of the mother. Completing a developmental screening would be very appropriate but not the initial response. The nurse would certainly want to get more information, but separating the child from the mother is not necessary at this time. REF: 5 OBJ: NCLEX Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance 8. A 17-year-old girl is hospitalized for appendicitis, and her mother asks the nurse why she is so needy and acting like a child. The best response of the nurse is that in the hospital, adolescents a. have separation anxiety. b. rebel against rules. c. regress because of stress. d. want to know everything. ANS: C Regression to an earlier stage of development is a common response to stress. Separation anxiety is most common in infants and toddlers. Rebellion against hospital rules is usually not an issue if the adolescent understands the rules and would not create childlike behaviors. An adolescent may want to know everything with their logical thinking and deductive reasoning, but that would not explain why they would act like a child. Chapter 2. Emerging Roles of the Advanced Practice Nurse Test Bank Multiple Choice 1. An APRN is about to examine a patient in the emergency department. A colleague states to the APRN “This patient is probably just seeking pain medication.” Regardless of his or her colleague’s comment he or she enter the examination room and treat the patient as if he or she is trustworthy and has good motives. Which of the ten essential elements of dignity is the APRN utilizing? a. Inclusion b. Benefit of the doubt c. Acceptance of identity d. Recognition ANS: B Treating others as if they are trustworthy, starting with the premise that they have good motives and are acting with integrity are all key points of benefit of the doubt. Benefit of the doubt is one of the ten essential elements of dignity. 2. An APRN approaches his or her patients as neither inferior nor superior and gives others the freedom to express their authentic selves without being judged. Which of the ten essential elements of dignity is the APRN utilizing? a. Safety b. Accountability c. Acceptance of identity d. Benefit of doubt ANS: C The acceptance of identity is one of the ten essential elements of dignity. Approaching people as neither inferior nor superior to you, giving others the freedom to express their authentic selves without fear of being negatively judged, interacting without prejudice or bias, accepting how race, religion, gender, class, sexual orientation, age, disability, and so on are at the core of someone’s identities, and assuming they have integrity are all included in the essential elements of acceptance of identity. .......................................................................................................................................................................................................................CONTINUE. [Show Less]
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ATI FUNDAMENTALS MID TERM EXAM Questions
1. A nurse is reviewing information about the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the followi... [Show More] ng statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates a need for further teaching? A. "Information about a client can be disclosed to family members at any time." B. "HIPAA established regulations of individually identifiable health information in verbal, electronic, or written form." C. "A client's address would be an example of personally identifiable information." D. "HIPAA is a federal law, not a state law." 2. A nurse is preparing to perform hand hygiene. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Adjust the water temperature to feel hot. B. Apply 4 to 5 mL of liquid soap to the hands. C. Hold the hands higher than the elbows. D. Rub hands and arms to dry. 3. A nurse is administering nasal decongestant drops for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Tell the client to blow her nose gently before the instillation. B. Assist the client to a side-lying position. C. Hold the dropper 2 cm (1 in) above the naris. D. Instruct the client to stay in the same position for 2 min. 4. A newly licensed nurse is applying prescribed wrist restraints on a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Secure the restraints using a quick-release tie. B. Ensure four fingers fit under the restraints to prevent constriction. C. Secure the restraints to the lowest bar of the side rail. D. Anticipate removing the restraints every 4 hr. 5. The family of an older adult client brings him to the emergency department after finding him wandering outside. During the initial assessment, the nurse notes that the client flinches when she palpates his abdomen yet responds to questions only by nodding and smiling. Which of the following factors should the nurse identify as a likely explanation for the client's behavior? A. He is hard of hearing. B. Pain C. Confusion D. Language barrier 6. A nurse is preparing a client for outpatient surgery. After the nurse inserts the IV catheter, the client reports pain in the insertion area. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Remove the catheter and insert another into a different site. B. Administer an analgesic PO. C. Request a prescription for placement of a central venous access device. D. Administer a local anesthetic. 7. A client smoking in his bathroom has dropped a cigarette butt into a wastepaper basket, which begins to smolder. Which of the following actions is the nurse’s priority? A. Close the fire doors on the unit. B. Activate the fire alarm. C. Move any clients in the immediate vicinity. D. Use a fire extinguisher to put out the fire. 8. A nurse is caring for a client who refuses treatment and asks to be discharged from the hospital against medical advice. The nurse notifies the client's provider, who tells the nurse to restrain the client, if necessary, to keep her from leaving the hospital. The nurse understands that restraining this client would be considered which type of civil action by the nurse? A. Invasion of privacy B. Assault C. Battery D. False imprisonment 9. A nurse is performing tracheostomy care for a client and suctioning to remove copious secretions. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Suction two to three times with a 60-second pause between passes. B. Perform chest physiotherapy prior to suctioning. C. Lubricate the suction catheter tip with sterile saline. D. Hyperventilate the client on 100% oxygen prior to suctioning. 10. A nurse is inserting an IV catheter for an older client in preparation for an outpatient procedure. Which of the following veins should the nurse select? A. Dorsal metacarpal vein B. Radial vein in the wrist C. Antecubital vein D. Median vein in the forearm .......................................................................................................................................................................................................................CONTINUE. [Show Less]
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ATI RN PEDIATRIC PROCTORED EXAM REVISED 2022
a nurse is planning care for a child who has severe diarrhea. which of the following actions is the nurse priority? A. Introduce a regular diet B. Rehydr... [Show More] ate C. Maintain fluid therapy D. Assess fluid balance (Assess first the other three are interventions, before u intervene you have to assess how much fluid imbalance. Check for labs results because it will tell you what kind of fluid is to be given and how much fluid to be replaced. Priority is assessment first) A nurse is caring for a toddler who’s parent states that the child has a mass in his abdominal area and his urine is a pink color. Which of the following actions is the nurse’s priority? A. Schedule the child for an abdominal ultrasound B. Instruct the parent to avoid pressing on the abdominal area C. Determine if the child is having pain D. Obtain a urine specimen for a urinalysis A nurse is caring for a child who has acute glomerulonephritis. Which of the following actions is the nurse’s priority? A. Place the child on a no salt added diet B. Check the Childs weight daily C. Educate the parents about potential complications D. Maintain a saline lock (IV access that is attached to any fluids. For emergency) (inflammation of the kidneys caused by group A beta hemolytic streptococcus, infection. Fluid or fluid retention. Patient with kidney problems affect blood pressure -> High blood pressure because of fluid retention. Salt increases high blood pressure. Lower the salt intake of this patient) A nurse is caring for a child who has a suspected diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. Which of the following is the nurse’s priority? A. Administer antibiotics when available B. Reduce environmental stimuli (because of increase of ICP and can cause seizures) C. Document intake and output D. Maintain seizure precautions A nurse is collecting data from an adolescent. Which of the following represents the greatest risk for suicide? A. Availability of firearms B. Family conflict C. Homosexuality D. Active psychiatric disorder (Mark, mental problems, patients mind is unstable) A nurse is collecting data from an infant who has otitis media (middle ear infection). The nurse should expect which of the following findings? A. Tugging on the affected ear lobe B. Bluish green discharge from the ear canal (there’s usually no discharge, discharge only comes out if there’s opening in the ear drum) C. Increase in appetite (decrease in appetite) D. Erythema and edema of the affected auricle (usually no redness in the affected auricle) (otitis externa: infection of the outer ear) A nurse is reinforcing reaching with a parent of a 1 month old infant who is to undergo the initial surgery to treat Hirschsprung’s disease (a ganglionic megacolon, part of the colon isn’t connected to the nerves or not functioning, so there will be an increase size of the colon and stool gets stuck in there). Which of the following statements should indicate to the nurse that the parent understanding the goal of surgery? A. “I’m glad that the ostomy is only temporary “ (1st there going to cut the nonfunctioning of the colon, and then apply temporary colostomy, after a couple of months they will suture it together) B. “I’m glad my child will have normal bowel movements now” C. “I want to learn how to use the feeding tube as soon as possible” D. “the operation will straighten out the kink in the intestine” A nurse is caring for an infant who is 1 day postoperative following surgical repair of a cleft lip. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Apply an antibiotic ointment to the suture site B. Clear oral secretions using a bulb syringe C. Feed the infant using a spoon D. Position the infant on her abdomen A nurse is reinforcing discharge instructions with a parent of a child who has cystic fibrosis. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. “I will make sure my child washes her hands before eating” B. “I will restrict the amount of salt in my child’s meal” C. “I will put my child in daycare to ensure that she socializes with other children” D. “I will provide low fat meals for my child A nurse working at a clinic speaks on the telephone with a parent of a 2-month- old infant. The parent tells the nurse that the infant has projectile vomiting followed by hunger after meals. Which of the following response by the nurse is appropriate? A. “Bring your infant into the clinic today to be seen” B. “Burp your child more frequently during feedings” C. “Give your infant an oral rehydrating solution” D. “You might want to try switching to different formula” A nurse is caring for a 4 year old child who is 2 days postoperative following the insertion of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the priority . (causes icp hydrocephalus) A. lethargy (high pitched cry, respiratory changes, bradycardia, wide pulse pressure, irritability) B. lying flat on the unaffected side C. respiratory rate 20/min D. urine output 50 mL in 2hr .......................................................................................................................................................................................................................CONTINUE. [Show Less]
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ATI RN PROCTORED MIDTERM EXAMS RETAKE 2022
Question 1 A Relaxation therapy . B Social skills training . C Motivational . Interviewing D Applied behavioral . analysis Question 2 A The c... [Show More] hild’s clinical presentation fulfills the specific symptom based . diagnostic criteria. B The child’s symptoms are not caused by other diagnoses or stressors. . C The child’s symptoms are impairing a child’s functioning in at least two . settings. D A and B . Question 3 Which of the following is NOT consistent with good sleep hygiene? A Allow child to keep a cell phone at bedside. . B Establish bedtime routines and maintain consistently. . C Limit use of electronics in the evening i.e., television, . computer, etc. D Set and maintain a bedtime that will allow for adequate . sleep. Question 4 A Aripiprazole (Abilify) . B Ziprasidone . (Geodon) C Haloperidol (Haldol) . D Risperidone . (Risperdal) Question 5 A Safety . B Bullying . C Conduct disorder . D Oppositional defiant . disorder Question 6 A Substance use disorder . B Substance withdrawal . C Substance tolerance . D Substance induced mental . disorder Question 7 A Become a surrogate decision maker for the patient. . B Consult a formally-designated surrogate for patient choices. . C Make safe choices for the patient based on the nurse’s beliefs . and values. D Continue to support all the patient’s choices until a surrogate . can be found. Question 8 A Obsessive -compulsive . disorder B Posttraumatic stress . disorder C Panic disorder . D Separation anxiety . disorder Question 9 A Ziprasidone . (Geodon) B Aripiprazole . (Abilify) C Olanzapine . (Zyprexa) D Quetiapine . (Seroquel) Question 10 A Bipolar II Disorder . B Cyclothymic Disorder . C Bipolar I Disorder, mixed . episode D Bipolar I Disorder, cyclothymic . type Question 11 Which of the following is NOT true about symptomatology of anorexia nervosa? A Most aberrant behaviors directed toward losing weight occurs in secret. . B All patients have an intense fear of gaining weight and becoming obese. . C Most patients with anorexia nervosa will have no difficulty eating with their family in . public places. D Fear of gaining weight and becoming obese frequently contributes to the individual’s . lack of interest in and resistance to therapy/treatment. Question 12 Sleep-related hallucinations occurring at sleep onset are known as which of the following? A Hypnagogic . B Hypnopompic . C Complex . hallucinations D Paranormal . hallucinations ...........................................................................................................................................................................................................................CONTINUE. [Show Less]
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