NUR 1211 Medical Surgical Final
Exam- Questions and Answers;
International College of Health
Sciences 2023/2024
1. A client with diabetes mellitus i... [Show More] s experiencing polyphagia. Which outcome statement
is the priority for this client?
a. Fluid and electrolyte balance.
b. Prevention of water toxicity.
c. Reduced glucose in the urine.
d. Adequate cellular nourishment. - ANSWER-D
Rationale
Diabetes mellitus Type 1 is characterized by hyperglycemia that precipitates glucosuria
and polyuria (frequent urination), polydipsia (excessive thirst), and polyphagia
(excessive hunger). Polyphagia is a consequence of cellular malnourishment when
insulin deficiency prevents utilization of glucose into the cell for energy, so the outcome
statement should include stabilization of adequate cellular nutrition which is done by
providing the insulin supplement the client needs.
2. A client has taken steroids for 12 years to help manage chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD). When making a home visit, which nursing function is of
greatest importance to this client? Assess the client's
a. pulse rate, both apically and radially.
b. blood pressure, both standing and sitting.
c. temperature.
d. skin color and turgor. - ANSWER-C
Rationale
It is very important to check the client's temperature. Long term use of steroids use
COPD clients is effective in suppressing inflammation in their airways making it easier
for them to breath, but at the same time suppresses the immune system, placing the
client at risk for infection.
3. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement when caring for a client who
has just undergone a right above-the-knee amputation?
a. Maintain the residual limb on three pillows at all times.
b. Place a large tourniquet at the client's bedside.
c. Apply constant, direct pressure to the residual limb.
d. Do not allow the client to lie in the prone position. - ANSWER-B
Rationale
A large tourniquet should be placed in plain sight at the client's bedside, in the event
severe bleeding occurs. The purpose is to have the tourniquet available to applied to
the residual limb to control bleeding if hemorrhaging was to occur. The residual limb
should not be placed on a pillow because a flexion contracture of the hip may result and
the client should be encouraged to lie in the prone position to prevent flexion
contracture of the hip.
4. The nurse knows that lab values sometimes vary for the older client. Which data
would the nurse expect to find when reviewing laboratory values of an 80-year-old
male?
a. Increased WBC, decreased RBC.
b. Increased serum bilirubin, slightly increased liver enzymes.
c. Increased protein in the urine, slightly increased serum glucose levels.
d. Decreased serum sodium, an increased urine specific gravity. - ANSWER-C
Rationale
As older adults aged, the protein found in urine slightly rises as a result of kidney
changes and the serum glucose increases slightly, also due to changes in the kidney.
The specific gravity declines by age 80 from 1.032 to 1.024.
5. In preparing to administer intravenous albumin to a client following surgery, what is
the priority nursing intervention? (Select all that apply.)
a. Set the infusion pump to infuse the albumin within four hours.
b. Compare the client's blood type with the label on the albumin.
c. Assign a UAP to monitor blood pressure q15 minutes.
d. Administer through a large gauge catheter.
e. Monitor hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.
f. Assess for increased bleeding after administration. - ANSWER-A, C, D, E, F
Rationale
Albumin should be infused within four hours because it does not contain any
preservatives. Any fluid remaining after four hours should be discarded. Albumin
administration does not require blood typing. Vital signs should be monitored
periodically to assess for fluid volume overload. A large gauge catheter allows for fast
infusion rate, which may be necessary. Hemodilution may decrease hemoglobin (HgB)
and hematocrit (HCT) levels, so the HgB and HCT levels should be monitored. While
monitoring for bleeding because of the increased blood volume and blood pressure.
6. The healthcare provider prescribes aluminum and magnesium hydroxide (Maalox), 1
tablet PO PRN, for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is complaining of
indigestion. What intervention should the nurse implement?
a. Administer 30 minutes before eating.
b. Evaluate the effectiveness 1 hour after administration.
c. Instruct the client to swallow the tablet whole.
d. Question the healthcare provider's prescription. - ANSWER-D
Rationale
Magnesium agents are not usually used for clients with CKD due to the risk of
hypermagnesemia, so this prescription should be questioned by the nurse.
7. Small bowel obstruction is a condition characterized by which finding?
a. Severe fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
b. Metabolic acidosis.
c. Ribbon-like stools.
d. Intermittent lower abdominal cramping. - ANSWER-A
Rationale
Among the findings characteristic of a small bowel obstruction is the presence of severe
fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
8. The nurse is taking a history of a newly diagnosed Type 2 diabetic who is beginning
treatment. Which subjective information is most important for the nurse to note?
a. A history of obesity.
b. An allergy to sulfa drugs.
c. Cessation of smoking three years ago.
d. Numbness in the soles of the feet. - ANSWER-B
Rationale
An allergy to sulfa drugs may make the client unable to use some of the most common
antihyperglycemic agents (sulfonylureas). The nurse needs to highlight this allergy for
the healthcare provider.
9. The nurse would be correct in withholding a dose of digoxin in a client with
congestive heart failure without specific instruction from the healthcare provider if the
client's
a. serum digoxin level is 1.5.
b. blood pressure is 104/68.
c. serum potassium level is 3.
d. apical pulse is 68/min. - ANSWER-C
Rationale
Hypokalemia can precipitate digitalis toxicity in persons receiving digoxin which will
increase the chance of dangerous dysrhythmias (normal potassium level is 3.5 to 5.5
mEq/L).
10. The nurse notes that the only ECG for a 55-year-old male client scheduled for
surgery in two hours is dated two years ago. The client reports that he has a history of
"heart trouble," but has no problems at present. Hospital protocol requires that those
over 50 years of age have a recent ECG prior to surgery. What nursing action is best for
the nurse to implement?
a. Ask the client what he means by "heart trouble."
b. Call for an ECG to be performed immediately.
c. Notify surgery that the ECG is over two years old.
d. Notify the client's surgeon immediately. - ANSWER-B
Rationale
According to the hospital policy, clients over the age of 50 and/or with a history of
cardiovascular disease, should receive ECG evaluation prior to surgery, generally 24
hours to two weeks before. The nurse needs to first arrange for an ECG to be
performed immediately prior to surgery.
11. The nurse is planning care for a client with newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus that
requires insulin. Which assessment should the nurse identify before beginning the
teaching session?
a. Present knowledge related to the skill of injection.
b. Intelligence and developmental level of the client.
c. Willingness of the client to learn the injection sites.
d. Financial resources available for the equipment. - ANSWER-C
Rationale
If a client is incapable or does not want to learn, it is unlikely that learning will occur, so
motivation is the first factor the nurse should assess before teaching.
12. A 46-year-old female client is admitted for acute renal failure secondary to diabetes
and hypertension. Which test is the best indicator of adequate glomerular filtration?
a. Serum creatinine.
b. Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN).
c. Sedimentation rate.
d. Urine specific gravity. - ANSWER-A [Show Less]
