Bundle
2022 NCLEX RN Exams Bundle |2020 - 2022 Q&A NCSBN Online Exam Review for NCLEX RN & NCLEX Test banks | 100% Actual Tests Compiled
13 Items
NCLEX RN Exam 850+ Q&A (All previous actual tests)
NO.1 A depressed client is seen at the mental health center for follow-up after an attempted suicide 1 week ago. She has taken phenelzine sulfate (Nardil)... [Show More] , a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor, for 7 straight days. She states that she is not feeling any better. The nurse explains that the drug must accumulate to an effective level before symptoms are totally relieved. Symptom relief is expected to occur within: 10 days 2-4 weeks 2 months 3 months Answer: B Explanation : This answer is incorrect. It can take up to 1 month for therapeutic effect of the medication. This answer is correct. Because MAO inhibitors are slow to act, it takes 2-4 weeks before improvement of symptoms is noted. This answer is incorrect. It can take up to 1 month for therapeutic effect of the medication. This answer is incorrect. Therapeutic effects of the medication are noted within 1 month of drug therapy. NO.2 Cystic fibrosis is transmitted as an autosomal recessive trait. This means that: Mothers carry the gene and pass it to their sons Fathers carry the gene and pass it to their daughters Both parents must have the disease for a child to have the disease Both parents must be carriers for a child to have the disease Answer: D Explanation : (A) Cystic fibrosis is not an X-linked or sex-linked disease. (B) The only characteristic on the Y chromosome is the trait for hairy ears. (C) Both parents do not need to have the disease but must be carriers. (D) If a trait is recessive, two genes (one from each parent) are necessary to produce an affected child. NO.3 A 24-year-old client presents to the emergency department protesting "I am God." The nurse identifies this as a: Delusion Illusion Hallucination Conversion Answer: A Explanation: (A) Delusion is a false belief. (B) Illusion is the misrepresentation of a real, external sensory experience. (C) Hallucination is a false sensory perception involving any of the senses. (D) Conversion is the expression of intrapsychic conflict through sensory or motor manifestations. NO.4 In acute episodes of mania, lithium is effective in 1-2 weeks, but it may take up to 4 weeks, or 3 even a few months, to treat symptoms fully. Sometimes an antipsychotic agent is prescribed during the first few days or weeks of an acute episode to manage severe behavioral excitement and acute psychotic symptoms. In addition to the lithium, which one of the following medications might the physician prescribe? Diazepam (Valium) Haloperidol (Haldol) Sertraline (Zoloft) Alprazolam (Xanax) Answer: B Explanation: (A) Diazepam is an antianxiety medication and is not designed to reduce psychotic symptoms. (B) Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication and may be used until the lithium takes effect. (C) Sertraline is an antidepressant and is used primarily to reduce symptoms of depression. (D) Alprazolam is an antianxiety medication and is not designed to reduce psychotic symptoms. NO.5 A violent client remains in restraints for several hours. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate while he is in restraints? Give fluids if the client requests them. Assess skin integrity and circulation of extremities before applying restraints and as they are removed. Measure vital signs at least every 4 hours. Release restraints every 2 hours for client to exercise. Answer: D Explanation : (A) Fluids (nourishment) should be offered at regular intervals whether the client requests (or refuses) them or not. (B) Skin integrity and circulation of the extremities should be checked regularly while the client is restrained, not only before restraints are applied and after they are removed. (C) Vital signs should be checked at least every 2 hours. If the client remains agitated in restraints, vital signs should be monitored even more closely, perhaps every 1-2 hours. (D) Restraints should be released every 2 hours for exercise [Show Less]
- Exam
- $14.45
- 0
- 294
NCLEX RN Exam 800+ Verified Q&A
NCLEX-RN Exam QUESTION 1 A 25-year-old client believes she may be pregnant with her first child. She schedules an obstetric examination with the nurse... [Show More] practitioner to determine the status of her possible pregnancy. Her last menstrual period began May 20, and her estimated date of confinement using Nägele's rule is: A. March 27 B. February 1 C. February 27 D. January 3 Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: (A)March 27 is a miscalculation. (B) February 1 is a miscalculation. (C) February 27 is the correct answer. To calculate the estimated date of confinement using Nagele's rule, subtract 3 months from the date that the last menstrual cycle began and then add 7 days to the result. (D) January 3 is a miscalculation. QUESTION 2 The nurse practitioner determines that a client is approximately 9 weeks' gestation. During the visit, the practitioner informs the client about symptoms of physical changes that she will experience during her first trimester, such as: A. Nausea and vomiting B. Quickening C. A 68 lb weight gain D. Abdominal enlargement Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: (A) Nausea and vomiting are experienced by almost half of all pregnant women during the first 3 months of pregnancy as a result of elevated human chorionic gonadotropin levels and changed carbohydrate metabolism. (B) Quickening is the mother's perception of fetal movement and generally does not occur until 1820 weeks after the last menstrual period in primigravidas, but it may occur as early as 16 weeks in multigravidas. (C) During the first trimester there should be only a modest weight gain of 24 lb. It is not uncommon for women to lose weight during the first trimester owing to nausea and/or vomiting. (D) Physical changes are not apparent until the second trimester, when the uterus rises out of the pelvis. QUESTION 3 A 38-year-old pregnant woman visits her nurse practitioner for her regular prenatal checkup. She is 30 weeks' gestation. The nurse should be alert to which condition related to her age? A. Iron-deficiency anemia B. Sexually transmitted disease (STD) C. Intrauterine growth retardation D. Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: (A) Iron-deficiency anemia can occur throughout pregnancy and is not age related. (B) STDs can occur prior to or during pregnancy and are not age related. (C) Intrauterine growth retardation is an abnormal process where fetal development and maturation are delayed. It is not age related. (D) Physical risks for the pregnant client older than 35 include increased risk for PIH, cesarean delivery, fetal and neonatal mortality, and trisomy. QUESTION 4 A client returns for her 6-month prenatal checkup and has gained 10 lb in 2 months. The results of her physical examination are normal. How does the nurse interpret the effectiveness of the instruction about diet and weight control? A. She is compliant with her diet as previously taught. B. She needs further instruction and reinforcement. C. She needs to increase her caloric intake. D. She needs to be placed on a restrictive diet immediately. Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: (A) She is probably not compliant with her diet and exercise program. Recommended weight gain during second and third trimesters is approximately 12 lb. (B) Because of her excessive weight gain of 10 lb in 2 months, she needs re-evaluation of her eating habits and reinforcement of proper dietary habits for pregnancy. A 2200-calorie diet is recommended for most pregnant women with a weight gain of 2730 lb over the 9-month period. With rapid and excessive weightgain, PIH should also be suspected. (C) She does not need to increase her caloric intake, but she does need to re-evaluate dietary habits. Ten pounds in 2 months is excessive weight gain during pregnancy, and health teaching is warranted. (D) Restrictive dieting is not recommended during pregnancy. QUESTION 5 Diabetes during pregnancy requires tight metabolic control of glucose levels to prevent perinatal mortality. When evaluating the pregnant client, the nurse knows the recommended serum glucose range during pregnancy is: A. 70 mg/dL and 120 mg/dL B. 100 mg/dL and 200 mg/dL C. 40 mg/dL and 130 mg/dL D. 90 mg/dL and 200 mg/dL Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: (A) The recommended range is 70120 mg/dL to reduce the risk of perinatal mortality. (B, C, D) These levels are not recommended. The higher the blood glucose, the worse the prognosis for the fetus. Hypoglycemia can also have detrimental effects on the fetus. QUESTION 6 When assessing fetal heart rate status during labor, the monitor displays late decelerations with tachycardia and decreasing variability. What action should the nurse take? A. Continue monitoring because this is a normal occurrence. [Show Less]
- Exam
- $13.95
- 0
- 412
NCLEX-RN Exam (500+ Q&A)
Exam A QUESTION 1 To appropriately monitor therapy and client progress, the nurse should be aware that increased myocardial work and O2 demand will occ... [Show More] ur with which of the following? A. Positive inotropic therapy B. Negative chronotropic therapy C. Increase in balance of myocardial O2 supply and demand D. Afterload reduction therapy Correct Answer: A Section: Questions Set A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: (A) Inotropic therapy will increase contractility, which will increase myocardial O2 demand. (B) Decreased heart rate to the point of bradycardia will increase coronary artery filling time. This should be used cautiously because tachycardia may be a compensatory mechanism to increase cardiac output. (C) The goal in the care of the MI client with angina is to maintain a balance between myocardial O2 supply and demand. (D) Decrease in systemic vascular resistance by drug therapy, such as IV nitroglycerin or nitroprusside, or intra-aortic balloon pump therapy, would decrease myocardial work and O2 demand. QUESTION 2 The nurse would need to monitor the serum glucose levels of a client receiving which of the following medications, owing to its effects on glycogenolysis and insulin release? A. Norepinephrine (Levophed) B. Dobutamine (Dobutrex) C. Propranolol (Inderal) D. Epinephrine (Adrenalin) Correct Answer: D Section: Questions Set A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: (A) Norepinephrine’s side effects are primarily related to safe, effective care environment and include decreased peripheral perfusion and bradycardia. (B) Dobutamine’s side effects include increased heart rate and blood pressure, ventricular ectopy, nausea, and headache. (C) Propranolol’s side effects include elevated blood urea nitrogen, serum transaminase, alkaline phosphatase, and lactic dehydrogenase. (D) Epinephrine increases serum glucose levels by increasing glycogenolysis and inhibiting insulin release. Prolonged use can elevate serum lactate levels, leading to metabolic acidosis, increased urinary catecholamines, false elevation of blood urea nitrogen, and decreased coagulation time. QUESTION 3 Which of the following medications requires close observation for bronchospasm in the client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or asthma? A. Verapamil (Isoptin) B. Amrinone (Inocor) C. Epinephrine (Adrenalin) D. Propranolol (Inderal) Correct Answer: D Section: Questions Set A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: (A) Verapamil has the respiratory side effect of nasal or chest congestion, dyspnea, shortness of breath (SOB), and wheezing. (B) Amrinone has the effect of increased contractility and dilation of the vascular smooth muscle. It has no noted respiratory side effects. (C) Epinephrine has the effect of bronchodilation through β stimulation. (D) Propranolol, esmolol, and labetalol are all β- blocking agents, which can increase airway resistance and cause bronchospasms. QUESTION 4 The following medications were noted on review of the client’s home medication profile. Which of the medications would most likely potentiate or elevate serum digoxin levels? A. KCl B. Thyroid agents C. Quinidine D. Theophylline Correct Answer: C Section: Questions Set A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: (A) Hypokalemia can cause digoxin toxicity. Administration of KCl would prevent this. (B) Thyroid agents decrease digoxin levels. (C) Quinidine increases digoxin levels dramatically. (D) Theophylline is not noted to have an effect on digoxin levels. QUESTION 5 In the client with a diagnosis of coronary artery disease, the nurse would anticipate the complication of bradycardia with occlusion of which coronary artery? A. Right coronary artery B. Left main coronary artery C. Circumflex coronary artery D. Left anterior descending coronary artery Correct Answer: A Section: Questions Set A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: (A) Sinus bradycardia and atrioventricular (AV) heart block are usually a result of right coronary artery occlusion. The right coronary artery perfuses the sinoatrial and AV nodes in mostindividuals. (B) Occlusion of the left main coronary artery causes bundle branch blocks and premature ventricular contractions. (C) Occlusion of the circumflex artery does not cause bradycardia. (D) Sinus tachycardia occurs primarily with left anterior descending coronary artery occlusion because this form of occlusion impairs left ventricular function. QUESTION 6 When inspecting a cardiovascular client, the nurse notes that he needs to sit upright to breathe. This behavior is most indicative of: A. Pericarditis B. Anxiety C. Congestive heart failure D. Angina Correct Answer: C Section: Questions Set A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: (A) Pericarditis can cause dyspnea but primarily causes chest pain. (B) Anxiety can cause dyspnea resulting in SOB, yet it is not typically influenced by degree of head elevation. (C) The inability to oxygenate well without being upright is most indicative of congestive heart failure, due to alveolar drowning. (D) Angina causes primarily chest pain; any SOB associated with angina is not influenced by body position. QUESTION 7 When a client questions the nurse as to the purpose of exercise electrocardiography (ECG) in the diagnosis of cardiovascular disorders, the nurse’s response should be based on the fact that: A. The test provides a baseline for further tests B. The procedure simulates usual daily activity and myocardial performance C. The client can be monitored while cardiac conditioning and heart toning are done D. Ischemia can be diagnosed because exercise increasesO2 consumption and demand Correct Answer: D Section: Questions Set A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: (A) The purpose of the study is not to provide a baseline for further tests. (B) The test causes an increase in O2 demand beyond that required to perform usual daily activities. (C) Monitoring does occur, but the test is not for the purpose of cardiac toning and conditioning. (D) Exercise ECG, or stress testing, is designed to elevate the peripheral and myocardial needs for O2 to evaluate the ability of the myocardium and coronary arteries to meet the additional demands. QUESTION 8 In assessing cardiovascular clients with progression of aortic stenosis, the nurse should be aware that there is typically: A. Decreased pulmonary blood flow and cyanosis B. Increased pressure in the pulmonary veins and pulmonary edema C. Systemic venous engorgement D. Increased left ventricular systolic pressures and hypertrophy Correct Answer: D Section: Questions Set A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: (A) These signs are seen in pulmonic stenosis or in response to pulmonary congestion and edema and mitral stenosis. (B) These signs are seen primarily in mitral stenosis or as a late sign in aortic stenosis after left ventricular failure. (C) These signs are seen p [Show Less]
- Exam
- $14.45
- 0
- 310
NCLEX RN 2019 QUESTIONS IPASS FOR EXAM 2
NCLEX RN 2019 QUESTIONS IPASS FOR EXAM 2
- Exam
- $14.45
- 0
- 314
NCLEX RN EXAM 2021 | 120 Q&A
NCLEX RN EXAM 1) The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a Chinese American client regarding prescribed dietary modifications. During the teach... [Show More] ing session, the client continuously turns away from the nurse. The nurse should implement which best action? Answers-Continue with the instructions, verifying client understanding. 2) A critically ill Hispanic client tells the nurse through an interpreter that she is Roman Catholic and firmly believes in the rituals and traditions of the Catholic faith. Based on the client's statements, which actions by the nurse demonstrate cultural sensitivity and spiritual support? Select all that apply.(1,2,5) Answers-Ensures that a close relative stays with the client Makes a referral for a Catholic priest to visit the client Offers to provide a means for praying the rosary if the client wishes. 3) Which clients have a high risk of obesity and diabetes [Show Less]
- Exam
- $13.95
- 0
- 289
NCLEX RN EXAM 2020 TEST PREP Q&A
NCLEX RN EXAM 2020 TEST PREP Q&A IT COVERS: 1. BASIC NURSING CARE-171 2. MANAGEMENT AND PRACTICE DIRECTIVES- 115 3. PREVENTING RISKS AND COMPLICATIONS-... [Show More] 81 4. CARING FOR ACUTE OR CHRONIC C.ONDITIONS-97 5. SAFETY -68 6. MENTAL HEALTH -49 7. PHARMACOLOGY 114 8. GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT-66 9.BASIC NURSING CARE (STUDY MODE) [Show Less]
- Exam
- $15.45
- 0
- 291
NCSBN ON-LINE EXAM REVIEW FOR NCLEX RN EXAM | 100% Verified
NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW NCLEX EXAM 1.A client has been hospitalized after an automobile accident. A full leg cast was applied in the emergency room. The mos... [Show More] t important reason for the nurse to elevate the casted leg is to A) Promote the client's comfort B) Reduce the drying time C) Decrease irritation to the skin D) Improve venous return D: Improve venous return. Elevating the leg both improves venous return and reduces swelling. Client comfort will be improved as well. 2. The nurse is reviewing with a client how to collect a clean catch urine specimen. What is the appropriate sequence to teach the client? A) Clean the meatus, begin voiding, then catch urine stream B) Void a little, clean the meatus, then collect specimen C) Clean the meatus, then urinate into container D) Void continuously and catch some of the urine A: Clean the meatus, begin voiding, then catch urine stream. A clean catch urine is difficult to obtain and requires clear directions. Instructing the client to carefully clean the meatus, then void naturally with a steady stream prevents surface bacteria from contaminating the urine specimen. As starting and stopping flow can be difficult, once the client begins voiding it’s best to just slip the container into the stream. Other responses do not reflect correct technique 3. Following change-of-shift report on an orthopedic unit, which client should the nurse see first? A) 16 year-old who had an open reduction of a fractured wrist 10 hours ago B) 20 year-old in skeletal traction for 2 weeks since a motor cycle accident C) 72 year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago D) 75 year-old who is in skin traction prior to planned hip pinning surgery. C: Look for the client who has the most imminent risks and acute vulnerability. The client who returned from surgery 2 hours ago is at risk for life threatening hemorrhage and should be seen first. The 16 year-old should be seen next because it is still the first post-op day. The 75 year-old is potentially vulnerable to age-related physical and cognitive consequences in skin traction should be seen next. The client who can safely be seen last is the 20 year-old who is 2 weeks post-injury. 4. A client with Guillain Barre is in a nonresponsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition? A) Comatose, breathing unlabored B) Glascow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular C) Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable D) Glascow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required B: Glascow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular. The Glascow Coma Scale provides a standard reference for assessing or monitoring level of consciousness. Any score less than 13 indicates a neurological impairment. Using the term comatose provides too much room for interpretation and is not very precise. 5. When caring for a client receiving warfarin sodium (Coumadin), which lab test would the nurse monitor to determine therapeutic response to the drug? A) Bleeding time B) Coagulation time C) Prothrombin time D) Partial thromboplastin time C: Prothrombin time. Coumadin is ordered daily, based on the client''s prothrombin time (PT). This test evaluates the adequacy of the extrinsic system and common pathway in the clotting cascade; Coumadin affects the Vitamin K dependent clotting factors. 6.A client with moderate persistent asthma is admitted for a minor surgical procedure. On admission the peak flow meter is measured at 480 liters/minute. Post-operatively the client is complaining of chest tightness. The peak flow has dropped to 200 liters/minute. What should the nurse do first? A) Notify both the surgeon and provider B) Administer the prn dose of albuterol C) Apply oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula D) Repeat the peak flow reading in 30 minutes B: Administer the prn dose of albuterol. Peak flow monitoring during exacerbations of asthma is recommended for clients with moderate-to-severe persistent asthma to determine the severity of the exacerbation and to guide the treatment. A peak flow reading of less than 50% of the client''s baseline reading is a medical alert condition and a short-acting beta-agonist must be taken immediately. 7.A client had 20 mg of Lasix (furosemide) PO at 10 AM. Which would be essential for the nurse to include at the change of shift report? A) The client lost 2 pounds in 24 hours B) The client’s potassium level is 4 mEq/liter. C) The client’s urine output was 1500 cc in 5 hours D) The client is to receive another dose of Lasix at 10 PM C: The client’s urine output was 1500 cc in 5 hours. Although all of these may be correct information to include in report, the essential piece would be the urine output. 8.A client has been tentatively diagnosed with Graves' disease (hyperthyroidism). Which of these findings noted on the initial nursing assessment requires quick intervention by the nurse? A) a report of 10 pounds weight loss in the last month B) a comment by the client "I just can't sit still." C) the appearance of eyeballs that appear to "pop" out of the client's eye sockets D) a report of the sudden onset of irritability in the past 2 weeks C: the appearance of eyeballs that appear to "pop" out of the client''s eye sockets. Exophthalmos or protruding eyeballs is a distinctive characteristic of Graves'' Disease. It can result in corneal abrasions with severe eye pain or damage when the eyelid is unable to blink down over the protruding eyeball. Eye drops or ointment may be needed. 9. The nurse has performed the initial assessments of 4 clients admitted with an acute episode of asthma. Which assessment finding would cause the nurse to call the provider immediately? A) prolonged inspiration with each breath B) expiratory wheezes that are suddenly absent in 1 lobe C) expectoration of large amounts of purulent mucous D) appearance of the use of abdominal muscles for breathing B: expiratory wheezes that are suddenly absent in 1 lobe. Acute asthma is characterized by expiratory wheezes caused by obstruction of the airways. Wheezes are a high pitched musical sounds produced by air moving through narrowed airways. Clients often associate wheezes with the feeling of tightness in the chest. However, sudden cessation of wheezing is an ominous or bad sign that indicates an emergency -- the small airways are now collapsed. 10. During the initial home visit, a nurse is discussing the care of a client newly diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease with family members. Which of these interventions would be most helpful at this time? A) leave a book about relaxation techniques B) write out a daily exercise routine for them to assist the client to do C) list actions to improve the client's daily nutritional intake D) suggest communication strategies D: suggest communication strategies. Alzheimer''s disease, a progressive chronic illness, greatly challenges caregivers. The nurse can be of greatest assistance in helping the family to use communication strategies to enhance their ability to relate to the client. By use of select verbal and nonverbal communication strategies the family can best support the client’s strengths and cope with any aberrant behavior. 11. An 80 year-old client admitted with a diagnosis of possible cerebral vascular accident has had a blood pressure from 160/100 to 180/110 over the past 2 hours. The nurse has also noted increased lethargy. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately to the provider? A) Slurred speech B) Incontinence C) Muscle weaknessD) Rapid pulse A: Slurred speech. Changes in speech patterns and level of conscious can be indicators of continued intracranial bleeding or extension of the stroke. Further diagnostic testing may be indicated. 12. A school-aged child has had a long leg (hip to ankle) synthetic cast applied 4 hours ago. Which statement from the parent indicates that teaching has been inadequate? A) "I will keep the cast uncovered for the next day to prevent burning of the skin." B) "I can apply an ice pack over the area to relieve itching inside the cast." C) "The cast should be propped on at least 2 pillows when my child is lying down." D) "I think I remember that my child should not stand until after 72 hours." D: "I think I remember that my child should not stand until after 72 hours.". Synthetic casts will typically set up in 30 minutes and dry in a few hours. Thus, the client may stand within the initial 24 hours. With plaster casts, the set up and drying time, especially in a long leg cast which is thicker than an arm cast, can take up to 72 hours. Both types of casts give off a lot of heat when drying and it is preferable to keep the cast uncovered for the first 24 hours. Clients may complain of a chill from the wet cast and therefore can simply be covered lightly with a sheet or blanket. Applying ice is a safe method of relieving the itching. 13. Which blood serum finding in a client with diabetic ketoacidosis alerts the nurse that immediate action is required? A) pH below 7.3 B) Potassium of 5.0 C) HCT of 60 D) Pa O2 of 79% C: HCT of 60. This high hematocrit is indicative of severe dehydration which requires priority attention in diabetic ketoacidosis. Without sufficient hydration, all systems of the body are at risk for hypoxia from a lack of or sluggish circulation. In the absence of insulin, which facilitates the transport of glucose into the cell, the body breaks down fats and proteins to supply energy ketones, a by-product of fat metabolism. These accumulate causing metabolic acidosis (pH < 7.3), which would be the second concern for this client. The potassium and PaO2 levels are near normal. 14. The nurse is preparing a client with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Which of the following would be necessary for preparing the client for this test? A) Client should be NPO after midnight B) Client should receive a sedative medication prior to the test C) Discontinue anti-coagulant therapy prior to the test D) No special preparation is necessary D: No special preparation is necessary. This is a non-invasive procedure and does not require preparation other than client education. 15. A client is admitted with infective endocarditis (IE). Which finding would alert the nurse to a complication of this condition? A) dyspnea B) heart murmur C) macular rashD) Hemorrhage B: heart murmur. Large, soft, rapidly developing vegetations attach to the heart valves. They have a tendency to break off, causing emboli and leaving ulcerations on the valve leaflets. These emboli produce findings of cardiac murmur, fever, anorexia, malaise and neurologic sequelae of emboli. Furthermore, the vegetations may travel to various organs such as spleen, kidney, coronary artery, brain and lungs, and obstruct blood flow. 16. The nurse explains an autograft to a client scheduled for excision of a skin tumor. The nurse knows the client understands the procedure when the client says, "I will receive tissue from A) a tissue bank." B) a pig." C) my thigh." D) synthetic skin." C: my thigh.". Autografts are done with tissue transplanted from the client''s own skin. 17.A client is admitted to the emergency room following an acute asthma attack. Which of the following assessments would be expected by the nurse? A) Diffuse expiratory wheezing B) Loose, productive cough C) No relief from inhalantD) Fever and chills A: Diffuse expiratory wheezing. In asthma, the airways are narrowed, creating difficulty getting air in. A wheezing sound results. 18. A client has been admitted with a fractured femur and has been placed in skeletal traction. Which of the following nursing interventions should receive priority? A) Maintaining proper body alignment B) Frequent neurovascular assessments of the affected leg C) Inspection of pin sites for evidence of drainage or inflammation D) Applying an over-bed trapeze to assist the client with movement in bed B: Frequent neurovascular assessments of the affected leg. The most important activity for the nurse is to assess neurovascular status. Compartment syndrome is a serious complication of fractures. Prompt recognition of this neurovascular problem and early intervention may prevent permanent limb damage. 19. The nurse is assigned to care for a client who had a myocardial infarction (MI) 2 days ago. The client has many questions about this condition. What area is a priority for the nurse to discuss at this time? A) Daily needs and concerns B) The overview cardiac rehabilitation C) Medication and diet guidelineD) Activity and rest guidelines A: Daily needs and concerns. At 2 days post-MI, the client’s education should be focused on the immediate needs and concerns for the day. 20. A 3 year-old child is brought to the clinic by his grandmother to be seen for "scratching his bottom and wetting the bed at night." Based on these complaints, the nurse would initially assess for which problem? A) allergies B) scabies C) regression D) pinworms D: pinworms. Signs of pinworm infection include intense perianal itching, poor sleep patterns, general irritability, restlessness, bed-wetting, distractibility and short attention span. Scabies is an itchy skin condition caused by a tiny, eight-legged burrowing mite called Sarcoptes scabiei . The presence of the mite leads to intense itching in the area of its burrows. 21. The nurse is caring for a newborn with tracheoesophageal fistula. Which nursing diagnosis is a priority? A) Risk for dehydration B) Ineffective airway clearance C) Altered nutritionD) Risk for injury B: Ineffective airway clearance. The most common form of TEF is one in which the proximal esophageal segment terminates in a blind pouch and the distal segment is connected to the trachea or primary bronchus by a short fistula at or near the bifurcation. Thus, a priority is maintaining an open airway, preventing aspiration. Other nursing diagnoses are then addressed. 22. The nurse is developing a meal plan that would provide the maximum possible amount of iron for a child with anemia. Which dinner menu would be best? A) Fish sticks, french fries, banana, cookies, milk B) Ground beef patty, lima beans, wheat roll, raisins, milk C) Chicken nuggets, macaroni, peas, cantaloupe, milk D) Peanut butter and jelly sandwich, apple slices, milk B: Ground beef patty, lima beans, wheat roll, raisins, milk. Iron rich foods include red meat, fish, egg yolks, green leafy vegetables, legumes, whole grains, and dried fruits such as raisins. This dinner is the best choice: It is high in iron and is appropriate for a toddler. 23. The nurse admitting a 5 month-old who vomited 9 times in the past 6 hours should observe for signs of which overall imbalance? A) Metabolic acidosis B) Metabolic alkalosis C) Some increase in the serum hemoglobin D) A little decrease in the serum potassium B: Metabolic alkalosis. Vomiting causes loss of acid from the stomach. Prolonged vomiting can result in excess loss of acid and lead to metabolic alkalosis. Findings include irritability, increased activity, hyperactive reflexes, muscle twitching and elevated pulse. Options C and D are correct answers but not the best answers since they are too general. 24. A two year-old child is brought to the provider's office with a chief complaint of mild diarrhea for two days. Nutritional counseling by the nurse should include which statement? A) Place the child on clear liquids and gelatin for 24 hours B) Continue with the regular diet and include oral rehydration fluids C) Give bananas, apples, rice and toast as tolerated D) Place NPO for 24 hours, then rehydrate with milk and water B: Continue with the regular diet and include oral rehydration fluids. Current recommendations for mild to moderate diarrhea are to maintain a normal diet with fluids to rehydrate. 25. The nurse is teaching parents about the appropriate diet for a 4 month-old infant with gastroenteritis and mild dehydration. In addition to oral rehydration fluids, the diet should include A) formula or breast milk B) broth and tea C) rice cereal and apple juice D) gelatin and ginger ale A: formula or breast milk. The usual diet for a young infant should be followed. 26. A child is injured on the school playground and appears to have a fractured leg. The first action the school nurse should take is A) call for emergency transport to the hospital B) immobilize the limb and joints above and below the injury C) assess the child and the extent of the injuryD) apply cold compresses to the injured area C: assess the child and the extent of the injury. When applying the nursing process, assessment is the first step in providing care. The "5 Ps" of vascular impairment can be used as a guide (pain, pulse, pallor, paresthesia, paralysis). 27. The mother of a 3 month-old infant tells the nurse that she wants to change from formula to whole milk and add cereal and meats to the diet. What should be emphasized as the nurse teaches about infant nutrition? A) Solid foods should be introduced at 3-4 months B) Whole milk is difficult for a young infant to digest C) Fluoridated tap water should be used to dilute milk D) Supplemental apple juice can be used between feedings B: Whole milk is difficult for a young infant to digest. Cow''s milk is not given to infants younger than 1 year because the tough, hard curd is difficult to digest. In addition, it contains little iron and creates a high renal solute load. 28. The nurse is preparing a handout on infant feeding to be distributed to families visiting the clinic. Which notation should be included in the teaching materials? A) Solid foods are introduced one at a time beginning with cereal B) Finely ground meat should be started early to provide iron C) Egg white is added early to increase protein intake D) Solid foods should be mixed with formula in a bottle A: Solid foods are introduced one at a time beginning with cereal. Solid foods should be added one at a time between 4-6 months. If the infant is able to tolerate the food, another may be added in a week. Iron fortified cereal is the recommended first food. 29. The nurse planning care for a 12 year-old child with sickle cell disease in a vaso-occlusive crisis of the elbow should include which one of the following as a priority? A) Limit fluids B) Client controlled analgesia C) Cold compresses to elbow D) Passive range of motion exercise B: Client controlled analgesia. Management of a sickle cell crisis is directed towards supportive and symptomatic treatment. The priority of care is pain relief. In a 12 year-old child, client controlled analgesia promotes maximum comfort. 30. The nurse is performing a physical assessment on a toddler. Which of the following actions should be the first? A) Perform traumatic procedures B) Use minimal physical contact C) Proceed from head to toe D) Explain the exam in detail B: Use minimal physical contact. The nurse should approach the toddler slowly and use minimal physical contact initially so as to gain the toddler''s cooperation. Be flexible in the sequence of the exam, and give only brief simple explanations just prior to the action. 31. What finding signifies that children have attained the stage of concrete operations (Piaget)? A) Explores the environment with the use of sight and movement B) Thinks in mental images or word pictures C) Makes the moral judgment that "stealing is wrong" D) Reasons that homework is time-consuming yet necessary C: Makes the moral judgment that "stealing is wrong". The stage of concrete operations is depicted by logical thinking and moral judgments. 32. The mother of a child with a neural tube defect asks the nurse what she can do to decrease the chances of having another baby with a neural tube defect. What is the best response by the nurse? A) "Folic acid should be taken before and after conception." B) "Multivitamin supplements are recommended during pregnancy." C) "A well balanced diet promotes normal fetal development." D) "Increased dietary iron improves the health of mother and fetus." A: "Folic acid should be taken before and after conception.". The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that all childbearing women increase folic acid from dietary sources and/or supplements. There is evidence that increased amounts of folic acid prevents neural tube defects. 33. The provider orders Lanoxin (digoxin) 0.125 mg PO and furosemide 40 mg every day. Which of these foods would the nurse reinforce for the client to eat at least daily? A) Spaghetti B) Watermelon C) Chicken D) Tomatoes B: Watermelon. Watermelon is high in potassium and will replace potassium lost by the diuretic. The other foods are not high in potassium. 34. While teaching the family of a child who will take phenytoin (Dilantin) regularly for seizure control, it is most important for the nurse to teach them about which of the following actions? A) Maintain good oral hygiene and dental care B) Omit medication if the child is seizure free C) Administer acetaminophen to promote sleepD) Serve a diet that is high in iron A: Maintain good oral hygiene and dental care. Swollen and tender gums occur often with use of phenytoin. Good oral hygiene and regular visits to the dentist should be emphasized. 35. The nurse is offering safety instructions to a parent with a four month-old infant and a four yearold child. Which statement by the parent indicates understanding of appropriate precautions to take with the children? A) "I strap the infant car seat on the front seat to face backwards." B) "I place my infant in the middle of the living room floor on a blanket to play with my four yearold while I make supper in the kitchen." C) "My sleeping baby lies so cute in the crib with the little buttocks stuck up in the air while the four year-old naps on the sofa." D) "I have the four year-old hold and help feed the four month-old a bottle in the kitchen while I make supper." D: The infant seat is to be placed on the rear seat. Small children and infants are not to be left unsupervised. 36. The nurse admits a 7 year-old to the emergency room after a leg injury. The x-rays show a femur fracture near the epiphysis. The parents ask what will be the outcome of this injury. The appropriate response by the nurse should be which of these statements? A) "The injury is expected to heal quickly because of thin periosteum." B) "In some instances the result is a retarded bone growth." C) "Bone growth is stimulated in the affected leg." D) "This type of injury shows more rapid union than that of younger children." B: "In some instances the result is a retarded bone growth.". An epiphyseal [Show Less]
- Exam
- $13.95
- 0
- 200
NCSBN ON-LINE EXAM REVIEW FOR NCLEX RN EXAM
NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW NCLEX EXAM 1.A client has been hospitalized after an automobile accident. A full leg cast was applied in the emergency room. The mos... [Show More] t important reason for the nurse to elevate the casted leg is to A) Promote the client's comfort B) Reduce the drying time C) Decrease irritation to the skin D) Improve venous return D: Improve venous return. Elevating the leg both improves venous return and reduces swelling. Client comfort will be improved as well. 2. The nurse is reviewing with a client how to collect a clean catch urine specimen. What is the appropriate sequence to teach the client? A) Clean the meatus, begin voiding, then catch urine stream B) Void a little, clean the meatus, then collect specimen C) Clean the meatus, then urinate into container D) Void continuously and catch some of the urine A: Clean the meatus, begin voiding, then catch urine stream. A clean catch urine is difficult to obtain and requires clear directions. Instructing the client to carefully clean the meatus, then void naturally with a steady stream prevents surface bacteria from contaminating the urine specimen. As starting and stopping flow can be difficult, once the client begins voiding it’s best to just slip the container into the stream. Other responses do not reflect correct technique 3. Following change-of-shift report on an orthopedic unit, which client should the nurse see first? A) 16 year-old who had an open reduction of a fractured wrist 10 hours ago B) 20 year-old in skeletal traction for 2 weeks since a motor cycle accident C) 72 year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago D) 75 year-old who is in skin traction prior to planned hip pinning surgery. C: Look for the client who has the most imminent risks and acute vulnerability. The client who returned from surgery 2 hours ago is at risk for life threatening hemorrhage and should be seen first. The 16 year-old should be seen next because it is still the first post-op day. The 75 year-old is potentially vulnerable to age-related physical and cognitive consequences in skin traction should be seen next. The client who can safely be seen last is the 20 year-old who is 2 weeks post-injury. 4. A client with Guillain Barre is in a nonresponsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition? A) Comatose, breathing unlabored B) Glascow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular C) Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable D) Glascow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required B: Glascow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular. The Glascow Coma Scale provides a standard reference for assessing or monitoring level of consciousness. Any score less than 13 indicates a neurological impairment. Using the term comatose provides too much room for interpretation and is not very precise. 5. When caring for a client receiving warfarin sodium (Coumadin), which lab test would the nurse monitor to determine therapeutic response to the drug? A) Bleeding time B) Coagulation time C) Prothrombin time D) Partial thromboplastin time C: Prothrombin time. Coumadin is ordered daily, based on the client''s prothrombin time (PT). This test evaluates the adequacy of the extrinsic system and common pathway in the clotting cascade; Coumadin affects the Vitamin K dependent clotting factors. 6.A client with moderate persistent asthma is admitted for a minor surgical procedure. On admission the peak flow meter is measured at 480 liters/minute. Post-operatively the client is complaining of chest tightness. The peak flow has dropped to 200 liters/minute. What should the nurse do first? A) Notify both the surgeon and provider B) Administer the prn dose of albuterol C) Apply oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula D) Repeat the peak flow reading in 30 minutes B: Administer the prn dose of albuterol. Peak flow monitoring during exacerbations of asthma is recommended for clients with moderate-to-severe persistent asthma to determine the severity of the exacerbation and to guide the treatment. A peak flow reading of less than 50% of the client''s baseline reading is a medical alert condition and a short-acting beta-agonist must be taken immediately. 7.A client had 20 mg of Lasix (furosemide) PO at 10 AM. Which would be essential for the nurse to include at the change of shift report? A) The client lost 2 pounds in 24 hours B) The client’s potassium level is 4 mEq/liter. C) The client’s urine output was 1500 cc in 5 hours D) The client is to receive another dose of Lasix at 10 PM C: The client’s urine output was 1500 cc in 5 hours. Although all of these may be correct information to include in report, the essential piece would be the urine output. 8.A client has been tentatively diagnosed with Graves' disease (hyperthyroidism). Which of these findings noted on the initial nursing assessment requires quick intervention by the nurse? A) a report of 10 pounds weight loss in the last month B) a comment by the client "I just can't sit still." C) the appearance of eyeballs that appear to "pop" out of the client's eye sockets D) a report of the sudden onset of irritability in the past 2 weeks C: the appearance of eyeballs that appear to "pop" out of the client''s eye sockets. Exophthalmos or protruding eyeballs is a distinctive characteristic of Graves'' Disease. It can result in corneal abrasions with severe eye pain or damage when the eyelid is unable to blink down over the protruding eyeball. Eye drops or ointment may be needed. 9. The nurse has performed the initial assessments of 4 clients admitted with an acute episode of asthma. Which assessment finding would cause the nurse to call the provider immediately? A) prolonged inspiration with each breath B) expiratory wheezes that are suddenly absent in 1 lobe C) expectoration of large amounts of purulent mucous D) appearance of the use of abdominal muscles for breathing B: expiratory wheezes that are suddenly absent in 1 lobe. Acute asthma is characterized by expiratory wheezes caused by obstruction of the airways. Wheezes are a high pitched musical sounds produced by air moving through narrowed airways. Clients often associate wheezes with the feeling of tightness in the chest. However, sudden cessation of wheezing is an ominous or bad sign that indicates an emergency -- the small airways are now collapsed. 10. During the initial home visit, a nurse is discussing the care of a client newly diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease with family members. Which of these interventions would be most helpful at this time? A) leave a book about relaxation techniques B) write out a daily exercise routine for them to assist the client to do C) list actions to improve the client's daily nutritional intake D) suggest communication strategies D: suggest communication strategies. Alzheimer''s disease, a progressive chronic illness, greatly challenges caregivers. The nurse can be of greatest assistance in helping the family to use communication strategies to enhance their ability to relate to the client. By use of select verbal and nonverbal communication strategies the family can best support the client’s strengths and cope with any aberrant behavior. 11. An 80 year-old client admitted with a diagnosis of possible cerebral vascular accident has had a blood pressure from 160/100 to 180/110 over the past 2 hours. The nurse has also noted increased lethargy. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately to the provider? A) Slurred speech B) Incontinence C) Muscle weaknessD) Rapid pulse A: Slurred speech. Changes in speech patterns and level of conscious can be indicators of continued intracranial bleeding or extension of the stroke. Further diagnostic testing may be indicated. 12. A school-aged child has had a long leg (hip to ankle) synthetic cast applied 4 hours ago. Which statement from the parent indicates that teaching has been inadequate? A) "I will keep the cast uncovered for the next day to prevent burning of the skin." B) "I can apply an ice pack over the area to relieve itching inside the cast." C) "The cast should be propped on at least 2 pillows when my child is lying down." D) "I think I remember that my child should not stand until after 72 hours." D: "I think I remember that my child should not stand until after 72 hours.". Synthetic casts will typically set up in 30 minutes and dry in a few hours. Thus, the client may stand within the initial 24 hours. With plaster casts, the set up and drying time, especially in a long leg cast which is thicker than an arm cast, can take up to 72 hours. Both types of casts give off a lot of heat when drying and it is preferable to keep the cast uncovered for the first 24 hours. Clients may complain of a chill from the wet cast and therefore can simply be covered lightly with a sheet or blanket. Applying ice is a safe method of relieving the itching. 13. Which blood serum finding in a client with diabetic ketoacidosis alerts the nurse that immediate action is required? A) pH below 7.3 B) Potassium of 5.0 C) HCT of 60 D) Pa O2 of 79% C: HCT of 60. This high hematocrit is indicative of severe dehydration which requires priority attention in diabetic ketoacidosis. Without sufficient hydration, all systems of the body are at risk for hypoxia from a lack of or sluggish circulation. In the absence of insulin, which facilitates the transport of glucose into the cell, the body breaks down fats and proteins to supply energy ketones, a by-product of fat metabolism. These accumulate causing metabolic acidosis (pH < 7.3), which would be the second concern for this client. The potassium and PaO2 levels are near normal. 14. The nurse is preparing a client with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Which of the following would be necessary for preparing the client for this test? A) Client should be NPO after midnight B) Client should receive a sedative medication prior to the test C) Discontinue anti-coagulant therapy prior to the test D) No special preparation is necessary [Show Less]
- Exam
- $13.45
- 1
- 258
NCLEX RN EXAM DEC 2022
NCLEX DEC FILE 3 1. Which assessment best determines the effectiveness of Sumatriptan (triptans are used for treatment of Migraines so… Termination of... [Show More] the migraine 2. Pt with schizophrenia is prescribed chlorpromazine (Thorazine – first generation antipsychotic) oral concentrate The medication may cause excessive salivation and no direct skin contact (both correct – not a good question) 3. Which best assessment best determines the pt is developing tardive dyskinesia Twisting, writhing, worm-like movements of tongue 4. Pt with depression is prIscribed Fluoxitine (Prozac) “It may take 3-4 weeks before my mood is elevated” 5. Pt is on Marplan (MAOIs – have the most food interactions) for depression Bananas, smoked fish, and cheese 6. Pt on Lithium Polydypsia (increased thirst), slurred speech, and fine hand tremors 7.Pt is prescribed Lunesta for insomnia Anterograde amnesia (memory loss of events right before taking drug) 8. A 24 yr female gets Triazolam (Halcion) for insomnia at home (remember to use the process of elimination) “The medication will not alter my breathing” 9. A pt is prescribed Venlafaxine and the pt asks what the purpose of medication is, you should state Depression and anxiety 10. . A client who was prescribed atorvastatin Lipitor one month ago calls the triage nurse at the clinic complaining of muscle pain and weakness in his legs. Which statement reflects the correct drug-specific teaching the nurse should provide to this client? Make an appointment to see the healthcare provider, because muscle pain may be an indication of a serious side effect 11. [Show Less]
- Exam
- $13.45
- 0
- 168
2022 NCLEX RN EXAM (DECEMBER 2022)
NCLEX DEC FILE 2 1. Potential Which individual is at greatest risk for developing hypertension? A. 45-year-old African-American attorney 2. A 15-year-o... [Show More] ld female who ingested 15 tablets of maximum strength acetaminophen 45 minutes ago is rushed to the emergency department. Which of these orders should the nurse do first? A. Gastric lavage 3. Which complication of cardiac catheterization should the nurse monitor for in the initial 24 hours after the procedure? B. Thrombus formation 4. A client is admitted to the emergency room with renal calculi and is complaining of moderate to severe flank pain and nausea. The client’s temperature is 100.8 degrees Fahrenheit. The priority nursing goal for this client is: C.Manage pain 5. What would the nurse expect to see while assessing the growth of children during their school age years? D.Yearly weight gain of about 5.5 pounds per year 6. At a community health fair, the blood pressure of a 62-year-old client is 160/96 mmHg. The client states “My blood pressure is usually much lower.” The nurse should tell the client to: A. Go get a blood pressure check within the next 15 minutes 7. The hospital has sounded the call for a disaster drill on the evening shift. Which of these clients would the nurse put first on the list to be discharged in order to make a room available for a new admission? A. A middle-aged client with a history of being ventilator dependent for over Seven (7) years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago. 8. A 25-year-old male client has been newly diagnosed with hypothyroidism and will take levothyroxine (Synthroid) 50 mcg/day by mouth. As part of the teaching plan, the nurse emphasizes that this medication: A. Should be taken in the morning 9. A 3-year-old child was brought to the pediatric clinic after the sudden onset of findings that include irritability, thick muffled voice, croaking on inspiration, hot to touch, sit leaning forward, tongue protruding, drooling [Show Less]
- Exam
- $13.45
- 0
- 266
2022 NCLEX RN EXAM (DEC 2022)
NCLEX DEC FILE 1 1. How to prevent a renal calculi? limit tea and chocolate 2. If a patient is in F-vib what medication to give? Adenosine 3. A nurse ... [Show More] is caring for a patient and is unable to palpate a pedal pulse. What should the nurse do next? Obtain a doppler 4. A client with a history of COPD has established a walking program. How do we know that walking is effective? Cardiovascular improvement 5. A client complains of pain in the right calf. What is the nurse's priority? Remain in bed 6. A client just returned after having a TURP and has clot. What should the nurse do? slowly irrigate 7. What's Priority for a client with Multiple Scerolosis and has urinary rention? Self cathetherization 8. The nurse is monitoring drainainge of an abscess. What lab should the nurse monitor? WBCs 9. What intervetion the nurse shoudl implement for a patient with Congestive Heart Failure? Use bedside commode when needing to void 10.What intervention should be done for post op cataract extraction? implement deep breathing 11. A client is discharged on Prednisolone. What should the patient report? Wt gain 12. A client is diagnosed with Pyelinephritis. What is priority? IV antibiotics 13. What is a diet for Osteomalacia? Milk and cereal 14. What should the nurse instruct a client who has Raynuads Syndrome to do at work? Use space heater 15. What to teach a client with GERD? Wear loose clothing 16. How should a client with COPD breath? Pursed lips [Show Less]
- Exam
- $13.45
- 0
- 189
NCLEX RN STUDY GUIDE | Best for 2022 Revision
NCLEX RN STUDY GUIDE Evaluate Assess Teach Don’t delegate Unstable patients Initial Assessment, Teaching, IV drips, Evaluations only RN AIRBO... [Show More] RNE TRANSMISSION-BASED PRECAUTIONS: MTV Measles TB Varicella-Chicken Pox/Herpes Zoster-Shingles Private Room: Negative pressure with 6-12 air exchanges/hr Mask: N95 for TB DROPLET TRANSMISSION-BASED PRECAUTIONS: Think of SPIDERMAN! Sepsis Scarlet fever Streptococcal Pharyngitis (Streptococcus group A/ Strep Throat): Can Lead to Glomerulonephritis & Rheumatic Parvovirus B19 Fever. Pneumonia Pertussis Influenza/ Haemophilus influenza type B Diphtheria (Pharyngeal): Serious bacterial infection. Epiglottitis: Medial Emergency! No Throat Inspection. Rubella/ German measles NCLEX RN STUDY GUIDE Meningitidis Mycoplasma/ Meningeal Pneumonia An - Adenovirus Private Room or Cohort Surgical mask PRN for Procedures Mask 3ft Distance CONTACT PRECAUTION TRANSMISSION-BASED PRECAUTIONS: MRS.WEE Multidrug resistant organism/ MRSA/ VRE Respiratory infection Skin infections Wound infection Enteric infection - Clostridium Difficile Eye infection – Conjunctivitis *MRSA - Contact precaution ONLY. Use Chlorhexidine Wipe! *VRSA - Contact & Airborne precaution (Private room, door closed, negative pressure) *SARS (Severe Acute Resp Syndrome) Airborne & Contact (just like Varicella) SKIN INFECTIONS- VCHIPS- CONTACT Varicella Zoster Cutaneous Diphtheria (Bacteria Infection in the Wound) Herpes Simplex Impetigo (Bacterial Skin Infection) Pediculosis (Lice) Scabies (Itchy Skin condition. Burrowing Trail of the Scabies Mite) Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS): Viral respiratory illness caused by Coronavirus (MERS-CoV). 2 NCLEX RN STUDY GUIDE /S: Fever, Cough, SOB, and Death. The Incubation Period is 5-6 days but can range from 2-14 days. CDC: Standard (Gloves), Contact (Gown), Eye Protection (Goggles), Airborne Precautions (N95) Negative room: Negative disease (TB, Disseminated Herpes Zoster) Positive room: Protect the Patient (HIV, Cancer) Addison’s= hyponatremia, hypotension, decreased blood vol, hypoglycemia, hyperKalemia, HyperCalcemia. Cushing’s= HyperNatremia, HyperTension, Incr. Blood Vol, HyperGlycemia, hypokalemia, hypocalcemia. Managing Stress in a patient with Adrenal Insufficiency (Addison’s) is paramount, because if the Adrenal glands are stressed further it could result in Addisonian Crisis. Addison’s: Remember BP is the most Important assessment parameter, as it causes Severe Hypotension. Addison’s: (need to "add" hormone): Hypoglycemia, Dark pigmentation, Decr. Resistance to Stress, fractures, Alopecia, Weight Loss, GI distress. Vitiligo. Mood swings (Normal) Need to Report S/S of Infection/ Fever (Addisonian Crisis) Tx: Mineral Corticoids. Addisonian Crisis: Hypoglycemia, Confusion, n/v, Abd Pain, Extreme Weakness, Dehydration, Decr. BP. Cushings: (have extra "Cushion" of Hormones): Hyperglycemia, prone to Infection, Muscle Wasting, Weakness, Edema, HTN, Hirsutism, Moonfaced/Buffalo Hump Cause: Excessive production of Corticotropin (Hyperplasia of the Adrenal Cortex) & Cortisol-secreting Adrenal Tumor. Prednisone Toxicity: Cushing’s syndrome- Buffalo Hump, Moon face, Hyperglycemia, Hypertension. Acetaminophen: 10-20. Max 4000mg per day. Acetaminophen Poisoning: Possible Liver Failure for about 4 days. Close observation required. Tx: (Antidote) n-AcetylCysteine/Mucomyst NCLEX RN STUDY GUIDE (ASA): Metabolic Acidosis. S/S: Tinnitus, Coffee Ground Emesis (Old Blood), Black tarry stools (Melena), Bruising, Tachycardia, Hypotension, GI Ulcers. Tx: Activated Charcoal, then IV Na+ Carbonate. Acromegaly: Coarse Facial feature. Assess Cardiac Problems (eg. S3, S4). Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS): The 1st Sign is Incr. Respirations. Later comes Dyspnea, Retractions, Air Hunger, Cyanosis. Cardinal sign is Hypoxemia (Low O2 level in tissues). Refractory Hypoxemia is the hallmark of ARDS, a progressive form of acute respiratory failure that has a high Mortality rate. It can develop following a Pulmonary Insult (eg, aspiration, pneumonia, toxic inhalation) or nonpulmonary insult (eg, sepsis, multiple blood transfusions, trauma) to the Lung. The Inability to improve Oxygenation With Incr. in O2 concentration. The insult triggers a Massive Inflammatory response that causes the lung tissue to release inflammatory mediators (leukotrienes, proteases) that cause damage to the alveolar-capillary (A-C) membrane. As a result of the damage, the A-C membrane becomes more permeable, and intravascular fluid then leaks into the alveolar space, resulting in a Noncardiogenic Pulmonary Edema. The lungs become Stiff and Noncompliant, which makes Ventilation and Oxygenation less than optimal and results in increased work of breathing, tachypnea and alkalosis, atelectasis, and refractory hypoxemia. ARDS (fluids in alveoli), DIC (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation) are always Secondary to something else (another disease process). – Impaired Gas Exchange. PreOxygenated with 100% O2, and Suction should be applied for no more than 10 seconds to prevent hypoxia. The nurse must wait 1-2 minutes between passes to ventilate to prevent hypoxia. Deep reBreathing should be encouraged. The Suction catheter should be No more than half the width of the artificial airway and inserted without suction. Don Sterile gloves if it is not have a closed suction system. 2 NCLEX RN STUDY GUIDE uction should be set at Medium Pressure (100-120 mm Hg for adults, 50-75 mm Hg for children) as Excess pressure will traumatize the mucosa and can cause hypoxia. Clients usually Cough as the catheter enters the trachea, and this helps loosen secretions. The catheter should be advanced until resistance is felt and then, to prevent mucosal damage, Retracted 1 cm before applying suction. You will ask every New Admission if he has an Advance Directive, and if not you will explain it, and he will have the option to sign or not. Alcohol: a Toxin that causes CNS Depression. Alcohol withdrawal generally starts within 8 hours after the last drink and peaks at 24-72 hours. Acute alcohol intoxication: Confusion, Coordination Impairment, Drowsiness, Slurred Speech, Mood Swings, and Uninhibited actions. Hypoglycemia. Chronic Alcohol Abuse/Alcoholism: Benzodiapepine (lorazepam, diazepam, chlordiazepoxide) – to Treat Gross Tremors, Seizures, Delirium symptom. Chlordiazepoxide: For Alcohol withdrawal. Don’t take with Alcohol (terrible N/V can occur) Thiamine (B1): to treat Wernicke Encephalopathy, a Serious complication that manifests as altered mental status, oculomotor dysfunction, and ataxia. Also can lead to death or neurologic morbidity (Korsakoff Psychosis). Give before or with IV Glucose. Alzheimer’s Disease: Chronic, progressive, degenerative cognitive disorder that accounts for more than 60% of All Dementias. Memantine: Cognition Enhancing medication. It can treat Dementia associated with Alzheimer's disease. Improve symptoms cognition, Daily function, Behavioral problems. Donepezil: Cognition Enhancing medication. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS): a condition in which there is a Progressive, Degeneration of Motor Neurons in both the Upper & Lower Motor Neuron systems. Upper Motor Neuron issue: Hyper Reflexes Lower Motor Neuron issure: Absent Reflexes 2 NCLEX RN STUDY GUIDE /S: Limb weakness, Dysarthria (difficulty speaking), and Dysphagia. [Show Less]
- Study guide
- $13.95
- 0
- 133
NCLEX RN EXAM 2022 TEST BANK 900 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
NCLEX RN EXAM 2022 TEST BANK 900 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS NCLEXRN-01-001 Question Tag: hypertension Question Category: Physiological Integrity, Reduction... [Show More] of Risk Potential Which individual is at greatest risk for developing hypertension? A. 45-year-old African-American attorney B. 60-year-old Asian-American shop owner C. 40-year-old Caucasian nurse D. 55-year-old Hispanic teacher Correct Answer: A: 45-year-old African American attorney Option A: African-Americans develop high blood pressure at younger ages than other groups in the US. Researchers have uncovered that African-Americans respond differently to hypertensive drugs than other groups of people. They are also found out to be more sensitive to salt, which increases the risk of developing hypertension. Option B: The incidence of hypertension in Asian-Americans does not appear to be significantly higher than the general population, according to limited US data. Option C: The racial disparity in hypertension and hypertension-related outcomes has been recognized for decades with African-Americans with greater risks than Caucasians. Option D: Hypertension prevalence rates in Hispanics may vary by gender and country of origin. Hispanic Americans overall have relatively low levels of hypertension, despite elevated levels of diabetes and obesity. NCLEXRN-01-002 Question Tag: acetaminophen Question Category: Physiological Integrity, Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies A 15-year-old female who ingested 15 tablets of maximum strength acetaminophen 45 minutes ago is rushed to the emergency department. Which of these orders should the nurse do first? A. Gastric lavage B. Administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) orally C. Start an IV Dextrose 5% with 0.33% normal saline to keep the vein open D. Have the patient drink activated charcoal mixed with water Correct Answer: A. Gastric lavage Option A: Acetaminophen overdose is extremely toxic to the liver causing hepatotoxicity. Early symptoms of hepatic damage include nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. If not treated immediately, hepatic necrosis occurs and may lead to death. Removing as much of the drug as possible is the first step in treatment for acetaminophen overdose, this is best done through gastric lavage. Gastric lavage (irrigation) and aspiration consist of flushing the stomach with fluids and then aspirating the fluid back out. This procedure is done in life-threatening cases such as acetaminophen toxicity and only if less than one (1) hour has occurred after ingestion. Option B: The oral formulation of acetylcysteine is the drug of choice for the treatment of acetaminophen overdose but should be done after GI decontamination with activated charcoal. Liver damage is minimized by giving acetylcysteine (Mucomyst), the antidote for acetaminophen. Acetylcysteine reduces injury by substituting for depleted glutathione in the reaction that converts the toxic metabolite of acetaminophen to its nontoxic form. When given within 8 hours of acetaminophen toxicity, acetylcysteine is effective in preventing severe liver injury. It is administered orally or intravenously. Option C: Intermittent IV infusion with Dextrose 5% may be considered for late-presenting or chronic ingestion. Option D: Oral activated charcoal (AC) avidly adsorbs acetaminophen and may be administered if the patient presents within 1 hour after ingesting a potentially toxic dose. Charcoal should not be administered immediately before or with antidotes since it can effectively adsorb it and neutralize the benefits. NCLEXRN-01-003 Question Tag: cardiac catheterization Question Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment, Management of Care Which complication of cardiac catheterization should the nurse monitor for in the initial 24 hours after the procedure? A. Angina at rest B. Thrombus formation C. Dizziness D. Falling blood pressure Correct Answer: B. Thrombus formation A thrombus formation may prevent blood from flowing normally through the circulatory system, which may become an embolism, and block the flow of blood towards major organs in the body. Option A: The reported incidence of myocardial infarction with angina at rest is less than 0.1%, and is mostly influenced by patient-related factors like the extent and severity of underlying cardiovascular-related diseases and technique-related factors. Options C & D: A falling BP and dizziness occur along with hemorrhage of the insertion site which is associated with the first 12 hours after the procedure. NCLEXRN-01-004 Question Tag: renal calculi, flank pain Question Category: Physiological Integrity, Basic Care and Comfort A client is admitted to the emergency room with renal calculi and is complaining of moderate to severe flank pain and nausea. The client’s temperature is 100.8 degrees Fahrenheit. The priority nursing goal for this client is: A. Maintain fluid and electrolyte balance B. Control nausea C. Manage pain D. Prevent urinary tract infection Correct Answer: C. Manage pain Managing pain is always a priority because it ultimately improves the quality of life. The cornerstone of ureteral colic management is analgesia, which can be achieved most expediently with parenteral narcotics or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). Option A: IV hydration in the setting of acute renal colic is controversial. Whereas some authorities believe that IV fluids hasten the passage of the stone through the urogenital system, others express concern that additional hydrostatic pressure exacerbates the pain of renal colic. Option B: Because nausea and vomiting frequently accompany acute renal colic, antiemetics often play a role in renal colic therapy. Several antiemetics have a sedating effect that is often helpful. Option D: Overuse of the more effective antibiotic agents leaves only highly resistant bacteria, but failure to adequately treat a UTI complicated by an obstructing calculus can result in potentially life-threatening urosepsis and pyonephrosis. NCLEXRN-01-005 Question Tag: growth, school age Question Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance What would the nurse expect to see while assessing the growth of children during their school age years? A. Decreasing amounts of body fat and muscle mass B. Little change in body appearance from year to year C. Progressive height increase of 4 inches each year D. Yearly weight gain of about 5.5 pounds per year Correct Answer: D. Yearly weight gain of about 5.5 pounds per year School age children gain about 5.5 pounds each year and increase about 2 inches in height. Between ages 2 to 10 years, a child will grow at a steady pace. Option A: Decreasing amounts of body fat and muscle mass are common in toddlers. Option B: A decrease in the change in body appearance occurs among young adults. Option C: Growth spurts are common in school-age children, as are periods of slow growth. NCLEXRN-01-006 Question Tag: blood pressure Question Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance At a community health fair, the blood pressure of a 62-year-old client is 160/96 mmHg. The client states “My blood pressure is usually much lower.” The nurse should tell the client to: A. Go get a blood pressure check within the next 15 minutes B. Check blood pressure again in two (2) months C. See the healthcare provider immediately D. Visit the health care provider within one (1) week for a BP check Correct Answer: A. Go get a blood pressure check within the next 15 minutes. The blood pressure reading is moderately high with the need to have it rechecked after a few minutes to verify. The client states it is ‘usually much lower.’ Thus a concern exists for complications such as stroke. Options B & D: Waiting 2 months or a week for follow-up is too long. Option C: Immediate check by the provider of care is not warranted. NCLEXRN-01-007 [Show Less]
- Exam
- $14.95
- 0
- 187
Purchase the bundle to get the full access instantly
- 3 Million+ Study Documents
- 100% Money Back Guarantee
- Immediate Download Access
Add To Cart
Reviews 0
Bundle Details
$29.45
- Trusted by 800,000+ Students
- 24/7 Money Back Guarantee
- Download is directly available
245
0
Seller Details
