What
is
the study
of the
structure
of
1. the human body?
A. Anatomy
B. Physiology
C. Anabolism
D. Catabolism
E. Metabolism
A. Sodium
B. The
C
... [Show More] . liver
D. Mitochondria
E. The
skeletal
F. system
G. Epithelium
What
is
the breakdown
of
3. nutrients?
A. Anatomy
B. Physiology
C. Anabolism
D. Catabolism
E. Metabolism
List
the four
basic
types
of
1. tissues.
List the three layers of the skin in order from
to
.
Testosterone
contributes
to
muscle
strength
and
bone
mass.
Based
upon
your
learning
of
metabolism,
would
it
be
considered
an
anabolic
or
catabolic
hormone?
Explain
2. why.
What
anatomical
orientation
term
is
used
to
indicate
"toward
the
front
of
the
1. body"?
A. Superior
B. Inferior
C. Ventral
D. Dorsal
E. Medial
What
anatomical
orientation
term
is
used
to
indicate
"toward
the upper
part
of
a
2. structure"?
A. Superior
B. Inferior
C. Ventral
D. Dorsal
E. Medial
What
anatomical
orientation
term
is
used
to
indicate
"away
from the
3. head end"?
What anatomical orientation term is used to indicate "further from the origin of the body
4. part"?
You
are
looking
at
a
diagram
of
a
patient
standing
in
anatomical
position.
On
the
sheet
of
paper
containing
the
diagram,
which
thumb
points
to
the
left
side
of
the
paper,
right
or
5. left?
Are
the
arms
part
of
the
axial or
appendicular
region
of
1. the body?
The patient moves his hand to scratch his nose.
What
anatomical
action term is
best used to
indicate the
motion
occurring
at his
2. elbow?
A. Flexion
B. Extension
C. Elevation
D. Depression
E. Abduction
What
anatomical
action
term
is
used
to indicate
"movement
away
from
3. midline"?
A. Flexion
B. Extension
C. Elevation
D. Depression
E. Abduction
Describe
the
position
of
the
epigastric
region
relative
to
the
umbilical
region
in
anatomical
position terms.
1.
Which
anatomical
action
is
occurring
at
the
elbow
joint,
in
the
direction
of
2. the arrow?
Look
at
the
figure
below.
The
right
femur
is
moved
in
the
direction
of
the
arrow.
What
anatomical action
term
best
3. describes this movement?
List
two
organs
contained
in
the
pelvic
1. cavity.
True
or
False:
The
ventral
body
cavity
contains
the
cranial
cavity,
the
thoracic
cavity,
and
the
abdominal
cavity.
If
your
answer
is
false,
rephrase
the
statement
to
make
it
a
true
2. statement.
Using
the letters
given,
match
the
cell
with
the
type
of
solution
it
has
been
placed
in:
to
1. swell A. Isotonic
Using
the
letters
given,
match
each
molecule/item
with
its
typical
means
of
entering
a
cell.
2.
Which
one
of
the following
is
not true
of
3. active transport?
Active
transport
occurs
against
the
concentration
A. gradient
B. Carrier
proteins
move
particles
from
greater
concentration
to
C. lesser
D. The
sodium-potassium
pump
is
an
E. example
F. additional
energy
is
required
to
drive
this
G. process
List
the
three
organelles,
in
order,
involved
in
the
synthesis,
transport
and
shipping
of
4. proteins.
rough
ER,
Golgi
complex,
A. lysosomes
B. ribosomes,
rough
ER,
Golgi
C. complex
D. ribosomes,
smooth
ER,
Golgi
E. complex
F. rough
ER,
Golgi
complex,
G. vacuole
True
or
1. False?
cellular
respiration
is
to
produce
ADP.
(T
or
a. F)
Peripheral
proteins
are found
on
the
outer surface
of
a
cell membrane. (T
or
b. F)
Exocytosis
is
the process
that
occurs to
bring
biomacromolecules
inside
the
cell.
(T
or
c. F)
Receptor-mediated
endocytosis
uses
a
signaling
molecule
from
another
cell,
binding
to
the
cell
membrane to bring about changes within the cell
proteins. (T
d. or F)
Endocytosis
is
a
passive
process.
It
does
not
require
cellular
energy
expenditure.(T
or
F)
e.
In
your
own
words,
discuss
Tay-Sachs
disease.
What
organelle
within
the
cell
is
impacted?
What
are
the
symptoms
of
the
disease
and why
1. do they occur?
(1) Lysosomes
(2) buildup
of
toxic
lipids
inside
the
cell
(3) (biomacromolecules)
(4) disability
and
(5) death
You
are
observing
two
cells
under
the
microscope.
They
are
the
same
type
of
eukaryotic
cell
but one appears much larger. Based on appearance alone, which one would you expect to be
carrying
out
respiration
at
a
more
active
rate,
the larger
or
smaller cell?
Explain
2. why.
How
many
lobes
does
the right human
lung
1. have?
Air
(and
not
food)
pass
in
which
of
the
2. following areas:
A. Esophagus
B. Nasopharynx
C. Oropharynx
D. Both
A.
and
E. C.
Rings of cartilage line much of the respiratory tract. In which of one the following would
cartilage
NOT
be
3. found?
A. Trachea
B. Larynx
C. Bronchi
D. Alveoli
Explain
what
happens
to
the
soft
palate
during
swallowing.
1. Why?
Explain
at
least
two
differences
between
Type
I
and
Type
II
alveolar
2. cells.
Type
I
form
the
very
thin
simple
squamous
epithelium
of
the
alveoli
in
junction
with
capillaries.
Make
up roughly 95% of alveolar
epithelial
a. cells.
Type II produce and secrete pulmonary surfactant which is needed throughout the alveolar
surface
to
keep
the
alveoli
open.
In
addition,
Type
II
cells
can
divide
to
replace
damaged
Type
I
cells.
Make
up roughly
5% of
alveolar epithelial
b. cells.
Negative
pressure
is
used
to
move
air
into
1. the lungs.
During
exhalation
the
diaphragm contracts
to
actively push
air
out
of
the
2. lungs.
During
inhalation
the
rib
cage
lifts
in an
upward
motion
to
open and
expand
the
3. lungs.
As
the
thoracic
cavity
expands
and
lung
volume
increases, the
density
of
the
gases
filling
the
lungs
4. .
When
the
diaphragm
rises,
thoracic
pressure
increases
and
air
naturally flows
out
of
the
5. lungs.
Boyle's
law
states
that
gas
volume
1. is
A. Directly
proportional
to
B. temperature
C. Inversely
proportional
to
D. temperature
E. Directly
proportional to
F. pressure
G. Inversely
proportional to
H. pressure
I. Both
A
J. and B
Typical
respiratory
epithelium
contains
all
of
the
following,
except
which
2. ?
A. cilia
B. layers
C. tall,
narrow
D. cells
E. mucus
producing
F. cells
G. goblet
H. cells
Which
cells
are
most
abundant
within
the
3. alveoli?
A. Macrophages
B. Type
1
alveolar
C. cells
D. Type
2
alveolar
E. cells
F. Erythrocytes
G. Ciliated
columnar
H. cells
Which
of
the following
is
not
true
of
the
4. respiratory physiology?
A. Tidal
volume
is
the
maximum
amount
of
air
able
to
be
inhaled
beyond
normal
B. inhalation
C. Tidal
volume
is
the
amount of
air
inhaled
and
exhaled in
one
cycle
of
quiet
D. breathing
E. Inspiratory reserve volume is the maximum amount of air able to be inhaled beyond normal
F. inhalation
G. Expiratory reserve volume is the maximum amount of air able to be exhaled beyond normal
H. exhalation
Which
one
of
the
following
is
true
of
the
respiratory
5. physiology calculations?
Vital
Capacity
(
)
=
A. ERV+TV
B. Total
Lung
Capacity
(
)
=
VC
C. +RV
D. Inspiratory
Capacity
(
)
=
E. TV+RV
F. Functional
Residual
Capacity
(
)
=
IRV
+
G. TV
Typical
respiratory
epithelium
contains
cells
where
only
some
of
the
pseudostratified
columnar
cells touch
the
1. basement membrane.
The
vestibule
is
the
most
external
portion
of
the
nasal
2. cavity.
The
vestibule
is
lined
with
typical
respiratory
3. epithelium.
The
fossae
is
another
name
for
the pleural
4. cavities.
The
bronchioles are
surrounded
by
capillaries
for
gas
5. exchange.
From
widest
to
narrowest,
the branches
of
the bronchial
1. tree are:
A. Secondary
bronchi,
tertiary
bronchi,
primary
bronchi,
B. bronchioles
C. Bronchioles,
primary
bronchi,
secondary
bronchi,
tertiary
D. bronchi
E. Tertiary
bronchi,
secondary
bronchi,
primary
bronchi,
F. bronchioles
G. Primary
bronchi,
secondary
bronchi,
tertiary
bronchi,
H. bronchioles
In
gas
exchange
2. (external respiration):
A. Carbon
dioxide
diffuses
from
alveoli
into
capillaries,
oxygen
diffuses
from
capillaries
into
B. alveoli
C. Oxygen
and
carbon dioxide
is
carried
from
alveoli into
the
D. bronchioles
E. Oxygen
diffuses
from
alveoli
into
capillaries,
carbon
dioxide
diffuses
from
capillaries
into
F. alveoli
G. Oxygen
is
chemically
transformed
into
carbon
dioxide
within
the
H. alveoli
The
purpose
of
alveolar
macrophages
is
3. to:
A. Produce
a
B. lipoprotein
C. Form
a thin,
simple
squamous
epithelium
of
the
D. alveoli
E. Produce
mucous
in
order
to
trap
F. bacteria
G. Act
as
the
primary
immune
defense within
H. the alveoli
Explain
why
a
patient
with
liver
disease
would
have
intolerance
to
fatty
1. foods.
Explain
in
detail
how
the
stomach
contents
enter
the
small
2. intestine.
dose of a vitamin that would not easily cause vitamin
toxicity.
What type
of
vitamin would
be
the
best
to
prescribe?
1. .
A. Water
soluble
B. vitamin
C. Fat
soluble
D. vitamin
E. All
of
F. the above
Explain
which
digestive
system
functions
are
carried
out
by
the
large
2. intestine.
Match
the
digestive
organ
with
the
one
substance
it
produces:
(4
points):
1. Pancreas
A. Chyme
B. Salivary
C. amylase
D. Vitamin
E. E
F. Pepsinogen
G. Lipase
What
is
the purpose
of
the
2. hormone Ghrelin?
A. Increase
hunger,
decrease
B. satiety
C. Increase
hunger,
increase
D. satiety
E. Decrease
hunger,
increase
F. satiety
G. Decrease
hunger,
decrease
H. satiety
Which
of
the
following
statements is
3. false?
A. Taste
buds
are
located
on
the
surface
of
the
mouth
and
the
wall
of
the
B. pharynx.
C. The
ileocecal
valve
controls
the
entrance
of
chyme
into
to
the
small
D. intestine.
E. The
gall
bladder,
teeth,
and
tongue
are
considered
accessory
organs
to
the
digestive
F. system.
G. The
alimentary
canal is
a
continuous
muscular
tube,
open
at
both
H. ends.
Lipids
can
be
divided
into
three
categories:
saturated
fat,
unsaturated
fat,
and
1. cholesterol.
Anabolism
combines
smaller
molecules
to
make
larger
2. molecules.
The
nasopharynx
is
the most
superior
region
of
the
3. pharynx.
The
pharynx
has
three
types
of
skeletal
muscle:
circumferential,
longitudinal
and
4. oblique.
The
digestive
work
of
salivary
amylase
is
an
example
of
mechanical
5. digestion.
Which
of
the
following
statements is
concerning
1. glycolysis?
A. Pyruvic
acid
are broken
down
into
B. glucose.
C.
Glucose
is
broken
down
into
three
pyruvate
D. molecules.
E. Glucose
is
broken
down
into two
sucrose
F. molecules.
Which
of
the
following
statements is
concerning
the
second
stage
of
glucose
2. breakdown?
A. This
is
also
known
as
proton
B. motive force.
C. Fermentation
takes place
here
with
oxygen
D. present.
E.
F. Glucose
molecules are
G. formed.
Which
of
the
following
statements is
concerning
the
Electron
Transport
3. System?
A. Anaerobic
respiration
is
more
efficient
than
aerobic
B. respiration.
C.
D. Protons
are
pumped
out
of
the
inner
E. mitochondrial membrane.
force
forms
ATP
F. molecules.
1. Uvula:
A. Connects
mouth
to
B. esophagus
C. Forms
food
into a
D. bolus
E. Attaches
to
the
lesser
F. omentum
G. Stores
glycogen
and
produces
H. urea
I. Attached
to
the
soft
J. palate
Small
2. Intestine:
A. First
section
is
called
the
B. jejunum
C. Contains
the
D. LES
E. Attaches
to
the
greater
F. omentum
G. Pancreas
secretions
enter
here
via
Hepatopancreatic
H. ampulla
I. Secretes
Vitamin
J. K
Muscularis
externa
(layer
of
3. tissue):
A. Made
of
two
layers of
B. muscle
C. Innermost
D. layer
E. Secretes
F. mucous
G. Contains
blood
and
lymph
H. vessels
I. Begins
in
J. the mouth
Upper
portion of
K. gums
L. Outermost
M. layer
N. Bone-like
O. substance
P. Hard
connective
Q. tissue
R. Contains
longitudinal
S. muscle
Common
Bile
4. Duct
A. Contains
lymph
vessels
and
B. nerve
C. Joins
with
the thoracic
D. duct
E. Enters
the
F. ileum
G. Contains
secretions
from
the
H. pancreas
I. Contains
secretions
from
the
J. gallbladder
Which
of
the
following
statements is
TRUE
concerning
the
function
1. bones?
A. Flat
bones
are
long
and thin,
such
as
B. the ulna.
C. Long
bones
have
an
irregular
D. structure
E. The
carpals
are
an
example
of
short
F. bones.
G. Vertebrae
are
an
example
of
sesamoid
H. bone.
Which
of
the
following
statements
is
FALSE
concerning
2. bones?
A. Bones
are
not
completely
smooth
B. surfaces.
for a
tendon
or ligament
C. attachment.
D. A
process
is
an
elevation found
in
E. bone.
F. Bones
are
a storage
site
for
phosphorus
and
G. calcium.
Which
of
the
following
statements
is
FALSE
about
the
skeletal
3. system?
A. The
two
main
divisions of
the
skeletal
system are:
lumbar
and
B. thoracic.
C. The
two
main
divisions
of
the
skeletal
system
are:
axial
and
D. appendicular.
E. The
lumbar
division
of
the
skeleton
is
included
in
the
appendicular
F. skeleton.
G. The
axial
skeleton
includes
the laryngeal
H. skeleton.
I. B.
and
D.
are
J. false
K. A.
and
C
are
L. false
The
cranium is
formed
by
bones;
the
facial
skeleton
contains
bones.
A. 22;
4. 14
What
bone
is
highlighted in
blue
in
the
figure
below?
5. (superior/internal view)
Label the following vertebrae as:
A=
1. Cervical
Label the following vertebrae as:
A=
2. Cervical
What is the name of the foramina in the figure below?
3. 1:
Yellow
bone
1. marrow:
A. is
found
primarily in
long
B. bones.
C. is
found
primarily in
short
and
flat
D. bones.
E. is
found
primarily in
newborns,
not
F. adults.
G. produces
red
blood
H. cells.
The diaphysis
of
a
2. bone:
A. is
found
at the
ends
of
long
B. bones.
C. contains
the
articular
cartilage
at
joint
D. articulations.
E. contains
the
proximal
F. epiphysis.
G. is
the center
length of
a
H. bone.
I. both
A.
and
J. C.
Compact
3. bone:
A. forms
the exterior of
B. bones.
C. forms
the interior
of
D. bones.
E. is
lighter
than
spongy
F. bone.
G. contains
numerous
bars
and
plates
with
irregular
H. spaces.
I. both
B.
and
J. D.
Intramembranous
ossification
is
the
formation of
from
4. :
A. a
growth
plate; the
center
of
B. a bone.
C. long
bones;
hyaline
D. cartilage.
E. flat
bones;
connective
F. tissue.
G. a
primary
ossification
center;
a
cartilaginous
H. disc.
I. both
A.
and
J. C.
What
term
describes
the
type
of
fracture pictured
5. below?
(1) In
your
own
words, describe this
diagnosis
1. and
Osteoporosis
is
a
bone
tissue
disease.
When
bone
tissue
degenerates
faster
than
is
replaced,
the
bones
become weak.
Brittle bones
cause
increased
pain and
are
more likely
to
(1) fracture.
(2) They would have decreased osteoblasts which are responsible for bone repair. The bone
repair would be unable to keep up with the ongoing breakdown of bone which is done by the
work
(3) of osteoblasts.
Your patient has back pain due to a herniated disc. (1) In your own words explain what it
have a
herniated
disc. (2)
As
reviewed
in
the module,
discuss
one treatment
option
to
address
your patient’s
2. pain.
intervertebral disc, where the center portion of the disc
bulges
into the
vertebral
foramen, causing
(1) pain.
(2) Explanation
(3) of
(1) In
your
own
words, describe this
diagnosis
1. and
Your patient has back pain due to a herniated disc. (1) In your own words explain what it
have a
herniated
disc. (2)
As
reviewed
in
the module,
discuss
one treatment
option
2. to
1. Elbow joint
Thumb
2. joint
Hip
3. joint
Vertebral joint
4.
Cranial
joints
5.
There
are
five
types
of
muscle
tissue
found
in
the
1. body.
Cardiac
and
smooth
muscle tissue
are
both
under
involuntary
2. control.
The
musculocutaneous
nerve is
part
of
the central
nervous
3. system.
sent from
a
muscle
to
the
central
4. nervous system.
The
cervical
plexus contains
nerves
that
innervate
the
5. thigh.
Tendons
connect
which
types
of
1. tissue?
Acetylcholine
is
what
type
of
2. substance?
During
a
muscle
contraction
which
protein
myofilament
contains
3. cross-bridges?
What
is
the
name
of
the
4. thick myofilament?
What
must
occur
for
a
muscle contraction
to
5. stop?
Your
patient
sustained
an
injury
to
their
facial
nerve
(CN
VII).
Which
actions
would
be
1. impaired?
Eye
A. closure
B. Raising
C. eyebrows
D. Jaw
E. closure
F. Neck
G. flexion
H. A&B
I. C&D
Your
patient
is
having
difficulty
when
asked
to
bring
his
chin
to
his
chest.
He
is
also
having
difficulty turning
his
face
from
side to
side.
What muscle
is
most
likely
2. impaired?
Semispinalis
A. capitis
B. Splenius
C. Capitis
D. Sternocleidomastoid
E. Scalenes
to the muscle group closest to the spine. What muscle group
was
3. injured?
A. Longissimus
B. Spinalis
C. Sternocleidomastoid
D. Iliocostalis
E. Rectus
F. abdominis
True
or
False:
When
a
muscle
contracts,
the
Z
lines
within
a
sarcomere
come
closer
together
towards
the
M
4. line.
True
or
False:
The
I
bands
contain
thick
5. filaments.
Which
muscle
contracts
to
enable
the
main
effort
required
to
stand
on
your
1. toes?
A. Biceps
B. femoris
C. Quadriceps
D. Gastrocnemius
E. Tibialis
F. anterior
When
gluteus
maximus
contracts,
which
bone
is
pulled
posteriorly
by
this
2. muscle?
A. Ilium
B. Ulna
C. Femur
When
flexor
digitorum
profundus
contracts,
what
action(s)
3. occurs?
Wrist
A. flexion
B. Elbow
C. flexion
D. Flexion
of
E. digits 2-5
F. Flexion
of
G. digit 1
H. A&D
I. B&C
Contraction
of
results
in
4. ?
A. obturator
externus,
spine
B. flexion
C. obturator
externus,
spine
D. extension
E. iliacus,
hip
F. flexion
G. iliacus,
hip
H. extension
When
piriformis contracts,
what
action(s)
will
not
occur
at the
5. hip?
A. Internal
B. rotation
C. Lateral
D. rotation
E. Adduction
F. Flexion
G. Extension
H. A&D
I. B&E
Which
muscle
has
origins
on
both
the
clavicle
and
scapula?
(specify
letter
on
diagram
with
the
name
of the
muscle
for full
1. credit)
Which
muscle
is
innervated
by
the
thoracodorsal
nerve?
(specify
letter
on
diagram
with
the
name
of the
muscle
for full
2. credit)
What is the name of muscle D? (specify letter on diagram with the name of the muscle for full
3. credit)
What is the innervation of muscle D? (specify letter on diagram with the name of the muscle
for
full
4. credit)
What
is
the
insertion
of
muscle
E? (specify
letter on
diagram
with
the name
of
the
muscle
for
5. full credit)
Positive feedback is the action of a hormone increasing the production of that hormone. (This
is
the
opposite
of negative
1- feedback).
One example is the action of oxytocin causing the uterus to contract during labor. Oxytocin
enhances
the
effect
of
the
uterus
contractions,
causing
more
oxytocin
to
be
released.
The
positive
feedback loop is stopped once the baby is born and the uterus no longer needs to contract,
stopping the
2- production of oxytocin.
Which
hormone/s are
involved
in
milk
1. production?
A. Thyroxin
B. Oxytocin
C. Prolactin
D. B
E. &C
F. A&B
Which
cells
mature
in
the
2. thymus?
B
A. cells
B. T
C. cells
D. Red
blood
E. cells
F. the
islets
of
G. Langerhans
H. A
&
I. B
Iodine
is
needed to
produce
3. which hormone/s?
A. Gonadotropic
B. ACTH
C. TSH
D. A
&
E. D
Which
of
the following
is
NOT
a
function
of
4. oxytocin?
Uterine
A. contraction
B. Bone
C. growth
D. Milk
E. letdown
F. Given
to
aide
in
childbirth
G. process
Which
hormones
are
produced
in
the
anterior
5. pituitary?
TSH,
MSH,
and
A. calcitonin
B. ADH,
GH,
and
C. prolactin
D. PTH,
TSH,
and
E. FH
F. ACTH,
GH,
and
G. prolactin
Congenital
1. hypothyroidism
Pituitary
2. giant
3. Acromegaly
4. Tetany
5. Anemia
Overproduction
of
GH
as
a
A. child
B. Underproduction
of
GH
as
C. a child
D. Low
thyroxin
production
since
E. birth
F. High
thyroxin
production
since
G. birth
H. Lack
of
erythropoietin
to act
on
the
bone
I. marrow
J. Results
if
PTH
is
not
produced in
response
to
low
blood
K. calcium
L. Results
if
calcitonin
is
not
produced
in
response
to
low
blood
M. calcium
N. Overproduction
of
GH
as
an
O. adult
In
addition
to
the
endocrine
system,
the
pancreas
is
also
part
of
which
1. system?
A. Excretory
B. Nervous
C. Circulatory
D. Digestive
Which
part of
the
adrenal
glands
is
vital to
2. life?
A. Cortex
B. Medulla
C. The
entire
D. gland
E. None
of
adrenal gland
is
vital to
F. life
Which
of
the
following
is
regarding
3. aldosterone?
It
is
a
regulated by
the
concentration
of
A. sodium.
B. It
causes
the
kidneys to
excrete
potassium
and
retain
C. sodium.
D. It
causes
the
kidneys to
retain
potassium
and
excrete
E. sodium.
F. It
is
G. a mineralocorticoid.
H. It
increases
blood
I. pressure
If you were calcium deficient, which
would occur in your body if there was no
hormonal
4. compensation?
A. Tetany
B. Acromegaly
C. Jet
D. lag
Which
of
the
following
is
regarding
5. estrogen?
A. Production
is
highest
in
B. childhood.
C. It
causes
growth of
the
uterus and
D. vagina.
E. It
decreases
fat
F. storage.
G. It
causes
females
to
have
a
narrower
pelvis
(compared
to
H. males).
The
layers
of
the
epidermis,
from
deep to
1. superficial are:
A. Stratum
corneum,
stratum
granulosum,
stratum
spinosum,
stratum
B. basale.
C. Stratum
basale,
stratum
spinosum,
stratum
granulosum,
stratum
D. corneum.
E. Stratum
basale,
stratum
granulosum,
stratum
corneum,
Stratum
F. spinosum.
G. Stratum
corneum,
stratum
spinosum,
stratum
granulosum,
stratum
H. basale.
Exocrine
glands
secrete
;
Endocrine
glands
secrete
2. .
A. for
body-wide
distribution,
into
an
epithelial
B. lining
C. into
an
epithelial
lining,
for
body-wide
D. distribution
E. through
a
duct,
into
F. the bloodstream
G. into
the
bloodstream,
through
a
H. duct
I. A&D
J. B&C
Which
of
the
following
is
false
regarding
the
3. epidermis:
A. It
is
B. avascular.
C. As
cells
divide
they
are
pushed
towards
the
basement
D. membrane.
E. The
cells of
the
stratum
basale
cells have
a
high
rate
of
cell
F. division.
G. Epidermal
ridges
form
a
person’s
H. fingerprints.
What
type
of sensory organ detects
1. this information?
Merkel
cells are
embedded
in
what
layer of
the
2. skin?
In
your
own
words,
how
can
the
skin
be
used
to determine
if
a
person
is
3. dehydrated?
All
of
the following
are functions
of
skin
1. except:
A. Absorb
UV
B. rays
C. Produce
vitamin
D. C
E. Thermoregulation
F. Protection
for
underlying
G. tissues
The
thickest
region
of
the
dermis is
2. the:
A. Reticular
B. Papillary
C. Basement
D. membrane
E. Subcutaneous
F. None
of
the
above are
layers
of
the
G. dermis
The
hypodermis
is
comprised
mainly
3. of:
A. Adipocytes
B. Reticular
C. cells
D. Dermatomes
E. Sebaceous
F. glands
What
is
a
4. contusion?
A. A
third
B. degree burn
C. An
infection
in
the
D. epidermis
E. Damage
to
a broken
blood
F. vessel
G. Subcutaneous
H. injection
Information
from
a
dermatome
travels
5. to:
A. The
B. brain
C. A
hair
D. follicle
E. A
F. gland
G. The
H. skin
Your
patient
was
injured
in
a
house
fire.
The
skin
sustained
damage
through
the
epidermis,
dermis,
hypodermis, and
some
muscle
1. tissue.
1- What
degree
of
burn
best
describes
your
patient’s
2- injury?
3- Would
your
patient
experience
pain
in
the
injured
area?
Why
or
why
4- not?
This
part
of
a
hair contains
blood
and
nervous
1. supply:
A. Bulb
B. Root
C. Shaft
D. Keratin
Hair is
made
up
2. of:
A. Living
epidermal
cells
converted
to
B. collagen
C. Dead
epidermal
cells
converted
to
D. collagen
E. Living
epidermal
cells
converted
to
F. keratin
G. Dead
epidermal
cells
converted
to
H. keratin
Nails
are
hard,
dead
cells
which
have
been
converted
to
3.
A. Keratin
B. Collagen
C. Calcium
D. Corneum
The nail
is
a
portion of
the
nail
not
4. visible.
A. cuticle
B. body
C. root
D. lunula
Why
would
a person
receive
a
skin
1. graft?
Skin grafting decreases recovery time and prevents infection
(1) OR
(2) If
skin
has
been
damaged
severely
and/or
covers
a
large
surface
(3) area
What
substance
from the
blood
accumulates
to
form
a
2. clot?
A. White
blood
B. cells
C. Red
blood
D. cells
E. Macrophages
F. Platelets
Mast
cells
secrete
what
3. chemical?
A. Collagen
B. Histamine
C. Platelets
D. Heparin
Macrophages
4.
A. secrete
B. histamine.
C. remove
D. fibroblasts.
engulf
E. bacteria.
F. replace
old
tissue
G. matrix.
A
scar
5. .
A. is
called
B. clotting.
C. maintains
full
function
of
the
original
D. tissue.
E. is
an
overgrowth
of
fibrous
connective
F. tissue.
G. supports
the
tissue
matrix until
the
old
cells
are
H. developed. [Show Less]
