NURS 4403 Chapter 10: Assessment of High Risk Pregnancy
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A woman arrives at the clinic seeking confirmation that she is
... [Show More] pregnant. The following information is obtained: She is 24 years old with a body mass index (BMI) of 17.5. She admits to having used cocaine “several times” during the past year and drinks alcohol occasionally. Her blood pressure (BP) is 108/70 mm Hg, her pulse rate is 72 beats/min, and her respiratory rate is 16 breaths/min. The family history is positive for diabetes mellitus and cancer. Her sister recently gave birth to an infant with a neural tube defect (NTD). Which characteristics place the woman in a high risk category?
a. Blood pressure, age, BMI
b. Drug/alcohol use, age, family history
c. Family history, blood pressure, BMI
d. Family history, BMI, drug/alcohol abuse
2. A 39-year-old primigravida thinks that she is about 8 weeks pregnant, although she has had irregular menstrual periods all her life. She has a history of smoking approximately one pack of cigarettes a day, but she tells you that she is trying to cut down. Her laboratory data are within normal limits. What diagnostic technique could be used with this pregnant woman at this time?
a. Ultrasound examination
b. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening
c. Amniocentesis
d. Nonstress test (NST)
3. The nurse sees a woman for the first time when she is 30 weeks pregnant. The woman has smoked throughout the pregnancy, and fundal height measurements now are suggestive of growth restriction in the fetus. In addition to ultrasound to measure fetal size, what other tool would be useful in confirming the diagnosis?
a. Doppler blood flow analysis c. Amniocentesis
b. Contraction stress test (CST) d. Daily fetal movement counts
4. A 41-week pregnant multigravida presents in the labor and delivery unit after a nonstress test indicated that her fetus could be experiencing some difficulties in utero. Which diagnostic tool would yield more detailed information about the fetus?
a. Ultrasound for fetal anomalies
b. Biophysical profile (BPP)
c. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening
d. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS)
5. At 35 weeks of pregnancy a woman experiences preterm labor. Tocolytics are administered and she is placed on bed rest, but she continues to experience regular uterine contractions, and her cervix is beginning to dilate and efface. What would be an important test for fetal well- being at this time?
a. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS)
b. Ultrasound for fetal size
c. Amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity
d. Nonstress test (NST)
6. A 40-year-old woman is 10 weeks pregnant. Which diagnostic tool would be appropriate to suggest to her at this time?
a. Biophysical profile (BPP)
b. Amniocentesis
c. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening
d. Transvaginal ultrasound
7. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening indicates an elevated level. MSAFP screening is repeated and again is reported as higher than normal. What would be the next step in the assessment sequence to determine the well-being of the fetus?
a. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS)
b. Ultrasound for fetal anomalies
c. Biophysical profile (BPP) for fetal well-being
d. Amniocentesis for genetic anomalies
PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 261
OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity
8. A client asks her nurse, “My doctor told me that he is concerned with the grade of my placenta because I am overdue. What does that mean?” The best response by the nurse is:
a. “Your placenta changes as your pregnancy progresses, and it is given a score that indicates the amount of calcium deposits it has. The more calcium deposits, the higher the grade, or number, that is assigned to the placenta. It also means that less blood and oxygen can be delivered to your baby.”
b. “Your placenta isn’t working properly, and your baby is in danger.”
c. “This means that we will need to perform an amniocentesis to detect if you have any placental damage.”
d. “Don’t worry about it. Everything is fine.”
9. A woman is undergoing a nipple-stimulated contraction stress test (CST). She is having contractions that occur every 3 minutes. The fetal heart rate (FHR) has a baseline of approximately 120 beats/min without any decelerations. The interpretation of this test is said to be:
a. Negative. c. Satisfactory.
b. Positive. d. Unsatisfactory.
10. When nurses help their expectant mothers assess the daily fetal movement counts, they should be aware that:
a. Alcohol or cigarette smoke can irritate the fetus into greater activity.
b. “Kick counts” should be taken every half hour and averaged every 6 hours, with every other 6-hour stretch off.
c. The fetal alarm signal should go off when fetal movements stop entirely for 12
hours.
d. Obese mothers familiar with their bodies can assess fetal movement as well as average-size women.
11. In comparing the abdominal and transvaginal methods of ultrasound examination, nurses should explain to their clients that:
a. Both require the woman to have a full bladder.
b. The abdominal examination is more useful in the first trimester.
c. Initially the transvaginal examination can be painful.
d. The transvaginal examination allows pelvic anatomy to be evaluated in greater detail.
12. In the first trimester, ultrasonography can be used to gain information on:
a. Amniotic fluid volume.
b. Location of Gestational sacs
c. Placental location and maturity.
d. Cervical length.
13. Nurses should be aware that the biophysical profile (BPP):
a. Is an accurate indicator of impending fetal death.
b. Is a compilation of health risk factors of the mother during the later stages of pregnancy.
c. Consists of a Doppler blood flow analysis and an amniotic fluid index.
d. Involves an invasive form of ultrasound examination.
14. With regard to amniocentesis, nurses should be aware that:
a. Because of new imaging techniques, amniocentesis is now possible in the first trimester.
b. Despite the use of ultrasound, complications still occur in the mother or infant in 5% to 10% of cases.
c. The shake test, or bubble stability test, is a quick means of determining fetal maturity.
d. The presence of meconium in the amniotic fluid is always cause for concern.
15. Nurses should be aware of the strengths and limitations of various biochemical assessments during pregnancy, including that:
a. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is becoming more popular because it provides early diagnosis.
b. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening is recommended only for women at risk for neural tube defects.
c. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS) is one of the triple-marker tests for Down syndrome.
d. MSAFP is a screening tool only; it identifies candidates for more definitive procedures.
16. Compared with contraction stress test (CST), nonstress test (NST) for antepartum fetal assessment:
a. Has no known contraindications.
b. Has fewer false-positive results.
c. Is more sensitive in detecting fetal compromise.
d. Is slightly more expensive.
17. The nurse providing care for the antepartum woman should understand that contraction stress test (CST):
a. Sometimes uses vibroacoustic stimulation.
b. Is an invasive test; however, contractions are stimulated.
c. Is considered negative if no late decelerations are observed with the contractions.
d. Is more effective than nonstress test (NST) if the membranes have already been ruptured.
18. A woman has been diagnosed with a high risk pregnancy. She and her husband come into the office in a very anxious state. She seems to be coping by withdrawing from the discussion, showing declining interest. The nurse can best help the couple by:
a. Telling her that the physician will isolate the problem with more tests.
b. Encouraging her and urging her to continue with childbirth classes.
c. Becoming assertive and laying out the decisions the couple needs to make.
d. Downplaying her risks by citing success rate studies.
19. In the past, factors to determine whether a woman was likely to develop a high risk pregnancy were evaluated primarily from a medical point of view. A broader, more comprehensive approach to high-risk pregnancy has been adopted today. There are now four categories based on threats to the health of the woman and the outcome of pregnancy. Which of the following is not one of these categories?
a. Biophysical c. Geographic
b. Psychosocial d. Environmental
20. Risk factors tend to be interrelated and cumulative in their effect. While planning the care for a laboring client with diabetes mellitus, the nurse is aware that she is at a greater risk for:
a. Oligohydramnios. c. Postterm pregnancy.
b. Polyhydramnios. d. Chromosomal abnormalities.
21. A pregnant woman’s biophysical profile score is 8. She asks the nurse to explain the results. The nurse’s best response is:
a. “The test results are within normal limits.”
b. “Immediate delivery by cesarean birth is being considered.”
c. “Further testing will be performed to determine the meaning of this score.”
d. “An obstetric specialist will evaluate the results of this profile and, within the next week, will inform you of your options regarding delivery.”
22. Which analysis of maternal serum may predict chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus?
a. Multiple-marker screening
b. Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio
c. Biophysical profile
d. Type and crossmatch of maternal and fetal serum
23. While working with the pregnant woman in her first trimester, the nurse is aware that chorionic villus sampling (CVS) can be performed during pregnancy at:
a. 4 weeks c. 10 weeks
b. 8 weeks d. 14 weeks
24. Which nursing intervention is necessary before a second-trimester transabdominal ultrasound?
a. Place the woman NPO for 12 hours.
b. Instruct the woman to drink 1 to 2 quarts of water.
c. Administer an enema.
d. Perform an abdominal preparation.
25. The nurse recognizes that a nonstress test (NST) in which two or more fetal heart rate (FHR) accelerations of 15 beats/min or more occur with fetal movement in a 20-minute period is:
a. Nonreactive c. Negative
b. Positive d. Reactive
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
26. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) is associated with numerous pregnancy-related risk factors (Select all that apply).
a. Poor nutrition
b. Maternal collagen disease
c. Gestational hypertension
d. Premature rupture of membranes
e. Smoking
27. Transvaginal ultrasonography is often performed during the first trimester. While preparing your 6-week gestation patient for this procedure, she expresses concerns over the necessity for this test. The nurse should explain that this diagnostic test may be indicated for a number of situations (Select all that apply).
a. Multifetal gestation
b. Obesity
c. Fetal abnormalities
d. Amniotic fluid volume
e. Ectopic pregnancy
MATCHING
Biophysical risks include factors that originate with either the mother or the fetus and affect the functioning of either one or both. The nurse who provides prenatal care should have an understanding of these risk factors. Match the specific pregnancy problem with the related risk factor.
a. Polyhydramnios
b. Intrauterine growth restriction (maternal cause)
c. Oligohydramnios
d. Chromosomal abnormalities
e. Intrauterine growth restriction (fetoplacental cause)
28. Premature rupture of membranes
29. Advanced maternal age
30. Fetal congenital anomalies
31. Abnormal placenta development
32. Smoking, alcohol, and illicit drug use
28. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: 251 OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation
MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
NOT: Each pregnancy problem can be attributed to a number of related risk factors. Polyhydramnios may also be the result of poorly controlled diabetes mellitus. Other maternal causes of IUGR include hypertensive disorders, diabetes, chronic renal disease, vascular disease, thrombophilia, poor weight gain, and cyanotic heart disease. Fetoplacental causes of IUGR may be related to chromosomal abnormalities, congenital malformations, intrauterine infection, or genetic syndromes. Other contributors to oligohydramnios are renal agenesis, prolonged pregnancy, uteroplacental insufficiency, and paternal hypertensive disorders. Although advanced maternal age is a well-known cause of chromosomal abnormalities, other causes include parental chromosome rearrangements and pregnancy with autosomal trisomy.
29. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: 251 OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation
MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
NOT: Each pregnancy problem can be attributed to a number of related risk factors. Polyhydramnios may also be the result of poorly controlled diabetes mellitus. Other maternal causes of IUGR include hypertensive disorders, diabetes, chronic renal disease, vascular disease, thrombophilia, poor weight gain, and cyanotic heart disease. Fetoplacental causes of IUGR may be related to chromosomal abnormalities, congenital malformations, intrauterine infection, or genetic syndromes. Other contributors to oligohydramnios are renal agenesis, prolonged pregnancy, uteroplacental insufficiency, and paternal hypertensive disorders. Although advanced maternal age is a well-known cause of chromosomal abnormalities, other causes include parental chromosome rearrangements and pregnancy with autosomal trisomy.
30. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: 251 OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation
MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
NOT: Each pregnancy problem can be attributed to a number of related risk factors. Polyhydramnios may also be the result of poorly controlled diabetes mellitus. Other maternal causes of IUGR include hypertensive disorders, diabetes, chronic renal disease, vascular disease, thrombophilia, poor weight gain, and cyanotic heart disease. Fetoplacental causes of IUGR may be related to chromosomal abnormalities, congenital malformations, intrauterine infection, or genetic syndromes. Other contributors to oligohydramnios are renal agenesis, prolonged pregnancy, uteroplacental insufficiency, and paternal hypertensive disorders. Although advanced maternal age is a well-known cause of chromosomal abnormalities, other causes include parental chromosome rearrangements and pregnancy with autosomal trisomy.
31. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: 251 OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation
MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
NOT: Each pregnancy problem can be attributed to a number of related risk factors. Polyhydramnios may also be the result of poorly controlled diabetes mellitus. Other maternal causes of IUGR include hypertensive disorders, diabetes, chronic renal disease, vascular disease, thrombophilia, poor weight gain, and cyanotic heart disease. Fetoplacental causes of IUGR may be related to chromosomal abnormalities, congenital malformations, intrauterine infection, or genetic syndromes. Other contributors to oligohydramnios are renal agenesis, prolonged pregnancy, uteroplacental insufficiency, and paternal hypertensive disorders. Although advanced maternal age is a well-known cause of chromosomal abnormalities, other causes include parental chromosome rearrangements and pregnancy with autosomal trisomy.
32. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: 251 OBJ: Nursing Process: Implementation
MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
NOT: Each pregnancy problem can be attributed to a number of related risk factors. Polyhydramnios may also be the result of poorly controlled diabetes mellitus. Other maternal causes of IUGR include hypertensive disorders, diabetes, chronic renal disease, vascular disease, thrombophilia, poor weight gain, and cyanotic heart disease. Fetoplacental causes of IUGR may be related to chromosomal abnormalities, congenital malformations, intrauterine infection, or genetic syndromes. Other contributors to oligohydramnios are renal agenesis, prolonged pregnancy, uteroplacental insufficiency, and paternal hypertensive disorders. Although advanced maternal age is a well-known cause of chromosomal abnormalities, other causes include parental chromosome rearrangements and pregnancy with autosomal trisomy. [Show Less]