NR 507 Week 8 Final Exam / NR507 Week 8 Final Exam (Version 1 , LATEST): Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing
Chamberlain NR 507
... [Show More] Final Exam / Chamberlain NR507 Final Exam (Version 1 , LATEST): Advanced Pathophysiology
Question1.
What term is used to describe a hernial protrusion of a saclike cyst that contains meninges, spinal fluid, and a portion of the spinal cord through a defect in a posterior arch of a vertebra?
Encephalocele
Meningocele
Spina bifida occulta
Myelomeningocele
Question 2.
What provides the best estimate of the functioning of renal tissue?
Glomerular filtration rate
Hourly urine output
Serum blood urea nitrogen and creatinine
The specific gravity of the solute concentration of the urine
Question 3.
Where are Langerhans cells found?
Skin
Intestinal lining
Kidney
Thyroid
Question 4.
Where in the lung does gas exchange occur?
Trachea
Segmental bronchi
Alveolocapillary membrane
Main bronchus
Question 5.
The tonic neck reflex observed in a newborn should no longer be obtainable by:
2 years
1 year
10 months
5 months
Question 6.
When renin is released, it is capable of which action?
Inactivation of autoregulation
Direct activation of angiotensin II
Direct release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Formation of angiotensin I
Question 7.
The portion of the antigen that is configured for recognition and binding is referred to as what type of determinant?
Immunotope
Paratope
Epitope
Antigenitope
Question 8.
Which sexually transmitted infection frequently coexists with gonorrhea?
Syphilis
Herpes simplex virus
Chlamydia
Chancroid
Question 9.
How is the effectiveness of vitamin B12 therapy measured?
Reticulocyte count
Serum transferring
Hemoglobin
Serum vitamin B12
Question 10.
Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin?
Blood vessels
Epithelial cells
Connective tissue
Glandular tissue
Question 11.
Which type of microorganism reproduces on the skin?
Viruses
Bacteria and fungi
Protozoa and Rickettsiae
Mycoplasma
Question 12.
An infant has a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur located between the second and third intercostal spaces along the left sternal border. A wide fixed splitting of the second heart sound is also found. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect?
Atrial septal defect (ASD)
Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
Atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect
Question 13.
An infant diagnosed with a small patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) would likely exhibit which symptom?
Intermittent murmur
Lack of symptoms
Need for surgical repair
Triad of congenital defects
Question 14.
What is the function of erythrocytes?
Tissue oxygenation
Hemostasis
Infection control
Allergy response
Question 15.
Which terms represent the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively?
Liposarcoma, lipoma
Lipoma, liposarcoma
Adisarcoma, adipoma
Adipoma, adisarcoma
Question 16.
What is the chance with each pregnancy that a child born to two parents with the sickle trait will have sickle cell disease (SCD)?
20%
25%
33%
50%
Question 17.
What pulmonary defense mechanism propels a mucous blanket that entraps particles moving toward the oropharynx?
Nasal turbinates
Alveolar macrophages
Cilia
Irritant receptors on the nares
Question 18.
The concentration of the final urine is determined by antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which is secreted by which gland?
Posterior pituitary
Thyroid
Parathyroid
Anterior pituitary
Question 19.
Why is the herpes virus inaccessible to antibodies after the initial infection?
The virus does not circulate in the blood.
It does not have antibody receptors.
It resists agglutination.
The virus is a soluble antigen.
Question 20.
Which renal change is found in older adults?
Sharp decline in glomerular filtration rate
Sharp decline in renal blood flow
Decrease in the number of nephrons
Decrease in urine output
Question 21.
Which immunoglobulin is present in blood, saliva, breast milk, and respiratory secretions?
IgA
IgE
IgG
IgM
Question 22.
Which hormone prompts increased anxiety, vigilance, and arousal during a stress response?
Norepinephrine
Epinephrine
Cortisol
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
Question 23.
Which statement is true regarding maternal antibodies provided to the neonate?
The antibodies enter into the fetal circulation by means of active transport.
The antibodies are transferred to the fetus via the lymphatic system.
The antibodies are directly related to the mother’s nutritional intake.
The antibodies reach protective levels after approximately 6 months of age.
Question 24.
The function of the tumor cell marker is to:
Provide a definitive diagnosis of cancer.
Treat certain types of cancer.
Predict where cancers will develop.
Screen individuals at high risk for cancer.
Question 25.
Which statement is true concerning a fungal infection?
Fungal infections occur only on skin, hair, and nails.
Phagocytes and T lymphocytes control fungal infections.
Fungal infections release endotoxins.
Vaccines prevent fungal infections.
Question 26.
Which change is a result of puberty and defends the vagina from infection?
The pH stabilizes between 7 and 8.
A thin squamous epithelial lining develops.
Vaginal pH becomes more acidic.
Estrogen levels are low.
Question 27.
The number of persons living with a specific disease at a specific point in time is referred to by which term?
Relativity
Survivability
Prevalence
Incidence
Question 28.
Which risk factor for hypertension is influenced by genetic factors and lifestyle?
Sodium intake
Physical inactivity
Psychosocial stress
Obesity
Question 29.
Having ejected a mature ovum, the ovarian follicle develops into a(n):
Atretic follicle
Thecal follicle
Corpus luteum
Functional scar
Question 30.
The failure of bones to ossify, resulting in soft bones and skeletal deformity, characterizes which disorder?
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Rickets
Osteochondrosis
Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease
Question 31.
What is the term that denotes the duration of time or the intensity of pain that a person will endure before outwardly responding?
Tolerance
Perception
Threshold
Dominance
Question 32.
Aldosterone directly increases the reabsorption of:
Magnesium
Calcium
Sodium
Water
Question 33.
Atrial fibrillation, rheumatic heart disease, and valvular prosthetics are risk factors for which type of stroke?
Hemorrhagic
Thrombotic
Embolic
Lacunar
Question 34.
Which clinical manifestations are associated with fibromyalgia?
Hot, tender, and edematous muscle groups bilaterally
Fasciculations of the upper and lower extremity muscles
Exercise intolerance and painful muscle cramps
Sensitivity at tender points and profound fatigue
Question 35.
Prolonged high environmental temperatures that produce dehydration, decreased plasma volumes, hypotension, decreased cardiac output, and tachycardia cause which disorder of temperature regulation?
Heat cramps
Heat stroke
Malignant hyperthermia
Heat exhaustion
Question 36.
What is the leading cause of infertility in women?
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Endometriosis
Salpingitis
Polycystic ovary syndrome
Question 37.
Which substance is a water-soluble protein hormone?
Thyroxine
Aldosterone
Follicle-stimulating hormone
Insulin
Question 38.
What is the target tissue for prolactin-releasing factor?
Hypothalamus
Anterior pituitary
Mammary glands
Posterior pituitary
Question 39.
What is the cause of familial hypercholesterolemia (FH)?
Diet high in saturated fats
Increased production of cholesterol by the liver
Reduction in the number of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors on cell surfaces
Abnormal function of lipoprotein receptors circulating in the blood
Question 40.
Regarding type 2 diabetes, obesity is considered to be what type of risk?
Genetic
Empirical
Relative
Modifiable
Question 41.
Which four-step process correctly describes muscle contraction?
Coupling, contraction, relaxation, excitation
Contraction, relaxation, excitation, coupling
Relaxation, excitation, coupling, contraction
Excitation, coupling, contraction, relaxation
Question 42.
Adoption studies have shown that the offspring of an alcoholic parent when raised by nonalcoholic parents have what amount of an increased risk of developing alcoholism?
Twofold
Threefold
Fourfold
Tenfold
Question 43.
Which hormone stimulates gonads to produce both male and female hormones?
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Estrogen
Question 44.
A person with 47, XXY karyotype has the genetic disorder resulting in which syndrome?
Turner
Klinefelter
Down
Fragile X
Question 45.
Which would be considered a positive symptom of schizophrenia?
Blunted affect
Auditory hallucinations
Poverty of speech
Lack of social interaction
Question 46.
What term describes the loss of the comprehension or production of language?
Agnosia
Aphasia
Akinesia
Dysphasia
Question 47.
Consanguinity refers to the mating of persons:
Who are unrelated
When one has an autosomal dominant disorder
Having common family relations
When one has a chromosomal abnormality
Question 48.
The major sleep center is located in which section of the brain?
Thalamus
Brainstem
Frontal lobe
Hypothalamus
Question 49.
Which type of ion directly controls the contraction of muscles?
Sodium
Potassium
Calcium
Magnesium
Question 50.
Bacteria gain access to the female urinary tract by which means?
Systemic blood that is filtered through the kidney
Bacteria traveling from the lymph adjacent to the bladder and kidneys
Bacteria ascending the urethra into the bladder
Colonization of the bladder when urine is static
Question 51.
A criterion for a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is a period of excessive worrying that lasts for at least how many months?
3
6
9
12
Question 52.
What is the first indication of nephrotic syndrome in children?
Periorbital edema
Scrotal or labial edema
Frothy urine
Ascites
Question 53.
An amniocentesis indicates a neural tube defect when an increase in which protein is evident?
Chorionic
Alpha fetoprotein
Amniotic
Embryonic
Question 54.
What is the risk for the recurrence of autosomal dominant diseases?
10%
30%
50%
70%
Question 55.
Which term is used to identify the temporary displacement of two bones causing the bone surfaces to partially lose contact?
Dislocation
Subluxation
Malunion
Nonunion
Question 56.
The tear in a ligament is referred to as a:
Fracture
Strain
Disunion
Sprain
Question 57.
Why is prolonged diarrhea more severe in children than it is in adults?
Less water is absorbed from the colon in children.
Fluid reserves are smaller in children.
Children have a higher fluid volume intake.
Children have diarrhea more often than adults.
Question 58.
The BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations increase the risk of which cancer in women?
Ovarian
Lung
Uterine
Pancreatic
Question 59.
Insulin transports which electrolyte in the cell?
Potassium
Calcium
Sodium
Phosphorus
Question 60.
What term is used to identify an interlacing bundle of dense, white fibrous tissue that is richly supplied with nerves, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels?
Procallus
Joint capsule
Hematoma
Elastin fibers
Question 61.
Which of the following is a lipid-soluble hormone?
Cortisol
Oxytocin
Epinephrine
Growth hormone
Question 62.
The mucosal secretions of the cervix secrete which immunoglobulin?
IgA
IgE
IgG
IgM
Question 63.
The sudden apparent arousal in which a child expresses intense fear or another strong emotion while still in a sleep state characterizes which sleep disorder?
Night terrors
Insomnia
Somnambulism
Enuresis
Question 64.
What is the basic structural unit in compact bone?
Small channels called canaliculi
Osteocytes within the lacunae
Tiny spaces within the lacunae
Haversian system
Question 65.
Parkinson disease is a degenerative disorder of the brain’s:
Hypothalamus
Anterior pituitary
Frontal lobe
Basal ganglia
Question 66.
Which pain theory proposes that a balance of impulses conducted from the spinal cord to the higher centers in the central nervous system (CNS) modulates the transmission of pain?
GCT
Pattern theory
Specificity theory
Neuromatrix theory
Question 67.
Saliva contains which immunoglobulin (Ig)?
IgA
IgE
IgG
IgM
Question 68.
What type of fracture occurs at a site of a preexisting bone abnormality and is a result of a force that would not normally cause a fracture?
Idiopathic
Incomplete
Pathologic
Greenstick
Question 69.
An infant suddenly develops abdominal pain, becomes irritable (colicky), and draws up the knees. Vomiting occurs soon afterward. The mother reports that the infant passed a normal stool, followed by one that looked like currant jelly. Based on these data, which disorder does the nurse suspect?
Congenital aganglionic megacolon
Intussusception
Malrotation
Volvulus
Question 70.
In 95% of children of delayed puberty, the problem is caused by:
Disruption in the hypothalamus
Disruption of the pituitary
Deficit in estrogen or testosterone
Physiologic hormonal delays
Question 71.
Which characteristic is true of type II (white fast-motor) muscle fibers?
Slow contraction speed
Fast conduction velocities
Profuse capillary supply
Oxidative metabolism
Question 72.
Neurofibrillary tangles characterize which neurologic disorder?
Dementia syndrome
Delirium
Alzheimer disease
Parkinson disease
Question 73.
Which hormone triggers uterine contractions?
Thyroxine
Oxytocin
Growth hormone
Insulin
Question 74.
How does the release (increase) of epinephrine raise body temperature?
The release of epinephrine causes shivering.
It affects muscle tone.
It raises the metabolic rate.
It increases and strengthens the heart rate.
Question 75.
Which hormone is linked to an increase in appetite during puberty?
Inhibin
Leptin
Activin
Follistatin [Show Less]