NCLEX_RN_Questions, Answers & Explanations
Question: 1
On the third postpartum day, the nurse would expect the lochia to be:
A. Rubra
B. Serosa
C.
... [Show More] Alba
D. Scant
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) This discharge occurs from delivery through the 3rd day. There is dark red blood, placental debris, and clots.
(B) This discharge occurs from days 4-10. The lochia is brownish, serous, and thin. (C) This discharge occurs from
day 10 through the 6thweek. The lochia is yellowish white. (D) This is not a classification of lochia but relates to
the amount of discharge.
Question: 2
A pregnant client is having a nonstress test (NST). It is noted that the fetal heart beat rises 20 bpm, lasting 20
seconds, every time the fetus moves. The nurse explains that:
A. The test is inconclusive and should be repeated
B. Further testing is needed
C. The test is normal and the fetus is reacting appropriately
D. The fetus is distressed
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) The test results were normal, so there would be no need to repeat to determine results. (B) There are no data to
indicate further tests are needed, because the result of the NST was normal. (C) An NST is reported as reactive if
there are two to three increases in the fetal heart rate of 15 bpm, lasting at least 15 seconds during a 15-minute
period. (D) The NST results were normal, so there was no fetal distress.
Question: 3
Which stage of labor lasts from delivery of the baby to delivery of the placenta?
A. Second
B. Third
C. Fourth
D. Fifth
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) This stage is from complete dilatation of the cervix to delivery of the fetus. (B) This is the correct stage for the
definition. (C) This stage lasts for about 2 hours after the delivery of the placenta. (D) There is no fifth stage of
labor.
Question: 4
A client develops complications following a hysterectomy. Blood cultures reveal Pseudomonas aeruginosa. The
nurse expects that the physician would order an appropriate antibiotic to treat P. aeruginosa such as:
A. Cefoperazone (Cefobid)
B. Clindamycin (Cleocin)
C. Dicloxacillin (Dycill)
D. Erythromycin (Erythrocin)Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Cefoperazone is indicated in the treatment of infection withPseudomonas aeruginosa.(B) Clindamycin is not
indicated in the treatment of infection withP. aeruginosa.(C) Dicloxacillin is not indicated in the treatment of
infection withP. aeruginosa.(D) Erythromycin is not indicated in the treatment of infection withP. aeruginosa.
Question: 5
A couple is experiencing difficulties conceiving a baby. The nurse explains basal body temperature (BBT) by
instructing the female client to take her temperature:
A. Orally in the morning and at bedtime
B. Only one time during the day as long as it is always at the same time of day
C. Rectally at bedtime
D. As soon as she awakens, prior to any activity
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Monitoring temperature twice a day predicts the biphasic pattern of ovulation. (B) Prediction of ovulation
relies on consistency in taking temperature. (C)Nightly rectal temperatures are more accurate in predicting
ovulation. (D) Activity changes the accuracy of basal body temperature and ability to detect the luteinizing
hormone surge.
Question: 6
A client is having episodes of hyperventilation related to her surgery that is scheduled tomorrow. Appropriate
nursing actions to help control hyperventilating include:
A. Administering diazepam (Valium) 1015 mg po q4h and q1h prn for hyperventilating episode
B. Keeping the temperature in the client’s room at a high level to reduce respiratory stimulation
C. Having the client hold her breath or breathe into a paper bag when hyperventilation episodes occur
D. Using distraction to help control the client’s hyperventilation episodes
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) An adult diazepam dosage for treatment of anxiety is 210 mg PO 24 times daily. The order as written would
place a client at risk for overdose. (B) A high room temperature could increase hyperventilating episodes by
stimulating the respiratory system. (C) Breath holding and breathing into a paper bag may be useful in controlling
hyperventilation. Both measures increase CO2 retention. (D) Distraction will not prevent or control
hyperventilation caused by anxiety or fear.
Question: 7
A client delivered a stillborn male at term. An appropriate action of the nurse would be to:
A. State, "You have an angel in heaven."
B. Discourage the parents from seeing the baby.
C. Provide an opportunity for the parents to see and hold the baby for an undetermined amount of time.
D. Reassure the parents that they can have other children.
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) This is not a supportive statement. There are also no data to indicate the family’s religious beliefs. (B) Seeing
their baby assists the parents in the grieving process. This gives them the opportunity to say "good-bye." (C)
Parents need time to get to know their baby. (D) This is not a comforting statement when a baby has died. Thereare also no guarantees that the couple will be able to have another child.
Question: 8
A 29-year-old client is admitted for a hysterectomy. She has repeatedly told the nurses that she is worried about
having this surgery, has not slept well lately, and is afraid that her husband will not find her desirable after the
surgery. Shortly into the preoperative teaching, she complains of a tightness in her chest, a feeling of suffocation,
lightheadedness, and tingling in her hands. Her respirations are rapid and deep. Assessment reveals that the client
is:
A. Having a heart attack
B. Wanting attention from the nurses
C. Suffering from complete upper airway obstruction
D. Hyperventilating
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Classic symptoms of a heart attack include heaviness or squeezing pain in the chest, pain spreading to the jaw,
neck, and arm. Nausea and vomiting, sweating, and shortness of breath may be present. The client does not exhibit
these symptoms. (B) Clients suffering from anxiety or fear prior to surgical procedures may develop
hyperventilation. This client is not seeking attention. (C) Symptoms of complete airway obstruction include not
being able to speak, and no airflow between the nose and mouth. Breath sounds are absent. (D) Tightness in the
chest; a feeling of suffocation; lightheadedness; tingling in the hands; and rapid, deep respirations are signs and
symptoms of hyperventilation. This is almost always a manifestation of anxiety.
Question: 9
A 44-year-old client had an emergency cholecystectomy 3 days ago for a ruptured gallbladder. She complains of
severe abdominal pain. Assessment reveals abdominal rigidity and distention, increased temperature, and
tachycardia. Diagnostic testing reveals an elevated WBC count. The nurse suspects that the client has developed:
A. Gastritis
B. Evisceration
C. Peritonitis
D. Pulmonary embolism
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) Assessment findings for gastritis would reveal anorexia, nausea and vomiting, epigastric fullness and
tenderness, and discomfort. (B) Evisceration is the extrusion of abdominal viscera as a result of trauma or sutures
failing in a surgical incision. (C) Peritonitis, inflammation of the peritoneum, can occur when an abdominal organ,
such as the gallbladder, perforates and leaks blood and fluid into the abdominal cavity. This causes infection and
irritation. (D) Assessment findings of pulmonary embolism would reveal severe substernal chest pain, tachycardia,
tachypnea, shortness of breath, anxiety or panic, and wheezing and coughing often accompanied by blood-tinged
sputum.
Question: 10
A 35-year-old client is admitted to the hospital for elective tubal ligation. While the nurse is doing preoperative
teaching, the client says, "The anesthesiologist said she was going to give me balanced anesthesia. What exactly is
that?" The best explanation for the nurse to give the client would be that balanced anesthesia:
A. Is a type of regional anesthesia
B. Uses equal amounts of inhalation agents and liquid agents
C. Does not depress the central nervous system
D. Is a combination of several anesthetic agents or drugs producing a smooth induction and minimal
complicationsAnswer: D
Explanation:
(A) Regional anesthesia does not produce loss of consciousness and is indicated for excision of moles, cysts, and
endoscopic surgeries. (B) Varying amounts of anesthetic agents are used when employing balanced anesthesia.
Amounts depend on age, weight, condition of the client, and surgical procedure. (C) General anesthesia is a druginduced depression of the central nervous system that produces loss of consciousness and decreased muscle
activity. (D) Balanced anesthesia is a combination of a number of anesthetic agents that produce a smooth
induction, appropriate depth of anesthesia, and appropriate muscle relaxation with minimal complications.
Question: 11
Following a gastric resection, a 70-year-old client is admitted to the postanesthesia care unit. He was extubated
prior to leaving the suite. On arrival at the postanesthesia care unit, the nurse should:
A. Check airway, feeling for amount of air exchange noting rate, depth, and quality of respirations
B. Obtain pulse and blood pressure readings noting rate and quality of pulse
C. Reassure the client that his surgery is over and that he is in the recovery room
D. Review physician’s orders, administering medications as ordered
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Adequate air exchange and tissue oxygenation depend on competent respiratory function. Checking the airway
is the nurse’s priority action. (B) Obtaining the vital signs is an important action, but it is secondary to airway
management. (C) Reorienting a client to time, place, and person after surgery is important, but it is secondary to
airway and vital signs. (D) Airway management takes precedence over physician’s orders unless they specifically
relate to airway management.
Question: 12
A 25-year-old client is admitted for a tonsillectomy. She tells the nurse that she has had episodes of muscle
cramps, weakness, and unexplained temperature elevation. Many years ago her father died shortly after surgery
after developing a high fever. She further tells the nurse that her surgeon is having her take dantrolene sodium
(Dantrium) prophylactically prior to her tonsillectomy. Dantrolene sodium is ordered preoperatively to reduce the
risk or prevent:
A. Infection postoperatively
B. Malignant hyperthermia
C. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
D. Fever postoperatively
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A, D) Dantrolene sodium is a peripheral skeletal muscle relaxant and would have no effect on a postoperative
infection. (B) Dantrolene sodium is indicated prophylactically for clients with malignant hyperthermia or with a
family history of the disorder. The mortality rate for malignant hyperthermia is high. (C) Neuroleptic malignant
syndrome is an exercise-induced muscle pain and spasm and is unrelated to malignant hyperthermia.
Question: 13
The family member of a child scheduled for heart surgery states, "I just don’t understand this open-heart or closedheart business. I’m so confused! Can you help me understand it?" The nurse explains that patent ductus arteriosus
repair is:
A. Open-heart surgery. The child will be placed on a heart-lung machine while the surgery is being
performed.
B. Closed-heart surgery. It does not require that the child be placed on the heart-lung machine while the
surgery is being performed.
C. A pediatric version of the coronary artery bypass graft surgery performed on adults. It is an open-heartsurgery.
D. A pediatric version of percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty performed on adults. It is a
closed-heart surgery.
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) Patent ductus arteriosus repair is a closed-heart procedure. The client is not placed on a heart-lung machine.
(B) Patent ductus arteriosus is a ductus arteriosus that does not close shortlyafter birth but remains patent. Repair
is a closed-heart procedure involving ligation of the patent ductus arteriosus. (C) Coronary artery bypass graft
surgery is an open-heart surgical procedure in which blocked coronary arteries are bypassed using vessel grafts.
(D) Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty is a closedheart procedure that improves coronary blood flow
by increasing the lumen size of narrowed vessels.
Question: 14
A child is to receive atropine 0.15 mg (1/400 g) as part of his preoperative medication. A vial containing atropine
0.4 mg (1/150 g)/mL is on hand. How much atropine should be given?
A. 0.06 mL
B. 0.38 mL
C. 2.7 mL
D. Information given insufficient to determine the amount of atropine to be administered [Show Less]