Bates’ Guide to Physical Examination and History Taking, 11th Edition
Chapter 19: The Pregnant Woman
Multiple Choice
1. A
... [Show More] 29-year-old homemaker who is G4P3 comes to your clinic for her first prenatal check. Her last period was 2 months ago. She has had three previous pregnancies and deliveries with no complications. She has no medical problems and has had no surgeries. Her only current complaint is of severe reflux that occurs in the mornings and evenings. On examination she is in no acute distress. Her vitals are 110/70 with a pulse of 88. Her respirations are 16. Her head, eyes, ears, nose, throat, thyroid, cardiac, pulmonary, and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. On bimanual examination her cervix is soft and her uterus is 10 weeks in size. Pap smear, cultures, and blood work are pending.
What is the most likely cause of her first-trimester reflux?
A) Increasing prolactin levels
B) Increasing ADH (antidiuretic hormone) levels
C) Increasing progesterone
D) Enlarged gravid uterus
Ans: C
Chapter: 19
Page and Header: 871, Anatomy and Physiology
Feedback: Progesterone lowers the esophageal sphincter tone, leading to reflux and heartburn. It also relaxes tone and contraction of the ureters and bladder, increasing risk of UTI and subsequent bacteremia.
2. A 26-year-old telephone operator comes to your office for her first prenatal visit. This is her first pregnancy. Her last period was about 2 months ago. She has no current complaints. She is eating healthily, taking vitamins, and exercising. She has a past medical history of an appendectomy as a teenager. Her mother had three children vaginally with no complications. On examination she appears healthy and her vital signs are unremarkable. Her head, eyes, ears, nose, throat, thyroid, cardiac, pulmonary, and abdominal examinations are also unremarkable. By speculum examination, her cervix appears bluish in color and highly vascular. A bimanual examination reveals a soft cervix and a 12-week-sized uterus. No masses are felt in either adnexal area. Results of her Pap, cultures, and blood work are pending.
What clinical sign is responsible for her blue, highly vascular cervix?
A) Chadwick's sign
B) Hegar's sign
C) Leopold's sign
D) Leo's sign
Ans: A
Chapter: 19
Page and Header: 871, Anatomy and Physiology
Feedback: Chadwick's sign is observed during the speculum examination when the cervix appears more vascular and takes on a bluish hue. It can also occur with ectopic pregnancy.
3. A 22-year-old clerk, primigravida, comes to your office for a prenatal visit. She is in her second trimester and has had prenatal care since she was 8 weeks pregnant. Her only complaint is that she has a new brownish line straight down her abdomen. On examination her vital signs are unremarkable. Her urine has no protein, glucose, or leukocytes. With a Doptone the fetal heart rate is 140, and her uterus is palpated to the umbilicus. Today you are sending her for congenital abnormality screening and setting up an ultrasound.
What physical finding is responsible for her new “brown line”?
A) Corpus luteum
B) Linea nigra
C) Linea alba
D) Diastasis recti
Ans: B
Chapter: 19
Page and Header: 871, Anatomy and Physiology
Feedback: The linea nigra is a linear hyperpigmented area of skin along the midline of the abdomen. It is caused [Show Less]