AGNP BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS Health Promotion Assessment (51 Questions with Answers and Explanations).
AGNP BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS Health Promotion Assessment
... [Show More] (51 Questions with Answers and Explanations).
Question:
According to the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force, older adults should be screened for colorectal cancer with sigmoidoscopy every:
year.
2 years.
5 years. Correct
10 years.
Explanation:
The Task Force recommends screening with colonoscopy every 10 years, sigmoidoscopy every 5 years with high-sensitivity fecal occult blood tests (FOBTs) every 3 years, or FOBTs every year beginning age 50 years through age 75 years. Recommends against routine screening for adults ages 76 to 85 years, due to moderate certainty that the net benefit is small.
Question:
Which topic should be a priority when providing anticipatory guidance to an 8-year-old child?
Screening for scoliosis
Advising the parent to protect the child from sunburn with sunscreen
Recommending that the child receive another varicella vaccine now
Assessing child care arrangements for before and after school Correct
Explanation:
School age children may not want to go to daycare, but are not old enough to stay home unsupervised. Help the parent to problem solve. Scoliosis is screened in 10-12-year-old children. Applying sunscreen should start at an earlier age than 8 years. Varicella vaccine is first given between 12 and 15 months and repeated at 4-6 years (before entering elementary school - kindergarten).
Question:
All of the following strategies are useful for assessing older adults at high risk for falls except:
reviewing the medication history.
obtaining a functional history.
assessing immunization history. Correct
conducting an environmental assessment.
Explanation:
Strategies for assessing older adults at high risk for falls include: obtaining a detailed fall history, medication review, and history of relevant risk factors (such as acute and chronic medical problems). Other assessments should include: gait, balance, mobility, and lower extremity joint function, neurologic function, lower extremity muscle strength, cardiovascular status, visual acuity, and examination of the feet and footwear. A functional and environmental assessment as well as implementing multifactorial / multicomponent interventions to address identified risks will help to prevent falls.
Question:
Higher level self-care functioning activities are referred to as:
activities of daily living.
instrumental activities of daily living. Correct
necessary activities of daily living.
required activities of daily living.
Explanation:
Activities of daily living (ADLs) consist of basic self-care abilities: bathing, dressing, toileting, transferring, continence, and feeding. Higher level functions are referred to as the instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs) and include: using the telephone, shopping, preparing food, laundry, and taking medicine.
Question:
Which of the following would help a 9-year-old develop a sense of industry?
Providing large plastic blocks for him to build things
Helping him make a collection of several objects Correct
Encouraging running for short distances
Explaining the workings of his heart
Explanation:
The school age child likes to collect things and keep them as memoirs. Large plastic blocks are characteristic of preschoolers and would not accomplish this task. Running short distances is a more appropriate activity for this child. Explaining how the heart works requires more cognitive abilities than a 9-year-old may have.
Question:
Which technique would be least effective in gaining the cooperation of a toddler during a physical exam?
Tell the child that another child the same age was not afraid. Correct
Allow the child to hold and touch the equipment when possible.
Permit the child to sit on the parent's lap during the examination.
Give the child immediate praise for holding still or doing what was asked.
Explanation:
Telling the child that another child the same age was not afraid would not be an effective technique as a toddler is unable to process that concept. The other choices are appropriate techniques.
Question:
The first sign of puberty in a male is:
increased vertical height.
a change in voice.
testicular enlargement. Correct
facial hair.
Explanation:
Puberty begins sexual maturity. It is a process that usually occurs between ages 10 and 14 for girls, and ages 12 and 16 for boys. It causes physical changes, and affects boys and girls differently. In boys, puberty usually begins with the testicles and penis getting bigger. Then hair grows in the pubic area and armpits.
Question:
At what age would a baby first be expected to locate an object hidden from view?
At 4 months of age
At 9 months of age Correct
At 13 months of age
At 20 months of age
Explanation:
Around 9 months of age, infants are first able to find an object hidden from view, also known as object permanence. The other choices are not age appropriate.
Question:
The 10 minute geriatric screener is a tool used to assess:
smoking habits.
alcohol consumption.
functionality. Correct
dementia.
Explanation:
The 10-Minute Geriatric Screener is a tool used for functional assessment in the older adult and assesses: vision, hearing, leg mobility, urinary incontinence, nutrition and weight loss, memory, depression, and physical disability.
Question:
Part of the nutritional assessment includes anthropometric measurements. These measurements include all of the following except:
height and weight.
blood pressure, pulse, and respiration. Correct
body mass index (BMI).
basal metabolic rate (BMR).
Explanation:
Anthropometric measurements are a set of noninvasive, quantitative techniques for determining an individual's body fat composition by measuring, recording, and analyzing specific dimensions of the body: height, weight, BMI, BMR, distribution of body fat, and skin fold thickness. Vital signs are considered physiologic measurements.
Question:
The first sign of puberty in females is:
appearance of body odor.
increased energy and appetite.
occurrence of first menses.
appearance of breast buds. Correct
Explanation:
Breast buds are the first sign of puberty in girls. Body odor comes later as the apocrine glands develop. Menses first occurs about 1 year following the appearance of breast buds. Increased energy and appetite do not relate to the signs of puberty.
Question:
Sarcopenia is:
cancer of the muscle sheath.
loss of lean body mass and strength with aging. Correct
atrophy of voluntary muscles.
loss of bone production.
Explanation:
Sarcopenia is loss of lean body mass and strength associated with aging. The mechanism responsible for muscle loss is not fully understood. Nonetheless, there is a substantial body of evidence that strength training in older adults can slow or reverse this process.
Question:
When palpating the carotid pulse, it is important to:
place the fingers on the upper third of the neck.
palpate both carotids simultaneously.
position the patient in the lying or sitting positions. Correct
position the patient's chin on the chest.
Explanation:
The carotid artery should be palpated gently and while the patient is sitting or lying down. The patient's chin should be elevated to allow easy palpation and yet not enough to tighten the neck muscles. Stimulating its baroreceptors with low palpation can provoke severe bradycardia or cause cardiac arrest in some sensitive persons. Also, carotid arteries should never be palpated at the same time. This may limit blood flow to the head, possibly leading to fainting or cerebral ischemia. A carotid pulse is palpable between the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, above the hyoid bone and lateral to the thyroid cartilage
Question:
Which activity would be most appropriate to promote the growth and development of a 3-year-old boy with hemophilia who is one week post hemarthrosis episode of his left knee?
Allow the child to play with building blocks.
Allow the child to ride a tricycle. Correct
Allow the child to play with a toy telephone.
Allow the child to ride in a motorized car.
Explanation:
Generally, within one week of post bleeding into the knee (hemarthrosis) range of motion activities would begin. The tricycle would be a fun way for a 3 year old to exercise his left knee. Building blocks and the motorized riding car are appropriate for this age group but would not exercise his knee. The toy telephone is an appropriate toy for a preschool child, but is not appropriate for a toddler and would not be beneficial to his rehabilitation.
Question:
Of the five percussion notes, which one produces a drum-like sound heard over air filled structures during the abdominal examination?
Tympany Correct
Dullness
Flatness
Hyperresonance
Explanation:
The five percussion notes include: tympany, dullness, flatness, resonance, and hyperresonance. Tympanic or tympanitic, are drum-like sounds heard over air filled structures during the abdominal examination. Hyperresonant (pneumothorax) sounds similar to percussion of puffed up cheeks. Normal resonance/resonant is the sound produced by percussing a normal chest. A dull (consolidation) sound is similar to percussion of a mass such as a liver. Stony dull or flat sounds are produced on percussion from the pleximeter with no contribution from the underlying area.
Question:
According to U.S. Preventive Services Task Force, an adult aged 60 years should be screened for colorectal cancer with colonoscopy:
annually.
every 2 years.
every 5 years.
every 10 years. Correct
Explanation:
The Task Force recommends screening for colorectal cancer with colonoscopy every 10 years, sigmoidoscopy every 5 years with high-sensitivity fecal occult blood tests (FOBTs) every 3 years, or FOBTs every year beginning age 50 years through age 75 years. It recommends against routine screening for adults ages 76 to 85 years.
Question:
Several interventions have been known to prevent falls in the older adult. These interventions include all of the following except:
minimizing medications.
managing hypotension.
managing footwear and foot problems.
discouraging exercise programs. Correct
Explanation:
Identifying risks and preventing falls in the older adult can be better managed by initiating multifactorial and multicomponent interventions. These interventions include the following: minimize medications, provide individually tailored exercise programs, treat vision impairment, manage postural hypotension, manage heart rate and rhythm abnormalities, supplement with vitamin D, manage foot and footwear problems, modify the home environment, and provide education and information on fall prevention.
Question:
Basic self-care activities are referred to as:
activities of daily living. Correct
instrumental activities of daily living.
necessary activities of daily living.
required activities of daily living.
Explanation:
Activities of daily living (ADLs) consist of basic self-care abilities: bathing, dressing, toileting, transferring, continence, and feeding. Higher level functions are referred to as the instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs) and include: using the telephone, shopping, preparing food, laundry, and taking medicine.
Question:
The most appropriate approach to use when teaching a preschooler safety education would be to:
teach using a calm, understanding voice.
teach parents by introducing one concept at a time. Correct
teach the child, giving concrete rationales when questions are asked.
teach the child and parents with activities that last approximately one hour.
Explanation:
Safety education of the preschooler should be directed at both the child and parents. Preschoolers are most capable of understanding one concept at a time and safety teaching is most appropriate in this format. School-age children are capable of understanding concrete rationales whereas Preschoolers are not at that cognitive level. The average 5-year-old has an attention span of about 30 minutes; an hour long activity will lose the preschooler's attention and interest making safety teaching ineffective.
Question:
The goal of palliative care is to:
initiate discussions for end-of-life decisions.
relieve pain.
avoid elder abuse.
relieve suffering and improve quality of life. Correct
Explanation:
The goal of palliative care is to relieve suffering and improve the quality of life for patients with advanced illnesses; and help families through specific knowledge and skills, including communication with patients and family members; management of pain and other symptoms; psychosocial, spiritual, and bereavement support; and coordination of an array of medical and social services.
Question:
Which one of the following is an appropriate type of play for a 6-month-old infant?
Pat-a-cake and peek-a-boo Correct
Ball rolling and hide and seek game
Pots and pans with wooden spoons
Push-pull toys
Explanation:
Pat-a-cake and peek-a-boo are the most age appropriate for this 6-month old. Ball rolling, hide and seek, and pots and pans need more object permanence so it is more appropriate for the 9 month old. The push pull toys require the child to be walking or at least standing.
Question:
When obtaining information from an adolescent who has likely been sexually abused, the most appropriate action initially is to:
notify the parent.
call child protective services.
ask open-ended questions. Correct
tell the adolescent that his/her story will be believed.
Explanation:
It is most appropriate to begin the visit with asking open-ended questions to encourage the adolescent to talk about the situation. Once this information is obtained and determined or suspected to be sexual abuse, child protection should become involved. Parents may be the abusers so delay calling them until more information is collected. The adolescent can be assured that his/her story would be believed but the open-ended questions would be the first response in this situation and would provide an opportunity for the adolescent to discuss the situation more openly.
Question:
Which one of the following would be an abnormal finding in a 6-month-old?
Presence of a positive Babinski reflex
Extrusion reflex occurs when feeding Correct
Able to voluntarily grasp objects
Rolls from abdomen to back at will
Explanation:
Extrusion reflex disappears around 4 months and would be considered abnormal in a 6-month-old. The other choices are signs of normal growth and development in a 6-month-old infant.
Question:
In which of the following situations would a one-year-old child be at risk for lead poisoning?
Ceiling tiles have just been replaced in the child's home.
Refinishing of all painted woodwork has occurred recently in the child's home. Correct
The family moved into a twenty-year- old brick house.
The family moved from a trailer home to a new apartment complex.
Explanation:
Painted woodwork may contain lead, especially in older homes and during refinishing, the paint would have to be scraped off, placing it in easy reach of a one year-old. Ceiling tiles are not a source of lead or lead paint. Any house built after 1978 is considered "lead free" because at that time paint no longer contained lead. Mobile homes generally do not contain lead.
Question:
According to the most recent recommendation from U.S. Preventive Services Task Force, screening healthy older adult men for prostate cancer by prostate specific antigen should occur:
annually.
every 2 years.
every 5 years.
never. Correct
Explanation:
The Task Force states that evidence is insufficient to balance the benefits and harms of screening for men <75 years; recommends against screening men =75 years.
Question:
During the concrete operational period of middle childhood, which of the following is the expected cognitive development? The child is:
able to follow directions but unable to verbalize the actions involved in a process.
able to use thought processes to experience events and actions and make judgments based on what they reason. Correct
able to view from an egocentric outlook that is rigidly developed around the actions to be completed.
able to progress from conceptual thinking to perceptual thinking when making judgments.
Explanation:
During the middle childhood stage, children develop an understanding of the relationship between things and ideas and make judgments about them based on reason (conceptual thinking). Additionally, they develop an understanding of the relationship between things and ideas. They are able to follow directions, reverse a process and verbalize actions involved in the process. Egocentrism is not characteristic of the school age child. This concept is seen in the earlier stages of infant, toddler and preschool growth and development. During the school age years, children progress from making judgments on what they see (perceptual thinking) to making judgments on what they reason (conceptual thinking).
Question:
Toilet training is most appropriately initiated when the child:
is 18-months-old.
wakes up dry from a nap. Correct
is 24- months- old.
exhibits the ability to sit on the potty for 10-15 minutes.
Explanation:
Toilet training is not specific to an age. It is most appropriately initiated when the child shows signs of readiness. When the child shows signs of bladder and/or bowel control, (wakes up dry from naps, pulls off diaper when wet or dirty, complains of wet, dirty diaper), the child is ready to begin toilet training. The ability to sit on the potty may show parental readiness rather than child readiness for toilet training. The child must show physical and cognitive signs of readiness.
Question:
According to the 2008 U.S. Preventive Services Task Force, older adults should be screened for colorectal cancer yearly using high-sensitivity fecal occult blood tests (FOBTs) between:
50 and 60 years of age.
50 and 75 years of age. Correct
55 and 80 years of age.
65 and 85 years of age.
Explanation:
The Task Force recommends screening for colorectal cancer with colonoscopy every 10 years, sigmoidoscopy every 5 years with high-sensitivity fecal occult blood tests (FOBTs) every 3 years, or FOBTs every year beginning age 50 years through age 75 years. Recommends against routine screening for adults ages 76 to 85 years, due to moderate certainty that the net benefit is small.
Question:
Which one of the following statements indicates a developmental delay?
A 9-month-old infant responds consistently to the sound of his name
A 6-week-old infant smiles in response to the mother's face
A 6-month-old infant's eyes appear crossed Correct
A 2 1/2-month-old infant is not reaching for or grasping objects
Explanation:
It is normal for a baby's eyes to wander or cross during the first month 1-2 months of life. If a baby's eyes appear misaligned consistently beyond the first couple of months, the problem could be strabismus or amblyopia, "lazy eye". A referral to an ophthalmologist is warranted. These conditions can be successfully treated if detected early. The other choices are appropriate for the ages and should not be of a concern.
Question:
A 6-month-old presents today for a well child visit. He is sitting in his mother's lap. Assessment should begin with:
eliciting reflexes.
palpating the liver and spleen sizes.
auscultating the heart and lungs. Correct
examining the head and eyes.
Explanation:
When assessing a quiet infant, auscultate the heart and lungs first. The other parts of the exam may cause the infant to cry making auscultation of heart and breath sounds difficult to hear.
Question:
Which one of the following statements is true about immunity?
Passive immunity develops in response to an infant receiving immunizations.
Infants acquire active immunity from the mother which lasts 6 to 7 months.
Infants acquire active immunity in response to infections and immunizations. Correct
Maternal antibodies that pass to the infant ensure active immunity up to 12 months age.
Explanation:
Infants acquire long-term active immunity from exposure to certain diseases (antigens) and vaccines. Active immunity develops in response to immunizations. The infant's passive immunity is acquired from the mother and dissipates around 6 months of age.
Question:
Which one of the following statements made by a mother indicates that her 5-month-old infant is ready for solid foods?
I find that she really has to be encouraged to eat.
She has just started to sit up without support. Correct
When I give my baby solid foods, she has difficulty getting it to the back of her throat to swallow.
She is in the 50th percentile on the growth chart.
Explanation:
The child's age, appetite, and growth rate are all factors that help determine when to feed solid foods. According to the American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP), semi-solid foods are a significant change and should not be introduced until 6 months of age. This age usually coincides with the neuromuscular development necessary to eat solid foods. Before feeding solid foods, the baby should be able to: swallow and digest semi-solid foods and sit up well (an important step in order to be able to stay seated in a high chair to feed). Maintain neck and head control while seated (a necessity in order to turn his or her head to signal when he is finished eating), able to open his or her mouth and move the tongue and lips well, (allowing the movement of food around the mouth) and demonstrate an interest in food and eating solid foods.
Question:
According to the most recent recommendation from U.S. Preventive Services Task Force, healthy women older than 65 years of age should be screened for cervical cancer:
annually.
every 2 years.
every 5 years.
no longer. Correct
Explanation:
The Task Force recommends against routine screening for cervical cancer for women older than age 65 if they have had adequate recent screening with normal Pap smears and are not otherwise at high risk for cervical cancer, based on fair evidence.
Question:
Which one of the following positions is the most accurate regarding infant car seat placement? The car seat should:
be rear-facing in the back seat until the infant is 12 months and 20 pounds. Correct
be forward-facing in the back seat until the infant is 12 months and 20 pounds.
be rear-facing in the front seat until the infant is 12 months and 20 pounds.
be forward-facing in the front seat until the infant is 12 months and 20 pounds.
Explanation:
Infant car seats must be positioned in the back seat of the car, preferably in the middle of the back seat, until the infant is 12 mos. AND 20 pounds.
Question:
When assessing a normal 5-year-old, the last site to assess would be the:
heart.
lungs.
throat. Correct
abdomen.
Explanation:
The throat and mouth are considered invasive sites and should be performed last.
Question:
The assessment finding that would necessitate a need for additional follow-up in a preschooler would be if the child:
is able to dress independently.
rides a tricycle.
has an imaginary friend.
has a hundred word vocabulary. Correct
Explanation:
At age 3, almost all of a child's speech should be understandable; between 3 and 5 years, the preschooler should have a vocabulary of 500 - 1200 words and speak in complete sentences. If language skills are not developed, the child should be referred. The other choices are usual for the preschooler.
Question:
A characteristic finding in the elderly population is:
the increase in diastolic blood pressure after the sixth decade.
a tendency toward developing postural hypertension.
the development of heart rhythm changes leading to syncope. Correct
the susceptibility to hyperthermia.
Explanation:
Characteristic findings in the elderly population include: postural hypotension, abnormal heart rhythms such as atrial or ventricular ectopy which could lead to syncope, changes in temperature regulation leading to susceptibility to hypothermia.
Question:
At what age is it considered normal for a child to pick up objects using the palm of the hand only?
At 2 months of age
At 6 months of age Correct
At 12 months of age
At 18 months of age
Explanation:
Picking up objects using the hand only is called the palmer grasp and is normal in children ages 4-6 months. At 9 months, the child uses the thumb and pointer finger to pick up objects and this is called the pincer grasp. A 12- month- old would be able to use the entire hand and fingers to pick up items. At 2 years old, children have full dexterity and movement.
Question:
In the older adult, the term "Sixth Vital Sign" assesses:
incontinence.
functional status. Correct
sensorium.
muscle strength.
Explanation:
Because of its importance to the health of older adults and the order of the nurse practitioner's assessment, assessing functional status is referred to as the “Sixth Vital Sign.”
Question:
According to the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force, older adults should be screened for colorectal cancer with high-sensitivity fecal occult blood tests (FOBTs) every:
year. Correct
2 years.
5 years.
10 years.
Explanation:
The Task Force recommends screening for colorectal cancer with colonoscopy every 10 years, sigmoidoscopy every 5 years with high-sensitivity fecal occult blood tests (FOBTs) every 3 years, or FOBTs every year beginning age 50 years through age 75 years. Recommends against routine screening for adults ages 76 to 85 years, due to moderate certainty that the net benefit is small.
Question:
According to the most recent recommendation from U.S. Preventive Services Task Force, an adult aged 65 should be screened for breast cancer:
annually.
every 2 years. Correct
every 5 years.
never.
Explanation:
The Task Force recommends screening for breast cancer with mammography every 2 years for women ages 50-74 and cites insufficient evidence for women 75 years and older.
Question:
Which of the following is considered an extrinsic risk factor for falls in the older adult?
Postural hypotension
Psychoactive medications Correct
Previous falls
Fear of falling
Explanation:
There are many risk factors that contribute to falling. They are classified as intrinsic and extrinsic. Extrinsic factors include: lack of handrails, poor stair design, lack of bathroom grab bars, dim lighting or glare, obstacles and tripping hazards, psychoactive medications, slippery or uneven surfaces, and improper use of assistive device. Intrinsic factors include: advanced age, previous falls, muscle weakness, gait and balance problems, poor vision, postural hypotension, chronic conditions (i.e. Parkinson’s, dementia, diabetes), and fear of falling. The risk for falls can be reduced or minimized by first focusing on modifiable risk factors which include: lower body weakness, difficulties with gait and balance, use of psychoactive medications, postural dizziness, poor vision, problems with feet/shoes, and home hazards.
Question:
The formula used to guide "time out" as a disciplinary method is:
Length of "time out" is related to the severity of the behavior
The length of "time out" is determined by using one minute per year of the child's age Correct
Use "time out" in children over the age of 6 years
The length of the "time out" should not exceed 4 minutes
Explanation:
It is important to structure "time out" in a time frame that allows the child to understand why he or she has been removed from the environment. Usually allowing one minute for each year of age is an appropriate guideline. Relating time to a behavior is not appropriate especially in young children who do not understand the concept of time. Using "time-out" discipline is more appropriate for the toddlers and preschool age children. Negative behavior should never be reinforced with a positive action or reward.
Question:
Which one of the following choices would NOT be recommended for effective communication for an older adult?
Allow time for open ended questions and reminiscing
Use brief screening instruments
Face the patient and speak in high tones Correct
Adjust pace and content of the interview to the stamina of the patient
Explanation:
Facing the patient when communicating with the older adult is an effective technique. However, a low tone should be used rather than a high tone. The other choices are effective methods of communicating with the older adult. Additional techniques may include: providing a well-lit, moderately warm setting with minimal background noise; carefully assessing symptoms for clues to underlying disorders; and making sure written instructions are in large print and easy to read.
Question:
To assess for strabismus in a child, use the:
Snellen eye chart.
cover-uncover test. Correct
ophthalmoscope.
test for pupillary reaction.
Explanation:
The cover-uncover test assesses coordination of eye muscle movement when one eye is covered. It is always assessed bilaterally. Strabismus is identified when the covered eye is found to deviate from its forward focus. Snellen eye chart assesses visual acuity; ophthalmoscope is used to visually assess the fundus of the eye. Pupillary reaction tests the ability of the eyes to react to light and accommodate.
Question:
An infant weighed 8 pounds at birth. According to the principles of normal growth and development, how much should he weigh at 12 months of age?
16 pounds
24 pounds Correct
29 pounds
32 pounds
Explanation:
Normal infants double their birth weight at 6 months and triple their birth weight at one year of age. So 8 x 3 = 24 pounds.
Question:
Which of the following is the most age appropriate play for an 8-year-old girl?
Dress up
A board game Correct
Experiment with make-up
Assemble a puzzle with 50 large pieces
Explanation:
School-age children like the competitiveness of board games. Dress up is a preschool activity, experimenting with make-up is an adolescent activity and school age children like small puzzle pieces where as preschoolers like large puzzle pieces.
Question:
When assessing a preschooler's mouth, the number of deciduous teeth seen should be:
Up to 10.
11 to 15.
16-20. Correct
up to 32.
Explanation:
Children get their first 20 deciduous teeth between the ages of 6 months and 5 years. Permanent teeth begin to erupt around 6 years of age when the deciduous teeth begin to fall out. All 32 permanent teeth usually erupt by late adolescence.
Question:
Which of the following milestones is developmentally appropriate for a 2-month-old infant when pulled to a sitting position?
The infant shows persistent head lag when the trunk is lifted.
The infant is completely able to support the head when the trunk is lifted.
The infant is able to hold the head in a straight line.
The infant is briefly able to hold the head erect. Correct
Explanation:
Persistent head lag in a 2-month-old may be indicative of developmental delay. 2-month-old infants should be able to hold the head erect only briefly when pulled to a sitting position. It is not until 4 months that an infant can hold the head in a straight line when pulled to a sitting position. Additionally, a 2-month-old infants' neck muscles are becoming stronger, but the infant is not fully able to support the neck when the trunk is lifted.
Question:
During the first 6 months of life, an infant will:
grow 1 cm in length per month.
gain 1.5 pounds per month. Correct
regain weight lost after birth within 2 months.
have a 1-inch increase in head circumference per month.
Explanation:
Infants gain an average of 1.5 pounds each month for the first 6 months and grow 1 inch/month not 1cm/month. Head circumference grows 1 cm/month for the first year. Infants increase their head circumference by 12 centimeters during the first year of life as they start with an average of 35 centimeters and end up with an average of 47 centimeters. They regain birth weight by the 10th day of life.
Question:
A five year old will engage in what type of play?
Parallel play
Solitary play
Team play
Cooperative play Correct
Explanation:
Cooperative, group, or organized play is typical for children in this setting. At this age, they should learn to share and take turns without becoming frustrated. Team play is seem more in the school age child. Parallel and solitary play is seen in younger children. [Show Less]