The major impact of the physiological changes that occur with aging is:
____ 2. The strongest evidence regarding normal physiological aging is
... [Show More] available through:
____ 3. All of the following statements are true about laboratory values in older adults except:
____ 4. Biochemical individuality is best described as:
____ 5. Polypharmacy is best described as taking:
____ 6. Pharmacokinetic changes with aging are reflective of:
____ 7. All the following statements are false about drug absorption except:
____ 8. All of the following statements are true about drug distribution in the elderly except:
____ 9. Men have faster and more efficient biotransformation of drugs and this is thought to be due to:
____ 10. The cytochrome p system involves enzymes that are generally:
____ 11. A statement not shown to be true about pharmacodynamics changes with aging is:
____ 12. Atypical presentation of disease in the elderly is reflected by all the following except:
____ 13. Functional abilities are best assessed by:
Chapter 2. Health Promotion
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. The leading cause of death in elderly travelers worldwide is:
____ 2. Which of the following should be avoided in countries where food and water precautions are to be observed?
____ 3. What insect precautions are not necessary to prevent insect-borne diseases in the tropics?
____ 4. An example of secondary prevention you could recommend/order for older adults would be to:
____ 5. Ali is a 72-year-old man who recently came to the U.S. from Nigeria. He reports having BCG
(bacille Calmette-Guerin) vaccination as a child. Which of the following is correct regarding a
tuberculin skin test?
____ 6. A 72-year-old woman and her husband are on a cross-country driving vacation. After a long day of driving, they stop for dinner. Midway through the meal, the woman becomes very short of breath,
with chest pain and a feeling of panic. Which of the following problems is most likely?
____ 7. Ivan W. is a 65-year-old man who is new to your practice. He has a history of COPD, CAD,
hypertension, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. He has had no immunizations since his discharge from the military at age 25. Childhood diseases included chickenpox, measles, mumps, and “German
measles.” He presents for a disease management visit. Which of the following immunizations would you recommend for Ivan?
____ 8. Leo L. is a 62-year-old African American male who comes for an initial visit to your practice.
Personal health history includes smoking 1 pack/day since age 11, consuming a case of beer (24
bottles) every weekend, and working as an assembler (sedentary job) for the past 10 years. Family
history in first-degree relatives includes hypertension, high cholesterol, heart attack, and type 2
diabetes mellitus. Leo’s BMI is 32; BP today is 130/86. You order a fasting glucose, lipid profile,
and return visit for BP check. This is an example of:
____ 9. A local chapter of a nurse practitioner organization has begun planning a community-based
screening for hypertension at a local congregate living facility. This population was selected on the
basis of:
____ 10. Performing range of motion exercises on a client who has had a stroke is an example of which level of prevention?
____ 11. The nurse practitioner demonstrates an understanding of primary prevention of falling among the elderly through which management plan?
____ 12. An example of an active strategy of health promotion for an individual to accomplish would be:
____ 13. You are working with an older male adult with a long history of alcohol abuse and a 30-year history of smoking. In recommending an intervention for this client, your responsibility is to:
____ 14. The four main domains of clinical preventive services that the practitioner will provide are:
____ 15. Which organism that can be prevented by immunization is most often responsible for an infectious “outbreak” in the nursing home setting?
s
____ 16. What is the appropriate method for tuberculosis screening of an older adult entering a nursing home?
Chapter 3. Exercise in Older Adults
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. Exercise recommended for older adults should include activities that:
____ 2. Preferred amount of exercise for older adults is:
____ 3. Which of the following medical conditions is not considered restrictive for engaging in physical
activity?
____ 4. The best recommendation for a patient who states they have no equipment to exercise would be:
____ 5. When the nurse practitioner recommends exercise for a sedentary older adult, which of the following
pieces of advice should be considered for all types of exercise?
Chapter 4. Comprehensive Geriatric Assessment
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. The evidence reflects that comprehensive geriatric assessment should be conducted:
____ 2. Evidence-based geriatric assessment instruments available to the clinician:
____ 3. When interviewing the older adult with a suspected dementia, it is most important that:
____ 4. Which is not considered a dimension of symptomatology?
____ 5. The best approach to taking the health history is to:
____ 6. A review of the evidence relative to screening of the elderly reveals the highest evidence rating for:
____ 7. Assessment of vital signs in the elderly reflect:
____ 8. What statement is true about nutrition intake in the elderly?
____ 9. What is reflective of functional decline in older adults?
____ 10. The leading cause of traumatic death in the elderly is due to:
____ 11. Timing of the get-and-go test enhances its sensitivity. The process should take less than:
____ 12. A validated tool for assessing cognitive function specific to dementia is:
____ 13. The medical outcome study short form 36 remains the gold standard of quality of life instruments. It
measures:
Chapter 5. Symptoms and Syndromes
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. The term “geriatric syndrome” is best described as:
____ 2. The anal wink reflex is used to test:
____ 3. Atypical presentation of acute coronary syndrome is:
____ 4. What disease can mimic and often co-exists with myocardial infarctions in elders with coronary artery disease?
____ 5. Thoracic aortic dissection presents typically as:
____ 6. Medications known to contribute to constipation include all of the following except:
____ 7. Bordetella pertussis is best characterized by:
____ 8. The routine testing of tuberculosis should occur in all of the following vulnerable populations except:
____ 9. Which of the following statements about fluid balance in the elderly is false?
____ 10. Distinguishing delirium from dementia can be problematic since they may co-exist. The primary
consideration in the differential is:
____ 11. Presbystasis is best described as:
____ 12. If dizziness has a predictable pattern associated with it, the clinician should first consider:
____ 13. All of the following are considered as contributors to dysphagia except:
____ 14. Evidence shows that the most important predictor of a fall is:
____ 15. The most cost-effective interventions used to prevent falls are:
____ 16. Chronic fatigue syndrome is best described as:
____ 17. Which form of headache is bilateral?
____ 18. Microscopic hematuria is defined as:
____ 19. Risk factors associated with the finding of a malignancy in a patient with hemoptysis include all of
the following except:
____ 20. Recent weight loss is defined as:
____ 21. The most common cause of disability in the elderly is due to:
____ 22. Lipedema is best described as:
____ 23. Drug-induced pruritus is distinguished because it:
____ 24. A form of syncope that is more common in the elderly than younger adults is:
____ 25. All of the following statements about tremor are true except:
____ 26. Overflow incontinence is usually associated with:
____ 27. Wandering is best described as:
Chapter 6. Skin and Lymphatic Disorders
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. Which of the following dermatological conditions results from reactivation of the dormant varicella
virus?
____ 2. An older adult male presents with pain in his right chest wall for the past 48 hours. Upon examination, the nurse practitioner notices a vesicular eruption along the dermatome and identifies this as herpes zoster. The NP informs the gentleman that:
____ 3. A 70-year-old white male comes to the clinic with a slightly raised, scaly, pink, and irregular lesion on his scalp. He is a farmer and works outside all day. You suspect actinic keratosis, but cannot rule out other lesions. What recommendation would you give him?
____ 4. The immunofluorescent antibody (IFA) is a laboratory test used to diagnose which of the following disorders?
____ 5. A wound with drainage and foul odor should be cleansed with:
____ 6. A full-thickness pressure ulcer is partially covered with eschar and the surrounding tissue is reddened. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this condition?
____ 7. In examining the skin of your nursing home patient, you note a “stained glass” brownish mark on the face. Which of the following lesions best describes a stained glass brownish mark?
____ 8. Patients who have an underlying tinea infection to the cellulitis should also be treated with which one of the following?
____ 9. Identify the type of malignant melanoma that is associated with the Hutchinson’s sign of the cuticle of the finger.
____ 10. A smooth round nodule with a pearly gray border and central induration best describe which skin lesion?
____ 11. Cellulitis is a deep skin infection involving the dermis and subcutaneous tissues. The nurse practitioner suspects cellulitis in a 70-year-old Asian diabetic male presenting with reddened edematous skin around his nares. Which statement below will the nurse practitioner use in her decision-making process for the differential diagnosis pertaining to reddened edematous skin?
____ 12. An 82-year-old female has a “pimple” on his nose that occasionally bleeds and may have increased in size in the past year. The lesion is a 0.7-cm, dome-shaped, umbilicated papule with pearly translucence. There is also a hemorrhagic crust covering the central portion. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
____ 13. Which of the following is generally not a first-line treatment for post herpetic neuralgia?
____ 14. A nursing home resident with a Stage 4 pressure ulcer that extends to the muscle layer and has
significant undermining with heavy exudate should be treated with:
____ 15. Which of the following descriptions accurately documents cellulitis?
____ 16. Asymmetrical bi-color lesion with irregular border measuring 8 mm is found on the right lower arm
of an adult patient. This assessment finding is consistent with:
____ 17. Which of the following descriptions best illustrates assessment findings consistent with tinea capitis?
____ 18. A hyperkeratotic nodule formed as the result of exposure of the foot to moisture from perspiration
is called:
____ 19. A 64-year-old male presents with an exacerbation of psoriasis. His social history includes 50-year
two packs a day of cigarettes and a six-pack a week of beer. He states he had a recent sore throat, which he attributes to minding his young grandson. He reports that until recently the pruritis was only minimal. His BMI is 37. Which of the following factors most likely contributed to the acute presentation of psoriasis?
____ 20. Treatment of complicated cellulitis of the lower extremity resulting from an anaerobe requires all of
the following except:
Chapter 7. Head, Neck, and Face Disorders
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. A 64-year-old male presents with erythema of the sclera, tearing, and bilateral pruritus of the eyes. The symptoms occur intermittently throughout the year and he has associated clear nasal discharge. Which of the following is most likely because of the inflammation?
____ 2. One of the first-line treatments in patients with allergic rhinitis is the use of nasal corticosteroid sprays. What is the anticipated onset of symptom relief with the use of these medications?
____ 3. The nurse practitioner knows that antihistamines work primarily through which of the following mechanisms?
____ 4. Cromolyn sodium may also be used in the treatment of allergic rhinitis. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
____ 5. Patients that have atopic disorders are mediated by the production of IGE will have histamine stimulated as an immediate phase response. This release of histamine results in which of the following?
____ 6. Which of the following maneuvers is used to induce symptoms of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo?
____ 7. You have a patient complaining of vertigo and want to know what could be the cause. Knowing there are many causes for vertigo, you question the length of time the sensation lasts. She tells you several hours to days and is accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss. You suspect which of the following conditions?
____ 8. Sensory impairment (vision and hearing) in the elderly is associated with:
____ 9. Which of the following conditions is the leading cause of blindness in the United States?
____ 10. A slightly elevated elastic tissue deposit in the conjunctiva that may extend to the cornea but does
not cover it is known as a:
____ 11. A nonmodifiable risk factor for the development of cataracts is:
____ 12. Causes of sensorineural hearing loss include:
____ 13. Clinical findings in patients with nonproliferation retinopathy include:
____ 14. In examining the mouth of an older adult with a history of smoking, the nurse practitioner finds a
suspicious oral lesion. The patient has been referred for a biopsy to be sent for pathology. Which is the most common oral precancerous lesion?
____ 15. A gross screening for hearing is the whisper tests. Which cranial nerve is being tested when the nurse practitioner conducts this test?
Chapter 8. Chest Disorders
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. In mitral stenosis, p waves may suggest:
____ 2. Aortic regurgitation requires medical treatment for early signs of CHF with:
____ 3. A key symptom of ischemic heart disease is chest pain. However, angina equivalents may include exertional dyspnea. Angina equivalents are important because:
____ 4. The best evidence rating drugs to consider in a post myocardial infarction patient include:
____ 5. A 55-year-old post-menopausal woman with a history of hypertension complains of jaw pain on heavy exertion. There were no complaints of chest pain. Her ECG indicates normal sinus rhythm without ST-segment abnormalities. Your plan may include:
____ 6. Preceding a stress test, the following lab work might include:
____ 7. Which test is the clinical standard for the assessment of aortic stenosis?
____ 8. What is the most common valvular heart disease in an older adult?
____ 9. On examination, what type of murmur can be auscultated with aortic regurgitation?
____ 10. Ischemic heart disease is:
th in the elderly.
____ 11. Which test is the clinical standard for the assessment of aortic stenosis?
____ 12. The aging process causes what normal physiological changes in the heart?
____ 13. An older adult may present with atypical clinical signs of pneumonia. The nurse practitioner needs to be aware that the clustering of all of the following signs and symptoms may be indicative of pneumonia in an older person except:
____ 14. Which of the following statements is true concerning anti-arrhythmic drugs?
____ 15. Dan G., a 65-year-old man, presents to your primary care office for the evaluation of chest pain and left-sided shoulder pain. Pain begins after strenuous activity, including walking. Pain is characterized as dull, aching; 8/10 during activity, otherwise 0/10. Began a few months ago, intermittent, aggravated by exercise, and relieved by rest. Has occasional nausea. Pain is retrosternal, radiating to left shoulder, definitely affects quality of life by limiting activity. Pain is worse today; did not go away after he stopped walking. BP 120/80. Pulse 72 and regular. Normal heart sounds, S1
and S2, no murmurs. Which of the following differential diagnoses would be most likely?
____ 16. Jose M. is a 68-year-old man who presents to your primary care practice for a physical. Jose has had type 2 diabetes mellitus for 5 years, diet controlled. His BMI is 32. Smoker, pack per day for 25 years. He denies other medical problems. Family history includes CAD, CABG x4 for father, now deceased; CHF, type 2 diabetes mellitus, HT for mother. According to the AHA/ACC guidelines, what stage is Jose?
____ 17. Susan P., a 60-year-old woman with a 30 pack-year history, presents to your primary care practice for evaluation of persistent, daily cough with increased sputum production, worse in the morning, occurring over the past three months. She tells you, “I have the same thing, year after year.” Which of the following choices would you consider strongly in your critical thinking process?
____ 18. The best way to diagnose structural heart disease/dysfunction non-invasively is:
____ 19. A common auscultatory finding in advanced CHF is:
____ 20. The organism most commonly responsible for community-acquired pneumonia in older adults is:
____ 21. A 72-year-old woman and her husband are on a cross-country driving vacation. After a long day of driving, they stop for dinner. Midway through the meal, the woman becomes very short of breath, with chest pain and a feeling of panic. Which of the following problems is most likely?
Chapter 9: Peripheral Vascular Disorders
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. The clinician should begin the peripheral vascular exam with:
____ 2. Inspection of the distal nails and nail beds should be evaluated for signs of decreased perfusion. Signs include:
____ 3. A thorough vascular exam includes all of the following except:
____ 4. The majority of abdominal aortic aneurysms are due to:
____ 5. The best initial screening test for abdominal aortic aneurysm is:
____ 6. The initial treatment for symptomatic abdominal aortic aneurysm involves:
____ 7. The major cause of death after an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair is:
____ 8. An early symptom of peripheral artery disease is:
____ 9. The hallmark of venous stasis ulcers include all of the following except:
____ 10. Exercise is an essential element of peripheral arterial disease management primarily because:
____ 11. Home exercise programs for peripheral arterial disease focus on:
____ 12. When should surgical options for peripheral arterial disease be considered?
____ 13. All of the following are classic signs of venous insufficiency except:
____ 14. Lower leg edema associated with pain is characteristic of:
____ 15. The most common cause of secondary lymphedema is:
____ 16. The imaging gold standard for lymphedema is:
____ 17. Known risk factors for lymphedema include all of the following except:
____ 18. Complete decongestive physiotherapy (CDP) works by:
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Chapter 10. Abdominal Disorders
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. Your 70-year-old patient has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). After a trial of lifestyle modifications and antacids, the patient continues to have occasional mild heartburn after occasional meals and at night. The most appropriate next action is:
____ 2. An older patient reports burning pain after ingestion of many foods and large meals. What assessment would assist the nurse practitioner in making a diagnosis of GERD?
____ 3. The nurse practitioner is examining a 62-year-old female who has been complaining of lower abdominal pain. Upon auscultation, bowel sounds are high pitched and tinkling. Which of the following terms describes this finding?
____ 4. In teaching an older adult female client with end-stage renal disease her medication regimen, the nurse practitioner must include which of the following pieces of information in the treatment plan?
____ 5. A 62-year-old client presents with a complaint of fever, pain, and burning on urination. Difficulty urinating with dribbling has been increasing in the past few days. He has a feeling of pressure in his groin. On examination, his prostate is tender, boggy, and warm. A stat urinalysis reveals the presence of leukocytes and bacteria. He is allergic to sulfa drugs. His weight is 70 kg and his last serum creatinine was 1.0. While awaiting the culture and sensitivity, the nurse practitioner begins empiric treatment with which of the following?
____ 6. A 62-year-old woman presents with a recurrent urinary tract infection. She now has a fever of 104°F
and severe costovertebral tenderness with pyuria. What is the appropriate diagnosis and intervention for this patient?
____ 7. Which of the following drugs would be useful for the nurse practitioner to prescribe for an older adult to prevent gastric ulcers when a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug is used for chronic pain management?
____ 8. A 68-year-old male reports painless rectal bleeding occasionally noted with thin pencil-like stools, but no pain with defection. He has a history of colon polyp removal 10 years ago but was lost to follow-up. The nurse practitioner’s appropriate intervention is:
____ 9. Asymptomatic 1+ bacteruria is found in a nursing home resident with an indwelling catheter. The
nurse practitioner’s initial intervention includes:
____ 10. When counseling clients regarding the use of antidiarrheal drugs such as Imodium anti-diarrheal and
Kaopectate, the nurse practitioner advises patients to:
____ 11. When teaching a group of older adults regarding prevention of gastroesophageal reflux disease symptoms, the nurse practitioner will include which of the following instructions?
____ 12. A clinical clue for suspected renal artery stenosis would be:
____ 13. Helicobacter pylori is implicated as a causative agent in the development of duodenal or gastric ulcers. What teaching should the nurse practitioner plan for a patient who has a positive Helicobacter pylori test?
____ 14. An obese middle-aged client presents with a month of nonproductive irritating cough without fever.
He also reports occasional morning hoarseness. What should the differential include?
____ 15. Which of the following findings would indicate a need for another endoscopy in clients with peptic ulcer disease?
____ 16. A careful history of a female client with a chief complaint of intermittent diarrhea reveals that she also experiences bouts of constipation. She has no known allergies and experienced no unintentional weight loss. What is the most likely condition?
____ 17. The nurse practitioner is discussing lifestyle changes with a patient diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux. What are the nonpharmacological management interventions that should be included?
____ 18. In differentiating a gastric ulcer from a duodenal ulcer, you know that each type of ulcer can present with distinct signs and symptoms. Which of the following pieces of information from the patient’s history is the least useful for you to determine that the patient has a duodenal ulcer?
____ 19. A 74-year-old obese female presents complaining of persistent right upper quadrant pain. She reports that she has not had any prior abdominal surgeries. Which of the following laboratory studies would be most indicative of acute cholecystitis?
____ 20. Which of the following is not a contributing factor to the development of esophagitis in older adults?
Chapter 11. Urological and Gynecologic Disorders
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. Which ethnic group has the highest incidence of prostate cancer?
____ 2. Men with an initial PSA level below 2.5 ng/ml can reduce their screening frequency to what intervals?
____ 3. All of the following may be reasons associated with an elevated PSA besides prostate cancer except:
____ 4. In the diagnosis of acute bacterial prostatitis, a midstream urine culture is of benefit. To be diagnostic, the specimen should reveal how many white blood cells per high-power field?
____ 5. In chronic bacterial prostatitis, what is the organism most commonly associated with the disease?
____ 6. In acute prostatitis, an exam of the prostate may find the gland to be:
____ 7. All of the following antimicrobials may be indicated in chronic bacterial prostatitis except:
____ 8. Age-related changes in the bladder, urethra, and ureters include all of the following in older women
except:
____ 9. Mr. Jones is a 68-year-old retired Air Force pilot that has been diagnosed with prostate cancer in the past week. He has never had a surgical procedure in his life and seeks clarification on the availability of treatments for prostate cancer. He asks the nurse practitioner to tell him the side effects of a radical prostatectomy. Which of the following is NOT a potential side effect of this procedure?
____ 10. The nurse practitioner is evaluating a patient’s pelvic muscle strength by digital examination. This is
performed when:
____ 11. A pelvic mass in a postmenopausal woman:
____ 12. A 79-year-old man is being evaluated for frequent urinary dribbling without burning. Physical examination reveals a smooth but slightly enlarged prostate gland. His PSA level is 3.3 ng/mL. The patient undergoes formal urodynamic studies, and findings are as follows: a decreased bladder capacity of 370 mL; a few involuntary detrusor contractions at a low bladder volume of 246 mL; an increased postvoid residual urine volume of 225 mL; and a slightly decreased urinary flow rate. Which of the following is not consistent with a normal age-associated change?
____ 13. Mrs. Smith, a 65-year-old woman presents to clinic for the first time and complains of urinary incontinence and dyspareunia. She went through menopause 10 years ago without any hormone replacement therapy and had a hysterectomy for a fibroid. Her mother had a hip fracture at 82 years of age. The patient’s most recent mammogram was 5 years ago and no known family history of breast cancer. She is not taking any medications. Her physical examination is unremarkable except for findings consistent with atrophic vaginitis. You decide to begin topical hormone replacement therapy. Which of the following evaluations would be necessary prior to initiating hormone replacement therapy?
____ 14. Mrs. L. Billings is a 77-year-old Caucasian female who has a history of breast cancer. She has been in remission for 6 years. As her primary care provider, you are seeing her for follow-up of her recent complaint of intermittent abdominal pain of a 3-month duration and some general malaise. Given the brief history above, what will you direct your assessment at during physical examination?
____ 15. A 78-year-old female comes to the office because she has pain when she urinates. She has been seen three times for this problem in the last 3 months. Each time she was told she had a UTI and was given antibiotics. She carefully followed the instructions but has had no relief of symptoms. Last UA: WBCs: 2-3/high-power field RBCs: 0-2/high-power field Epithelial cells: Few Nitrite: Negative Leuckocyte esterase: Negative Which of the following should be done next?
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Chapter 12. Musculoskeletal Disorders
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. Osteoarthritis of the cervical and lumbar spine causes pain that is related to all of the following except:
____ 2. In differentiating osteoarthritis from chronic gout, pseudogout, or septic arthritis, the most valuable the diagnostic study would be:
____ 3. Patients with osteoarthritis of the hip and knee often have a distinguishable gait described as:
____ 4. Which of the following best describes the pain associated with osteoarthritis?
____ 5. Joint effusions typically occur later in the course of OA, especially in the:
____ 6. You have ordered a CBC for your patient you suspect has polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR). Which two clinical findings are common in patients with PMR?
____ 7. You suspect that your patient has polymyalgia rheumatica and now are concerned that the patient may also have Giant Cell Arteritis (GCA). Which of the following two symptoms are most indicative of GCA and PMR?
____ 8. Your 63-year-old Caucasian woman with polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) will begin treatment with corticosteroids until the condition has resolved. You look over her records and it has been 2 years since her last physical examination and any laboratory or diagnostic tests as she relocated and had not yet identified a health-care provider. In prioritizing your management plan, your first orders should include:
____ 9. Which of the following differential diagnosis for patients presenting with polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) can be ruled out with a muscle biopsy?
____ 10. In reviewing laboratory results for patients suspected with polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR), you realize that there is no definitive test to diagnosis PRM, rather clinical response to treatment. Results you would expect to see include:
____ 11. Which of the following is the most appropriate laboratory test for monitoring gout therapy over the long-term?
____ 12. In providing health teaching related to dietary restrictions, the nurse practitioner should advise a patient with gout to avoid which of the following dietary items:
____ 13. The best method of verifying a diagnosis of gout in a joint is which of the following:
____ 14. The most appropriate first-line treatment for an acute gout flare is (assuming no kidney disease or elevated bleeding risk):
____ 15. The nurse practitioner orders bilateral wrist X-rays on a 69-year-old gentleman complaining of pain in both wrists for the past 6 weeks not related to any known trauma. The nurse practitioner suspects elderly onset rheumatoid arthritis. The initial radiographic finding in a patient with elderly onset rheumatoid arthritis would be:
____ 16. The nurse practitioner is examining the hands of a 55-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis and notes bilateral spindle shaped deformities on the middle interphalangeal joints. These are known as:
____ 17. A 72-year-old female patient has been diagnosed with gout. She also has a long history of chroniccongestive heart failure. The most likely contributing factor to the development of gout in this olderfemale is:
____ 18. Which of the following statements about osteoarthritis is true?
____ 19. In considering the specificity of laboratory data, the most reliable diagnostic test listed below would be:
____ 20. When examining the spine of an older adult you notice a curvature with a sharp angle. This is referred to as a:
Chapter 13. Central and Peripheral Nervous System Disorders
Chapter 14. Endocrine, Metabolic, and Nutritional Disorders
Chapter 15. Hematologic and Immune System Disorders
Chapter 16. Psychosocial Disorders
Chapter 17. Polypharmacy
Chapter 18. Chronic Illness and the Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN)
Chapter 19. Palliative Care and End-of-Life Care [Show Less]