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Walden University NURS 6541
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WALDEN UNIVERSITY NURS 6541 WEEK 3 QUIZ – QUESTION WITH ANSWERS
WALDEN UNIVERSITY NURS 6541 WEEK 3 QUIZ – QUESTION WITH ANSWERS WALDEN UNIVERSITY NURS 6541 NURS 6541 WEEK 3 QUIZ NURS 6541 WALDEN UNIVERSITY NUR... [Show More] S 6541 WEEK 3 QUIZ – QUESTION WITH ANSWERS QUESTION 1 A 9-year-old who weighs 70 pounds asks why she can’t sit in the front passenger seat of the family car. Your best response is: a. The safest place for children under 12 years old and 100 pounds is the backseat of the car. b. Air bags are not effective for children this age and will often not reach the child. c. It’s okay to sit in the front seat as long as air bags are not present or are turned off. d. Booster seats should never be used after 8 years of age. 1 points QUESTION 2 Which of the following is a priority nurse practitioner role to help children and adolescents to have healthy sexual development? a. Begin anticipatory guidance related to sexuality and normal pubertal development in the early school-age visits. b. Inform parents about a child’s risky sexual behaviors. c. Ask teenage girls if they have a boyfriend. d. Assessing parental beliefs regarding sexual education. 1 points QUESTION 3 For adolescent girls, peak height velocity should occur by Tanner Stage (SMR): a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 1 points QUESTION 4 Which of the following statements regarding adolescent substance use is true? a. A negative drug screen effectively rules out drug use. b. Taking drug screen samples from adolescents without their assent is acceptable in pediatrics. c. Tobacco is the most commonly abused substance during adolescence. d. Most teen alcohol abusers are not “functional” alcoholics. 1 points QUESTION 5 Which of the following statements about bullying is true? a. About 35% of second graders report having been bullied. b. It occurs most commonly during unstructured times (lunch, recess, etc.). c. Boys are more likely to indirectly bully while girls usually directly bully. d. Victims rarely have physical symptoms. 1 points QUESTION 6 Which of the following screenings should adolescents have done annually? a. Psychosocial screening, blood pressure, body mass index b. Blood pressure, hemoglobin, complete physical exam c. Complete physical exam, psychosocial screening, drug testing d. Psychosocial screening, cholesterol screening, blood pressure 1 points QUESTION 7 The mother of a 5-year-old informs you her daughter cheats when playing board games. What is the best response? a. Encourage the parents to use timeouts when cheating occurs. b. Explain that this is developmentally normal until the child is old enough to understand complex game rules. c. Tell the mother to spend time clarifying board game rules before starting games. d. Have the mother explain to her daughter that cheating, like lying, is unacceptable behavior and make her stop playing. 1 points QUESTION 8 A 12-year-old male states he noticed an enlargement of his testes and scrotum. When counseling him about the next step in pubertal development, you state: a. The penis will grow in length and width b. The penis will grow in width. c. Facial hair will appear. d. Changes in your voice will occur. 1 points QUESTION 9 Which of the following issues or concepts is relevant to the school-age child? a. Operational thinking b. Erikson’s initiative versus guilt c. Formal operational thinking d. Conservation, classification, and seriation 1 points QUESTION 10 Appropriate anticipatory guidance for the parents of an 8-year-old girl includes: a. Preparation for an increase in nervous mannerisms and activity b. Preparation for decreased needs for parental guidance and supervision c. Information that the child will start to value personal idols and role models d. Information on menstrual hygiene practices 1 points QUESTION 11 When completing this quiz, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the expectations for academic integrity? Yes [Show Less]
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NURS 6541 Midterm Exam Review (Week 1-6)
NURS 6541 Midterm Exam Review (Week 1-6) NURS 6541 Midterm Exam Review (Week 1-6) Week 1: Growth and Development • Safety with Car Seats – remain ... [Show More] rear facing for as long as possible until they reach weight or height of seat. https://www.aap.org/en-us/about-the-aap/aap-press-room/Pages/AAP-Updates-Recommendations-on-Car-Seats-for-Children.aspx • Vaccination Schedules and contraindications – o Hepatitis B – 3 dose series o Rotavirus – 2 dose series o Diphtheria, tetanus, & acellular pertussis (DTaP) – 5 dose series o Haemophilus influenzae type b (HIB) o Pneumococcal conjugate (PCV13) o Inactivated poliovirus (IPV) o Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) o Varicella o Hepatitis A o Meningococcal o Tetanus, diphtheria, & acellular pertussis (Tdap) o Human papillomavirus (HPV) o Meningococcal B o Pneumococcal polysaccharide (PPSV23) • Child Abuse mandatory reporting – any reason to believe that there is abuse or neglect, you do not have to have burden of proof, • Failure to thrive causes o Childs environment (loss of emotional bond between parent and child, poverty, problems with child-caregiver relationship, diet, exposure to infections, parasites, or toxins, poor eating habits), abuse, neglect, genes such as Down syndrome, organ problems, hormone problems, damage to the brain or CNS may cause feeding difficulties, heart or lung problems, anemia, GI problems making it hard to absorb nutrients or cause a lack of digestive enzymes, long-term infections, metabolism problems, • Breastfed baby’s possible health problems o Lowers risk of asthma or allergies • Normal birth weights and growth – birth to 6 months growth ½ - 1 inch a month and gain 5-7 ounces a week. Double birth weight by 5 months • Normal reflexes in newborns o Rooting – goes away at 4 months - check stroked head turns to that side o Suck – when roof of mouth touch baby starts to suck begins 32 weeks and not fully developed until 36 weeks. o Moro – goes away at 3-4 months – startled o Step – goes away 2 months - appears to be taking steps o Tonic neck – goes away 5-7 months old. head relaxed and laying face up is moved to the side, the arm reaches away from body with had partially open o Grasp – goes away 5-6 months – stroke palm of hand and fingers grasp • Language development issues o Always check hearing • Fine motor skills o • Signs of puberty o Tanner stages 1 hair development, papilla above level of chest 2 sparse, long, pigmented, downy hair – hair seen along the labia and base of penis, small mounds and increased diameter of the areolae, enlargement of Scutum and testes and change in texture of scrotal skin 3 considerably darker, coarser, and curlier, hair is spread over pubes, breast and areolae cont to enlarge, length of penis some circumference, and increase growth in testes and scrotum 4 hair is adult like but decreased in total quantity, areolae and papillae elevate above breast, penis is larger in length and circumference, further development of glans penis, distinct darkening of scrotal skin 5 hair is in triangle and down thighs, mature breast, genitals are adult size o • Piaget developmental stages o Sensorimotor o Preoperational o Concrete o formal • Normal vital signs for various age groups o Infant (1-12mo)– RR 20-30 – HR 80-140 o Toddler (1-3 y.o) – RR 20-30 – HR 80-130 o Preschooler (3-5) – RR 20-30 – HR 80-120 o School Age (6-12) – RR 20-30 – HR 70-110 • Congenital infection with cytomegalovirus, complications of prematurity o Most common congenital viral infection o IUGR, prematurity, microcephaly, jaundice, petechiae, hepatosplenomegaly, periventricular calcifications, chorioretinitits, pneumonitis, hepatitis, and sensorineural hearing loss • Crawling (7-10 months), sitting (4-7 months without support 8 months), rolling over (tummy to back early as 4 months – 5-6 months back to front), walking milestones (9-12 months) Week 2: Infants, Toddlers, and Preschoolers • Normal premature infant growth • Protein calorie malnutrition • Small size differentials • Poor weight gain differentials • Well Child Visit standards for these age groups • Normal sequencing of development in a toddler • Treatment for teething • Early interventions services for speech • Sleep refusal • Bowel training issues • Breath holding • Bilingual children and expectations • Vaccination schedule • Normal sleep patterns • Correct order for introduction of food • Screening for TB • Normal breastfeeding schedules Week 3: School-Age Children and Adolescents • Drug Screening adolescents o Emergent clinical care for altered mental status, assessment of behavioral or mental health symptoms • Vaccination catch up schedule • Routine lab screenings • Anticipatory guidance for each age group • Bedwetting • Erickson’s stages of development o One – trust vs mistrust – Hope 0-1.5 o Autonomy vs shame and doubt – Will 1.5-3 o Three – initiative vs guilt – Purpose 3-5 o Four – industry vs inferiority – competency 5-12 o Five – identity vs role confusion – Fidelity 12-18 o Six – intimacy vs isolation – Love 18-40 o Seven – generativity vs stagnation – Care 40-65 o Eight – ego integrity vs despair – wisdom 65+ • Safety concerns • Bullying • Puberty • Adolescent substance abuse • Lab screenings in adolescents • Female peak height velocity Week 4: HEENT • Differential diagnoses for patients with HEENT disorders • Various treatment options for common HEENT disorders • Evaluate pattern recognition in patient diagnoses o Cobblestone appearance in throat and eyelids Polygonal cells bulge out from mucosal surface; can be caused by postnasal drip, laryngopharyngeal reflux (LPR) o Otitis media Otalgia with fever, N/V/D, hearing loss, difficulty sleeping Increase risk with smoking in house, bottle feeding, and daycare Bulging, erythematous TM, displacement of light reflex Oral analgesics, Amoxicillin, Cefdinir o Conjunctivitis, all types Viral, bacterial, and allergic Blurred vision, crust overnight, visual acuity should be unaffected, itching and watery discharge (allergic), foreign body sensation, photophobia, and discharge (viral), purulent (bacterial), severe eye pain (scleritis) o Corneal abrasion Foreign body sensation, tearing, redness, and discharge, vision is rarely affected Slit-lamp exam with fluorescein staining Remove foreign object, ATB ointment (bacitracin/polymyxin B or ciprofloxacin) and pupillary dilation o Keratitis Inflammation of the cornea o Hyphema o Nasal and eye foreign body o Allergic rhinitis Itching, sneezing, rhinorrhea, nasal congestion, conjunctivitis, caused by exposure to pollens or other allergens Antihistamines, decongestants, nasal corticosteroids o Hand, foot and mouth syndrome Caused by coxsackievirus A16, enterovirus 71, enteroviruses Can have sore throat or mouth pain, refuse to eat, fever, vesicles over buccal mucosa and tongue, palms of hands and soles of feet. Sometimes the butt and genitals o Strep pharyngitis Sore throat, fever, beefy red pharynx, purulent tonsillar exudate, cervical and submaxillary nodes o Glomerulonephritis Inflammation of the glomeruli blood vessels in the kidneys o Peritonsillar abscess Fever, throat pain, and trismus Ultrasongraphy and computed tomographic scanning to confirm diagnosis, needle aspiration is the gold standard with pcn, clinda, cephalosporins or metronidazole for ATB therapy o Epiglottitis Bacterial can rapidly progress Severe sore throat, dysphagia, high fever, drooling, and inspiratory stidor Protect the airway o Cervical adenitis Acute symptomatic enlargement of lymph nodes with spontaneous resolution over four to six weeks o Orbital cellulitis Caused by extension of adjacent sinuses, especially the ethmoid sinus Swelling and redness of the eyelid and surrounding soft tissues, conjunctival hyperemia and chemosisi, decreased ocular motility, pain with eye movements, decreased visual acutity, and proptosis ATB (clinda, vanc, doxy) o Visual acuity by ages Distance done by Snellen letters, numbers, picture test Ocular alignment done by unilateral cover test at 10 ft o Exotropia Form of strabismus where eyes deviate outward Transient intermittent seen in 4-6 week olds and spontaneously resolve. Constant is congenital o Esotropia Strabismus in which one or both eyes turns inward “cross eyed” o Strabismus Misalignment of the eyes that causes deviation from parallelism of normal gaze Risk factors – downs and crouzon, prenatal drug exposure, prematurity, low birth wt, congenital eye defects, and cerebral palsy Diagnosis with cover test Treatment – patching an corrective lenses, alignment by corrective lenses and surgical repair o Foreign body in ear o TMJ malocclusion Trauma, arthritis, bad bite where teeth do not fit together, muscles are not in right position when mouth is closed and it puts stress on the hard and soft tissues in the jaw o Bruxism Clenching or grinding of teeth o Excessive cerumen Causes hearing loss, irritation, pain, dizziness, and ringing o Epstein’s pearls Benign retention cyst resembling small pearls often seen in the palate Disappear within 1-2 weeks of birth o Exostosis Bone spur formation of new bone on the surface of bone Causes chronic pain, can be seen in the ribs, ankles, knees, shoulders, elbows and hips Week 5: Respiratory, Cardiovascular and Genetic Disorders o RSV RNA virus, pneumovirus, outbreaks occur mainly in winter and spring, most common cause of lower resp tract illness Begin URI, fever, dyspnea, cough, wheezing, crackles, apnea in infants <6 mo Supportive care, O2 and hydration, corticosteroids and bronchodilators, ribavirin o Pneumonia – bacterial, mycobacterial, viral, fungal, or parasitic o Bronchitis o Asthma o Croup – acute inflammation, caused by parainfluenza virus type 1 infection Barking couch and hoarseness, commonly at night, inspiratory stridor, Awaken at night with resp distress, tachypnea, and retrations Cool humidified air, single dose of long-acting corticosteroid, racemic epinephrine (5-10mg in 3 ml of saline q2h), dexamethasone 0.6mg/kg IM or PO o Bronchiolitis – acute viral infection of lower resp tract <24 mo peak incidence btwn 2mo-6mo Tachypnea, fever, retractions, and wheezy or hacking cough Premature infants’ recurrent apneic spells, typical symptoms over 24-48 hrs s/s of distress circumoral cyanosis, deepening retractions, and audible wheezing treatment supportive therapy, O2 needed, Iv hydration o Foreign body aspiration o Epiglottitis Inflammation and swelling of epiglottis Life threatening when it swells it can block the airway Hib – Haemophilus influenzae type b common cause o Tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy o Down syndrome - Trisomy 21 Intellectual disability, microcephaly, short stature, and characteristic facies, increased risk of obesity Gross motor and language delays, congenital heart disease, ventricular septal defects and atrioventricular canal, diabetes, celiac disease, hypothyroidism, Hirschsprung disease (delay of meconium of 48 hrs) o Edwards syndrome – Trisomy 18 Intellectual disability, small birth size, and various congenital anomalies, include severe microcephaly, heart defects, prominent occiput, low-set malformed ears, and characteristic pinched facial appearance. Prenatal history of feeble fetal activity, poly, small placenta, and single umbilical artery Clenched fist index finger overlaps 3rd and 4th fingers, redundant skinfolds over back f neck, clubfeet and rocker-bottom feet, congenital heart disease, patent ductus arteriosus, ventricular septal defects o Turner syndrome Girls are born with one of their two X partly or completely missing Coarctation of the aorta and bicuspid aortic valve, hypertension, development dysplasia of the hip Marked dorsal lymphedema of hands and feet, skin folds over back of neck, webbed neck and broad chest, wide spaced inverted nipples, short stature Management of comorbid conditions, possible surgical repair of cardiac abnormalities, growth hormone and estrogen o Fragile x syndrome – genetic abnormality of the X chromosome that causes intellectual disability and behavioral disorders. Abnormality of FMR1 gene unstable triplet repeat expansion; Fragile X syndrome is not a chromosome abnormality Physical, cognitive (autism, perseverative speech, poor eye contact, social anxiety), and behavioral abnormalities Large, protuberant ears, prominent chin and forehead, a high arched palate and postpubertal males macroorchidism, joints hyperextensible, mitral valve prolapse Early intervention, speech and language therapy and occupational therapy, stimulants, antidepressants, and antianxiety o XYY male Males have an extra Y chromosome Taller than average, acne, and an increased risk of learning problems, speech delay, low muscle tone (hypotonia), low-set ears, malar flattening (zygomatic flattening), o Klinefelter syndrome Male with an extra X chromosome Infertility and small testicles, weaker muscles, greater height, poor coordination, less body hair, breast growth, and less interest in sex Anxiety, impaired social skills, short attention span, and limited problem-solving skills, increase of DM2, blood clots, involuntary trembling, breast cancer, thinning and weakening of bones, systemic lupus, erythematosus, and RA o Cystic fibrosis Inherited disease with thick, sticky mucus buildup, mostly in resp and GI Sweat to be very salty, frequent sinusitis, bronchitis, pneumonia Intestines can’t fully absorb fats and proteins, diarrhea or bulky, foul smelling, greasy stools – poor wt gain and growth Treatment is preventing lung infections, loosening and removing mucus, preventing blockage in intestines, nutrition, hydration Week 6: Behavioral and Mental Health Issues o Child abuse o Adhd – symptoms can appear btwn 3-6 and continue Inattention – can’t keep on task, lacks persistence, has difficulty focusing and is disorganized Hyperactivity – moves constantly fidgets, taps, or talks Impulsivity – may have high potential for harm, desire immediate reward Treatments include stimulants to increase brain chemicals dopamine and norepinephrine they may decrease appetite, cause sleep problems, tics, personality changes, increase anxiety and irritability, HA and stomachaches – Amphetamines (dextroamphetamine, Adderal, and Vyvanse) – Methylphenidates (concerta, metadata, Ritalin, focalin) Other meds include Strattera, Wellbutrin, guanfacine, clonidine o Autism Repetitive patterns of behavior and difficulties with social communication and interaction Rarely make eye contact, fail to engage in typical babbling Diagnosed with no babbling or pointing by age 1, no single words by age 16 months or 2-word phrases by age 2, no response to name, loss of language or social skills acquired, poor eye contact, excessive lining up of toys or objects, no smiling or social responsiveness Behavioral/educational interventions early - o Dyslexia – learning disorder involving problems in reading, mathematics, spelling, written expression or handwriting Delayed language production, speech articulation difficulties, remembering names of letters, numbers, and colors, difficulties with word problems despite normal math computation skills Diagnosed with reading evaluation, speech, language, and auditory evals, psych eval Educational interventions, direct and indirect instruction in word recognition and component skills o Fetal alcohol syndrome – alcohol exposure in utero increases risk for Spontaneous AB, decrease birth weight, Small IUGR at birth, microcephaly, microphthalmia, short palpebral fissures, epicanthal folds, small or flat midface, flat elongated philtrum, thin upper lip, small chin, abnormal palmer creases, cardiac defects, joint contractures After birth cognitive deficits Treatments supportive care o Depression Antidepressants plus psychotherapy (>8 fluoxetine) • SSRI first line [Show Less]
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Walden University NURS 6541 Week 2 Quiz – Question & Answers
Walden University NURS 6541 Week 2 Quiz – Question & Answers Walden University NURS 6541 Week 2 NURS 6541 Walden University NURS 6541 Week 2 Quiz –... [Show More] Question & Answers QUESTION 1 You see a healthy 18-month-old for a well-child visit. At the 12-month visit he received the diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DTaP) third dose; hepatitis B second dose; measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) first dose; injected poliovirus (IPV) second dose; pneumococcal conjugate (PCV13) fourth dose; and Haemophilus influenzae type B (Hib) fourth dose. Which of the following do you order today? a. Varicella and DTaP b. DTaP, varicella, hepatitis A, and hepatitis B c. DTaP, IPV, varicella, PCV13, and hepatitis B d. Hib, PCV 13, IPV, and hepatitis A 1 points QUESTION 2 A common feature of 2-year-old behavior is: a. Negativism b. Stranger anxiety c. Nonparallel play d. a and b ???? 1 points QUESTION 3 You see a 30-month-old who speaks in mixed Spanish and English. The child’s vocabulary is normal but at the low end of the normal language spectrum. The parent is worried the child’s development will not be normal because she mixes up the two languages. You respond: a. “Your child’s speech is normal and bilingual children commonly intermix the words from both languages until about 3 years of age.” b. “Don’t be concerned because your child’s speech is normal and young childhood is the best time to learn languages.” c. “Stop speaking English at home to avoid confusion. She can always learn English outside the home.” d. “The child may confuse the words now, but that will change by second grade.” 1 points QUESTION 4 A mother of a 6-month-old asks you about normal sleep patterns for an infant this age. The best response is: a. 10 hours at night and 1 to 2 hours during the day b. 10 hours at night and 3 to 4 hours during the day c. 10 hours at night and 5 to 6 hours during the day d. 8 hours at night and 4 to 5 hours during the day 1 points QUESTION 5 You see a 6-month-old who is fussy, has interrupted sleep, and is drooling. You note large lower lateral incisor bulges. You recommend: a. Acetaminophen 10-15 mg/kg/dose every 4 to 6 hours as needed b. Ibuprofen 20 mg/kg/dose every 6 to 8 hours as needed c. Over-the-counter topical anesthetic gels d. Gum massage with a cold washcloth e. A and D 1 points QUESTION 6 You receive a phone call from the mother of a 2-year-old. She states her child has sleep refusal. You suggest the child should be able to: a. Set his own bedtime based on his internal clock b. Protest when he goes to bed, but the parents should not pick him up or give him any attention c. Put himself to sleep somewhere other than his own bed and the parents should move him to the bed once he is asleep d. Make multiple requests, but the parents should only respond to every third request 1 points QUESTION 7 The parent of a 2-year-old tells you her daughter recently started having breath-holding spells. She tells you the older sibling “did the same thing” and asks you for help. You advise her that after a breath-holding event: a. Act as if nothing abnormal happened. b. Stand and watch, but do nothing while she is holding her breath. c. Splash the child’s face to stimulate her breathing. d. Place her in a timeout as soon as the breath-holding spell is over. 1 points QUESTION 8 You see a 4-year-old for a well-child visit. He has received four diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis vaccines (DTaP); three injected polio vaccines (IPV); one measles, mumps, and rubella vaccine (MMR); one varicella vaccine; and two hepatitis B (Hep B) vaccines. What do you order today? a. Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV13), IPV, varicella, and DTaP b. Tetanus and diphtheria toxoid with acellular pertussis (TdaP), MMR, hepatitis B, and IPV c. DTaP, IPV, MMR, and Varivax d. PCV13, DTaP, IPV, MMR, and Varivax 1 points QUESTION 9 A 19-month-old says “mama” and “dada,” points and gestures if he wants things, and follows simple one-step commands. Your best response is which of the following? a. Tell parent, “Your child’s language development is normal ” b. Tell parent, “Boys typically have delayed speech compared with girls at this age.” c. Encourage early intervention services for speech d. Reevaluate the child at the 24-month visit. 1 points QUESTION 10 Which of the following represents normal sequencing of development in a toddler? a. Feeds self, can undress self with help, washes hands, imitates housework b. Uses spoon without difficulty, uses parallel play, dresses and undresses self independently, washes hands c. Feeds self, dresses and undresses self independently, washes hands and feet d. Washes hands, dresses self independently, uses nonparallel play, uses fork without difficulty 1 points QUESTION 11 When completing this quiz, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the expectations for academic integrity? Yes [Show Less]
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NURS 6541 Week 6 Quiz 2 Questions and Answers (
NURS 6541 Week 6 Quiz 2 Questions and Answers NURS 6541 Week 6 Quiz 2 Questions and Answers (Graded A) Question 1 You see a 9-year-old after he was h... [Show More] it in the eye with a foreign body. Flourescein staining reveals a vertical line abrasion lateral to the iris. The pupils are equal in size and reactive; a positive red reflex is present bilaterally. There are no abnormal extraocular movements. Visual acuity is normal. An appropriate plan of care includes follow-up in 48 to 72 hours and: a. Prescribing ophthalmic steroid drops three times a day but not applying an eye patch b. Prescribing ophthalmic antibiotic drops three to four times daily and placing a patch over the eye for 24 to 48 hours c. Prescribing topical ophthalmic steroid drops three times a day and placing a patch over the eye for 24 to 48 hours d. Prescribing ophthalmic antibiotic drops three to four times daily but not applying an eye patch 1 points QUESTION 2 A 3-year-old has a history of upper respiratory tract infection 2 weeks ago. She recently started awakening at night. Physical exam reveals a normothermic child. She is smiling, playful, and sitting on the father’s lap. The TMs are gray with scattered bubbles and good motility. What is the best treatment? a. Amoxicillin at 80 mg/kg/day in two divided doses for 10 days b. Observation without therapy; recheck in 1 month c. Nasal corticosteroids daily d. Referral to an otolaryngologist 1 points QUESTION 3 Therapeutic treatment for Coxsackie infections include: a. Antiviral treatment like acyclovir b. Immunoglobulin c. Supportive care d. Antimicrobial treatment like amoxicillin or cephalexin 1 points QUESTION 4 A 10-year-old comes to your school-based clinic with complaint of a painful sore on the upper lip for 5 days. The sore is getting better since yesterday, but today the right eyelid is swelling and there are blisters on the eye. The best management is to: a. Suggest warm compresses three times a day b. Start topical antibiotic drops like polymixin B (Polytrim) c. Immediately refer to ophthalmology d. Start oral antiviral treatment like acyclovir 1 points QUESTION 5 John, age 5, was diagnosed with a ruptured tympanic membrane as a result of acute otitis media 2 weeks ago. He was treated with oral antibiotics at the time of diagnosis and has finished his course. He has no purulent drainage, but he still has a TM perforation. His plan of care should include: a. Refer child to an ENT for evaluation and treatment. b. Educate the parents about strategies to prevent water from entering the middle ear. c. Continue the oral antibiotics to prevent infection until the tympanic membrane heals. d. Use topical antibiotic drops to prevent infection until the tympanic membrane heals. 1 points QUESTION 6 Each of the following is a risk factor for the development of acute otitis media EXCEPT: a. Breastfeeding b. Group child care attendance c. Respiratory viral infection d. Ambient tobacco smoke 1 points QUESTION 7 Mikayla is a 15-month-old female who has had recurrent bouts of acute otitis media. Her mother is concerned about future school performance. Which of the following statements regarding otitis media is true? a. The incidence of acute otitis media is highest from 18 to 24 months of age. b. Bilateral otitis media with effusion does not cause hearing deficits. c. Potential aggravating factors for Mikayla include pacifier use, bottle use, and cigarette smoke exposure. d. There is a correlation between the number of school days missed due to acute otitis media and IQ measurement. 1 points QUESTION 8 You see a 6-month-old with a diagnosis of dacryocystitis. The mother states “her left eye tears all the time and it has since birth.” The infant was seen in urgent care last week and was prescribed antibiotic eye drops that “don’t seem to help.” You confirm the diagnosis of dacryocystitis without evidence of infection. What education and counseling do you provide? a. The infant should see an ophthalmologist since the condition has persisted for 6 months. b. The infant should get another course of antibiotic eye drops to prevent secondary infection. c. The blockage in the tear duct is probably the result of a neonatal eye infection. d. Spontaneous resolution usually occurs by 9 to 12 months. 1 points QUESTION 9 Kelly is a 9-year-old who presents to your office with complaint of nasal congestion, nasal obstruction, and facial pain with radiation to her teeth and jaw for the last 14 days. The pain is described as throbbing and is worsened by abrupt movements, walking, or bending over. Her temperature is currently 100.4°F. Your most likely diagnosis is: a. Dental infection b. Chronic rhinitis c. Maxillary sinusitis d. Allergic rhinitis 1 points QUESTION 10 A 7-year-old presents with a complaint of ear pain with purulent discharge. He states it hurts when he is lying on the affected side and when anyone touches his pinna. The most likely diagnosis is: a. Otitis media with effusion b. Acute otitis media c. Otitis interna d. Otitis externa 1 points Click Save and Submit to save and submit. Click Save All Answers to save all answers. [Show Less]
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NURS 6541 WEEK 7 Quiz 2 Questions and Answers.
NURS 6541 WEEK 7 Quiz 2 Questions and Answers. NURS 6541 WEEK 7 Quiz 2 Questions and Answers. QUESTION 1 Shelby is a healthy 4-week-old who presents... [Show More] to your office in mid-January with a 3-day history of nasal congestion with occasional cough. She started running a low-grade fever last night (T max 101.5°F). Now she is refusing to nurse and has paroxysmal coughing and noisy/labored breathing. Physical exam reveals an ill-appearing infant with lethargy and tachypnea, intercostal retractions, expiratory wheezes, and occasional rales. She does not attend day care but has a 3-year-old sibling who does and who recently had a “cold.” What is the MOST LIKELY cause of Shelby’s illness? a. Mycoplasma pneumonia b. Bronchitis c. RSV bronchiolitis d. Upper respiratory tract infection 1 points QUESTION 2 You are on call and receive a phone call from the parents of a 13-year-old known asthmatic. She has been having chest tightness and a worsening cough for 48 hours. She has significant nasal discharge that began 14 days ago and intermittent complaint of headache. She is now running a low-grade fever. Her peak flow the last 48 hours is 70–80% of personal best. Her temperature right now is 101.7°F. She is on salmeterol with corticosteroid (Advair) and PRN albuterol. Which of the following is most appropriate? a. Continue home management with the use of inhaled beta agonists and inhaled corticosteroids, and add the use of oral antihistamine/decongestant combinations. b. See her in the office in the morning and prescribe a 14-day course of amoxicillin plus the addition of a short course of oral steroids. c. See her in the office in the morning and prescribe a short course of oral steroids. d. Continue home management and add inhaled cromolyn sulfate. 1 points QUESTION 3 A 3-year-old presents to your office with a history of wheezing over the last 3 months and has only been moderately responsive to therapy. Which of the following diagnostic tests would be appropriate? a. Sweat chloride testing b. Pulmonary function testing c. Bronchoscopy d. All of the above 1 points QUESTION 4 Which of the following symptoms are most suggestive of pneumonia in a young child? a. Headache, fever, malaise, congestion, scattered rhonchi b. Fever, tachypnea, coryza, cough, scattered rales c. Fever, vomiting, coryza, cough, scattered rales d. Irritability, fever, decreased appetite, scattered rhonchi 1 points QUESTION 5 Hope is a 7-month-old who presents in January with a 1-day history of cough, yellow nasal discharge, and low-grade temp (T max 100°F). She was previously healthy. She does have 2+ edema of the nasal turbinates and cloudy rhinorrhea. She is afebrile in the office. Her chest, mouth, and ears are clear. You prescribe: a. Guaifenesin liquid suspension b. Amoxicillin 80 mg/kg/day in two divided doses for 10 day c. Neo-Synephrine half-strength drops three times a day for 5 to 6 days d. Saline drops, bulb suction, humidified air, and increased PO fluids 1 points QUESTION 6 A 7-year-old presents with abrupt fever, stridor, drooling, and hyperextension of the neck. You examine the nose and throat and notice one tonsil is enlarged and there is marked erythema of the pharynx with uvular deviation. Which is most appropriate? a. Start amoxicillin at the appropriate dose for weight after obtaining a throat culture. b. Place on a 5-day course of oral steroids after obtaining a monospot, EBV titers, and a CBC. c. Refer to otolaryngology for management of a peritonsillar abscess and possible hospital admission. d. Start cephalexin (Keflex) at the appropriate dose for weight after obtaining a throat culture. 1 points QUESTION 7 Anthony is a known asthmatic. He has symptoms three times a week but never more than once a day. Exacerbations affect his normal activities occasionally. He awakens with cough three to four times a month. You classify his asthma as: a. Mild intermittent b. Mild persistent c. Moderate persistent d. Severe persistent 1 points QUESTION 8 In children who have not received antibiotics in the past month, which antibiotic is recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention for the management of acute bacterial respiratory infection? a. Azithromycin (Zithromax) b. Amoxicillin (Amoxil) c. Amoxicillin plus clavulanic acid (Augmentin) d. Sulfamethoxasole (Bactrim) 1 points QUESTION 9 A 2-year-old presents with a history of wheezing and persistent cough. The father reports the child had a coughing/choking episode about a week ago that was spontaneously resolved. A few days later she began to cough and wheeze. This scenario is most consistent with: a. Restrictive airway disease b. Sinusitis c. Bronchiolitis d. Foreign body aspiration 1 points QUESTION 10 A 2-year-old presents to your office with the following symptoms: nasal congestion and rhinorrhea for 48 hours, low-grade fever, and a harsh/barky cough that is significantly worse at night. Inspiratory stridor is present and she has clear but slightly decreased breath sounds. Which of the following treatments is best? a. Albuterol sulfate solution via nebulizer every 4 to 6 hours b. Azithromycin (Zithromax) treatment for 5 days c. One dose of oral dexamethasone d. Oral dextromethorphan extended release at night only 1 points Click Save and Submit to save and submit. Click Save All Answers to save all answers. [Show Less]
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NURS 6541 Week 9 Quiz Questions and Answers
NURS 6541 Week 9 Quiz Questions and Answers NURS 6541 Week 9 Quiz Questions and Answers (Graded A) QUESTION 1 The most accurate way to determine t... [Show More] he degree of dehydration in a vomiting child is to assess: a. Urine output b. Skin turgor c. Level of consciousness d. Presence of tears 1 points QUESTION 2 A mother brings a 2-year-old to your office with the complaint that she passes 5 to 10 watery stools per day that often contain undigested food. The child appears healthy and has no other GI symptoms. She is acting, eating, and voiding normally. Weight gain is normal and the mother states she often drinks (her favorite drink is Kool-Aid) instead of eating. The best management for this condition is: a. Refer to gastroenterology for assessment and treatment. b. Initiate treatment with metronidazole (Flagyl), after obtaining a stool O&P, and counsel to decrease fruit juice intake. c. Initiate treatment with erythromycin and counsel to increase dietary fiber. d. Counsel to decrease fluid intake, increase dietary fiber, and increase fats to 40% of calories. 1 points QUESTION 3 A healthy 8-month-old infant presents with diarrhea but no dehydration. What is the best advice to give to the parents? a. Encourage half-strength formula for 12 hours. b. Administer oral electrolyte solutions. c. Give only fluids until stool returns to normal. d. Give bananas, cereal, vegetables, and full-strength formula as tolerated. 1 points QUESTION 4 An adolescent female presents with a 2-day history of increasing lower abdominal pain. She has mild vomiting and anorexia and fevers to 101°F. She is unable to defecate but has an urge to do so. CBC reveals a slightly elevated WBC of 14,000 but is otherwise normal. Serum electrolytes are normal. The next step is: a. Refer to gynecology for a pelvic exam. b. Refer to surgery for evaluation of appendicitis. c. Allow her to go home on clear fluids and reassess in the morning. d. Initiate oral rehydration therapy and evaluate for symptom progression. 1 points QUESTION 5 A 14-year-old has a 3-week history of fever, anorexia, and abdominal pain. What additional symptom would cause the NP to suspect Crohn’s disease? a. Mid-menstrual increase in abdominal pain b. Bloody, mucous diarrhea c. Pain with urination and mouth sores d. Pale, clay-colored stools 1 points QUESTION 6 You see a 7-year-old with a positive stool culture for Salmonella enteritidis. The appropriate therapy for a non-dehydrated child is: a. Metronidazole (Flagyl) b. Sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) c. Bland diet with focus on maintaining hydration d. Immodium A-D over the counter 1 points QUESTION 7 A common presenting symptom of inflammatory bowel disease is: a. Joint infection b. Accelerated growth c. Unexplained fever d. Kidney stones 1 points QUESTION 8 The most common presentation of Hirschprung disease is which of the following? a. An abdominal mass b. Diarrhea c. Infrequent bowel movements d. Sepsis 1 points QUESTION 9 A 9-year-old is diagnosed with dyspepsia without hematemesis, melena, or occult blood. The most appropriate next step is: a. Refer for endoscopy of the upper gastrointestinal tract b. Trial of omeprazole (Prilosec) c. Trial of ranitidine (Zantac) d. Upper GI series with contrast 1 points QUESTION 10 A healthy, thriving 4-month-old male has had sudden episodes of drawing his knees to his chest and crying like he is in acute pain for the last 5 hours. These episodes are separated by quiet times when he appears normal and comfortable. He is not vomiting and has not had a bowel movement today. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Gastroenteritis b. Pyloric stenosis c. Intussusception d. Hirschprung disease [Show Less]
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NURS 6541 Week 10 Quiz Questions and Answers
NURS 6541 Week 10 Quiz Questions and Answers NURS 6541 Week 10 Quiz Questions and Answers (Graded A) QUESTION 1 1. A 7-month-old male presents with ... [Show More] a bulge in the scrotal sac. It is only found in the scrotum and does not seem to bother the child. No difference in size is noted when the child strains or cries. His scrotum’s size is normal in the morning but increases as the day progresses. The scrotal mass is transilluminable and both testes are located in the scrotal sac. You anticipate: a. Emergent referral to a pediatric surgeon/urologist for repair b. Surgical repair of the above condition before age 1 to maintain testicular viability c. Reassurance for the parents and observation of the condition with no need for further intervention as long as the mass resolves by age 1 d. Increased risk of testicular cancer with decreased fertility in later life 1 points QUESTION 2 1. A 12-year-old boy awakes with onset of severe, unilateral scrotal pain, nausea, and vomiting. He is afebrile. Inspection reveals a tender scrotum and marked scrotal edema. The most likely cause is: a. Scrotal trauma b. Epididymitis c. Testicular torsion d. Testicular malignancy 1 points QUESTION 3 1. The initial evaluation of an asymptomatic child with 1+ proteinuria and 1.020 specific gravity on a random dipstick urinalysis would include: a. Urine protein/creatinine ratio b. CBC, renal disease battery, and liver function tests c. Repeat dipstick analysis on an early morning urine d. Reassurance for the parents 1 points QUESTION 4 1. A male infant born at 36 weeks gestation has a left testicle palpated in the inguinal canal. At 12 months of age the left testicle has failed to descend. Which of the following is most appropriate? a. Observation until 12 years of age b. Refer for orchiopexy c. Radionucleotide scan of the left testicle d. Treatment with testosterone 1 points QUESTION 5 1. When assessing a child with glomerulonephritis, what symptoms would the nurse practitioner anticipate will be present? a. Anorexia and dysuria b. Periorbital edema and hypertension c. Polyuria with strong-smelling, concentrated urine d. Fever to 102°F and unilateral flank pain 1 points QUESTION 6 1. A 4-year-old presents with a chief complaint of pallor. He was well until 1 week ago when he developed bloody diarrhea that improved with oral antibiotics. His blood pressure is 150/100, he is afebrile, and his heart rate is 130 beats per minute. The best test to establish diagnosis is: a. Complete blood count and smear, serum electrolytes b. Renal ultrasound c. Routine stool culture d. Urine analysis and culture 1 points QUESTION 7 1. A 10-year-old male has proteinuria in the afternoon but not on first morning void. He probably has: a. Early chronic renal failure b. Idiopathic hypercalciuria c. Minimal change disease d. Orthostatic proteinuria 1 points QUESTION 8 1. After diagnosing a urinary tract infection in a 14-month-old, you note partial fusion of the labia minora that extends for 1 centimeter and obscures the posterior fourchette. There is no evidence of inflammation, although she does have some dysuria. The preferred management of this condition is: a. Administration of low-dose oral estrogen therapy b. Application of estrogen cream c. Genital examination under anesthesia d. Watchful waiting 1 points QUESTION 9 1. Vulvovaginitis in a prepubertal child: a. Is an infrequent finding b. May be a risk factor for the development of labial adhesions c. Is usually caused by a sexually transmitted infection d. Is almost always caused by sexual abuse 1 points QUESTION 10 1. You see a 3-year-old female with dysuria. She is potty trained, febrile, and nontoxic. She has no prior history of UTI. Urine dipstick reveals 1+ leukocyte esterase, 2+ nitrites, 1+ non-hemolyzed blood, pH of 6.0, and specific gravity 1.025. Her vulvovaginal area is slightly red with no discharge. Which of the following treatments is recommended? a. Start sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim (Bactrim) for 10 days and refer for renal ultrasound by day 2 of illness. b. Start azithromycin (Zithromax) for 5 days, increase fluids, and send urine for culture and sensitivity. c. Start cephalexin (Keflex) for 10 days, increase fluids, and send urine for culture and sensitivity. d. Increase fluids, use sitz baths, and apply liberal A&D ointment to the vulvovaginal area. 1 points Click Save and Submit to save and submit. Click Save All Answers to save all answers. • Question 1 0 out of 1 points A 7-month-old male presents with a bulge in the scrotal sac. It is only found in the scrotum and does not seem to bother the child. No difference in size is noted when the child strains or cries. His scrotum’s size is normal in the morning but increases as the day progresses. The scrotal mass is transilluminable and both testes are located in the scrotal sac. You anticipate: • Question 2 1 out of 1 points A 12-year-old boy awakes with onset of severe, unilateral scrotal pain, nausea, and vomiting. He is afebrile. Inspection reveals a tender scrotum and marked scrotal edema. The most likely cause is: • Question 3 0 out of 1 points The initial evaluation of an asymptomatic child with 1+ proteinuria and 1.020 specific gravity on a random dipstick urinalysis would include: • Question 4 1 out of 1 points A male infant born at 36 weeks gestation has a left testicle palpated in the inguinal canal. At 12 months of age the left testicle has failed to descend. Which of the following is most appropriate? • Question 5 0 out of 1 points When assessing a child with glomerulonephritis, what symptoms would the nurse practitioner anticipate will be present? • Question 6 1 out of 1 points A 4-year-old presents with a chief complaint of pallor. He was well until 1 week ago when he developed bloody diarrhea that improved with oral antibiotics. His blood pressure is 150/100, he is afebrile, and his heart rate is 130 beats per minute. The best test to establish diagnosis is: • Question 7 1 out of 1 points A 10-year-old male has proteinuria in the afternoon but not on first morning void. He probably has: • Question 8 0 out of 1 points After diagnosing a urinary tract infection in a 14-month-old, you note partial fusion of the labia minora that extends for 1 centimeter and obscures the posterior fourchette. There is no evidence of inflammation, although she does have some dysuria. The preferred management of this condition is: • Question 9 1 out of 1 points Vulvovaginitis in a prepubertal child: • Question 10 1 out of 1 points You see a 3-year-old female with dysuria. She is potty trained, febrile, and nontoxic. She has no prior history of UTI. Urine dipstick reveals 1+ leukocyte esterase, 2+ nitrites, 1+ non-hemolyzed blood, pH of 6.0, and specific gravity 1.025. Her vulvovaginal area is slightly red with no discharge. Which of the following treatments is recommended? Sunday, February 5, 2017 1:34:15 PM EST [Show Less]
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NURS 6541 Week 11 Quiz Questions and Answers
NURS 6541 Week 11 Quiz Questions and Answers NURS 6541 Week 11 Quiz Questions and Answers (Graded A) QUESTION 1 1. Which of the following children... [Show More] is most likely to have a febrile seizure? a. A 1-year-old with otitis media and a fever of 104°F b. A 3-month-old with unequal pupils and a bulging fontanelle c. An 11-year-old with a fever of 102°F who is on valproate for a seizure disorder d. A 5-year-old with stiff neck and meningismus 1 points QUESTION 2 1. The most definitive features of “growing pains” include: a. Exclusion of other causes of lower extremity pain b. Pain, swelling, and erythema c. Limp and decreased ambulation d. Painless joint involvement 1 points QUESTION 3 1. Which of the following diagnostic tests are indicated for a child with a first-time nontraumatic, non-febrile seizure? a. CBC with differential, basic metabolic panel, skull X-ray, and CT scan of the head b. CBC with differential, basic metabolic panel, liver function tests, and electroencephalogram (EEG) c. CBC with differential, liver function tests, and electroencephalogram (EEG) d. Liver function tests and basic metabolic panel 1 points QUESTION 4 1. Which of the following is characteristic of slipped capital femoral epiphysis? a. It spontaneously resolves without intervention; intervention is to improve long-term outcomes. b. It is associated with a fracture along the growth plate. c. It is always bilateral. d. It is best treated by casting the hips in adduction. 1 points QUESTION 5 1. Which of the following signs is characteristic of Duchenne muscular dystrophy? a. School-age children are unable to keep up with their peers when running. b. At birth, affected infants are notably hypotonic and ”floppy.” c. The earliest symptom is a refusal to bear weight. d. Abnormal gait and posture become evident during the preschool years. 1 points QUESTION 6 1. Which of the following statements regarding Osgood-Schlatter disease is true? a. Quadriceps stretching is contraindicated. b. It is more common in obese children and adolescents. c. Pain worsens with rest and improves with exercise. d. Growth spurts contribute to the phenomenon. 1 points QUESTION 7 1. Which of the following statements regarding scoliosis is correct? a. The majority of cases are idiopathic. b. Most cases have an onset in the preschool years. c. Males have a 3:1 occurrence rate over females. d. The best way to detect minor curvatures is to examine the spine in the standing position. 1 points QUESTION 8 1. Correct management of a dislocated hip in the newborn is likely to include: a. Triple diapering until orthopedics can evaluate the child b. Following the child carefully for the first 6 months, then referring to orthopedics if no improvement c. Use of a Pavlik harness to ensure flexion d. Traction and surgical reduction 1 points QUESTION 9 1. Which of the following diagnostic tests should be performed routinely following an episode of bacterial meningitis? a. CT scan of the brain b. Electroencephalogram (EEG) c. Hearing evaluation d. Psychometric and IQ testing 1 points QUESTION 10 1. Michael is a 3-year-old with a recent upper respiratory tract infection. His mother states he began limping in the last 24 hours and he is complaining of anterior thigh pain on the affected side. He is afebrile, is unable to move his hip without considerable pain, and is maintaining his hip in a flexed, externally rotated position. This scenario is consistent with: a. Septic arthritis of the hip b. Transient synovitis of the hip c. Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease d. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis 1 points Click Save and Submit to save and submit. Click Save All Answers to save all answers. [Show Less]
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NURS 6541 Week 7 Quiz Questions and Answers
NURS 6541 Week 7 Quiz Questions and Answers NURS 6541 Week 7-Quiz Questions and Answers NURS 6541 Week 7 NURS 6541 Week 7 NURS 6541 Week 7 Quiz Que... [Show More] stions and Answers Results Displayed: Selected Answers and Correct Answers • Question 1 0 out of 1 points A 3-year-old presents to your office with a history of wheezing over the last 3 months and has only been moderately responsive to therapy. Which of the following diagnostic tests would be appropriate? Selected Answer: b. Pulmonary function testing Correct Answer: a. Sweat chloride testing • Question 2 0 out of 1 points A 16-year-old presents with pharyngitis, cough, and high fever. Her chest X-ray reveals bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. Her white blood cell count is normal and the neutrophil count is normal. The most likely etiology is: Selected Answer: b. Streptococcus pneumonia Correct Answer: a. Chlamydia pneumonia • Question 3 0 out of 1 points A 2-year-old presents to your office with the following symptoms: nasal congestion and rhinorrhea for 48 hours, low-grade fever, and a harsh/barky cough that is significantly worse at night. Inspiratory stridor is present and she has clear but slightly decreased breath sounds. Which of the following treatments is best? Selected Answer: a. Albuterol sulfate solution via nebulizer every 4 to 6 hours Correct Answer: c. One dose of oral dexamethasone • Question 4 1 out of 1 points Hope is a 7-month-old who presents in January with a 1-day history of cough, yellow nasal discharge, and low-grade temp (T max 100°F). She was previously healthy. She does have 2+ edema of the nasal turbinates and cloudy rhinorrhea. She is afebrile in the office. Her chest, mouth, and ears are clear. You prescribe: Selected Answer: d. Saline drops, bulb suction, humidified air, and increased PO fluids Correct Answer: d. Saline drops, bulb suction, humidified air, and increased PO fluids • Question 5 1 out of 1 points Shelby is a healthy 4-week-old who presents to your office in mid-January with a 3-day history of nasal congestion with occasional cough. She started running a low-grade fever last night (T max 101.5°F). Now she is refusing to nurse and has paroxysmal coughing and noisy/labored breathing. Physical exam reveals an ill-appearing infant with lethargy and tachypnea, intercostal retractions, expiratory wheezes, and occasional rales. She does not attend day care but has a 3-year-old sibling who does and who recently had a “cold.” What is the MOST LIKELY cause of Shelby’s illness? Selected Answer: c. RSV bronchiolitis Correct Answer: c. RSV bronchiolitis • Question 6 0 out of 1 points You are on call and receive a phone call from the parents of a 13-year-old known asthmatic. She has been having chest tightness and a worsening cough for 48 hours. She has significant nasal discharge that began 14 days ago and intermittent complaint of headache. She is now running a low-grade fever. Her peak flow the last 48 hours is 70–80% of personal best. Her temperature right now is 101.7°F. She is on salmeterol with corticosteroid (Advair) and PRN albuterol. Which of the following is most appropriate? Selected Answer: a. Continue home management with the use of inhaled beta agonists and inhaled corticosteroids, and add the use of oral antihistamine/decongestant combinations. Correct Answer: b. See her in the office in the morning and prescribe a 14-day course of amoxicillin plus the addition of a short course of oral steroids. • Question 7 1 out of 1 points Which of the following symptoms are most suggestive of pneumonia in a young child? Selected Answer: b. Fever, tachypnea, coryza, cough, scattered rales Correct Answer: b. Fever, tachypnea, coryza, cough, scattered rales • Question 8 1 out of 1 points In children who have not received antibiotics in the past month, which antibiotic is recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention for the management of acute bacterial respiratory infection? Selected Answer: b. Amoxicillin (Amoxil) Correct Answer: b. Amoxicillin (Amoxil) • Question 9 0 out of 1 points A 7-year-old presents with abrupt fever, stridor, drooling, and hyperextension of the neck. You examine the nose and throat and notice one tonsil is enlarged and there is marked erythema of the pharynx with uvular deviation. Which is most appropriate? Selected Answer: a. Start amoxicillin at the appropriate dose for weight after obtaining a throat culture. Correct Answer: c. Refer to otolaryngology for management of a peritonsillar abscess and possible hospital admission. • Question 10 1 out of 1 points Anthony is a known asthmatic. He has symptoms three times a week but never more than once a day. Exacerbations affect his normal activities occasionally. He awakens with cough three to four times a month. You classify his asthma as: Selected Answer: b. Mild persistent Correct Answer: b. Mild persistent [Show Less]
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