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University NURS 6512N Week 8 Quiz 2 Sets – Question and Answers
NURS 6512N Week 8 Quiz 2 Sets Walden University NURS 6512N Week 8 Quiz 2 Sets – Question and Answers (Graded A). Your examination of an infant revea... [Show More] ls a positive Allis sign. To confirm this finding, you would perform a: startle reflex. Barlow-Ortolani maneuver. Trendelenburg test. tibial torsion test. Lachman test. A goniometer is used to assess: bone maturity. joint proportions. range of motion. muscle strength. body fat. The musculoskeletal examination should begin when: the patient enters the examination room. during the collection of subjective data. when height is measured. when joint mobility is assessed. the remainder of the physical examination is completed. A red, hot swollen joint in a 40-year-old man should lead you to suspect: trauma. bursitis. gout. cellulitis. tenosynovitis. An increase in muscle tone is known as: crepitus. effusion. tenosynovitis. atrophy. spasticity. A tingling sensation radiating from the wrist to the hand on striking the median nerve is a positive _____ sign. Phalen Gower Homan Tinel Allis The strength of the trapezius muscle is evaluated by having the patient: clench her teeth during muscle palpation. push her head against the examiner s hand. straighten her leg with examiner opposition. uncross her legs with examiner resistance. adduct the arm. Inquiry about nocturnal muscle spasms would be most significant when taking the musculoskeletal history of: adolescents. infants. older adults. middle adulthood. children. Expected normal findings during inspection of spinal alignment include: asymmetrical skinfolds at the neck. slight right-sided scapular elevation. convex lumbar curve. head positioned superiorly to the gluteal cleft. convex cervical curve. Light skin and thin body habitus are risk factors for: rheumatoid arthritis. osteoarthritis. congenital bony defects. osteoporosis. sports-related injuries. The dowager hump is: the hallmark of osteoporosis. pathognomic of scoliosis. indicative of tendonitis. characteristic of rickets. indicative of muscular dystrophy. Arm length is measured from the acromion process through the: olecranon joint to carpal thumb hinge. olecranon process to distal ulnar prominence. proximal radial prominence to distal joint. proximal ulnar joint to middle fingertip. olecranon process to the second fingertip. Pain, disease of the muscle, or damage to the motor neuron may all cause: bony hypertrophy. muscle crepitus. muscle hypertrophy. muscle wasting. claudication. What technique is performed at every infant examination during the first year of life to detect hip dislocation? Ballottement maneuvers Barlow-Ortolani maneuvers Range of motion Thomas McMurray assessment Trendelenburg test Term infants normally resist: ankle dorsiflexion. McMurray test. forefoot adduction. knee extension. elbow flexion. A finding that is indicative of osteoarthritis is: swan neck deformities. Bouchard nodes. ganglion cysts Heberden nodes. spindle-shaped fingers. A 3-year-old is brought to the clinic complaining of a painful right elbow. He is holding the right arm slightly flexed and pronated and refuses to move it. The mother states that symptoms started right after his older brother had been swinging him around by his arms. This presentation supports a diagnosis of: radial head subluxation. femoral anteversion. carpal tunnel syndrome. Osgood-Schlatter disease. osteomyelitis. Anterior cruciate ligament integrity is assessed via the _____ test. Lachman straight leg raise valgus stress Homan Thomas A 7-year-old boy is brought into your office with a chief complaint of possible fracture in his left third finger. He jammed it while playing basketball 2 days ago. The mother states that she really does not think it is broken because he can move it. What is your best response? Yes, if he can wiggle the finger, then it is not broken. This is a common misconception, and the finger may be broken. An x-ray is indicated. No x-ray is indicated at this time because there is a waiting period of 3 days before we can take x-rays. Finger x-rays are never indicated. A patient presenting for the first time with typical low back pain should receive which of the following diagnostic tests? Lumbar x-ray CT of the lumbar spine MRI of the lumbar spine None of the above. X-ray is not indicated because lumbar pain is usually of musculoskeletal etiology. Course NURS-6512N-28,Advanced Health Assessment.2017 Fall Qtr 08/28-11/19-PT27 Test Quiz - Week 8 Started 10/17/17 9:16 PM Submitted 10/17/17 9:33 PM Due Date 10/23/17 1:59 AM Status Completed Attempt Score 40 out of 40 points Time Elapsed 17 minutes out of 30 minutes Instructions Click Begin to begin: Quiz - Week 8. Click Cancel to go back. Results Displayed Feedback • Question 1 2 out of 2 points Your examination of an infant reveals a positive Allis sign. To confirm this finding, you would perform a: Response Feedback: The Allis sign will show unequal upper leg lengths, suggestive of a hip dislocation. The Barlow-Ortolani maneuver can confirm results for hip dislocation. • Question 2 2 out of 2 points A goniometer is used to assess: Response Feedback: The angle of a joint can be accurately measured using a goniometer. This is used when the joint range of motion is beyond the normal limits. Muscle strength, bone maturity, body fat, and joint proportions are not measured by a goniometer. • Question 3 2 out of 2 points The musculoskeletal examination should begin when: Response Feedback: When the patient first walks in the room, the examiner should be observing the gait and posture as part of the musculoskeletal examination. • Question 4 2 out of 2 points A red, hot swollen joint in a 40-year-old man should lead you to suspect: Response Feedback: Gout is characterized as red, hot swollen joints, especially the great toe. Gout is commonly linked to men older than 40 years. • Question 5 2 out of 2 points An increase in muscle tone is known as: Response Feedback: An increase in muscle tone is referred to as spasticity. Neither crepitus, effusion, nor tenosynovitis relates to muscle, and atrophy is wasting or a decrease in muscle mass. • Question 6 2 out of 2 points A tingling sensation radiating from the wrist to the hand on striking the median nerve is a positive _____ sign. Response Feedback: The Tinel sign is a test for carpal tunnel syndrome. A positive result is elicited when the median nerve is struck, producing a tingling sensation from the wrist toward the fingers. • Question 7 2 out of 2 points The strength of the trapezius muscle is evaluated by having the patient: Response Feedback: Having the patient apply opposite force with differing head motions, against the examiner s hand, assesses the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles. • Question 8 2 out of 2 points Inquiry about nocturnal muscle spasms would be most significant when taking the musculoskeletal history of: Response Feedback: History taking of older adults should consist of symptoms of nocturnal muscle spasms. Pregnant women and older adults commonly experience nocturnal leg cramps resulting from imbalances of fluids, hormones, minerals or electrolytes, or dehydration. A particular concern with the older adults is that this may be a sign of intermittent claudication. • Question 9 2 out of 2 points Expected normal findings during inspection of spinal alignment include: Response Feedback: Spinal alignment is considered within normal limits when the patient s head is positioned directly over the gluteal cleft. The skin folds should be symmetrical, the scapulae are at even heights, and both the cervical and lumbar curves are concave. • Question 10 2 out of 2 points Light skin and thin body habitus are risk factors for: Response Feedback: People with light skin and a thin body frame are at greater risk for developing osteoporosis. Rheumatoid arthritis, osteoarthritis, bony defects, and sports-related injuries are not found to have a correlation with light skin and small frame. • Question 11 2 out of 2 points The dowager hump is: Response Feedback: Osteoporosis leads to vertebral compression and kyphotic bowing of the spine known as dowager s hump. • Question 12 2 out of 2 points Arm length is measured from the acromion process through the: Response Feedback: Total arm length is assessed by the standard measurement of the length from the shoulder (acromion process) through the elbow (olecranon process) joint to the wrist (distal ulnar prominence). • Question 13 2 out of 2 points Pain, disease of the muscle, or damage to the motor neuron may all cause: Response Feedback: Muscle wasting is a consequence of pain from injury, pathology of the muscle, or injury to the motor neuron. • Question 14 2 out of 2 points What technique is performed at every infant examination during the first year of life to detect hip dislocation? Response Feedback: At every examination during an infant s first year of life, the Barlow-Ortolani maneuver is performed. This test involves stabilizing the pelvis and flexing one hip and knee to 90 degrees. It detects hip dislocation and is signified by a clicking noise with the maneuver. • Question 15 2 out of 2 points Term infants normally resist: Response Feedback: Along with elbows and hips, newborns tend to resist extension of the knee; however, movements should be symmetrical. • Question 16 2 out of 2 points A finding that is indicative of osteoarthritis is: Response Feedback: Heberden nodes are bony overgrowths of the distal end of the fingers and are associated with osteoarthritis. When the overgrowths are concentrated in the proximal interphalangeal joint, they are known as Bouchard nodes and are associated with rheumatoid arthritis, as are swan neck deformities and spindle shaped fingers; ganglion cysts are not associated with osteoarthritis. • Question 17 2 out of 2 points A 3-year-old is brought to the clinic complaining of a painful right elbow. He is holding the right arm slightly flexed and pronated and refuses to move it. The mother states that symptoms started right after his older brother had been swinging him around by his arms. This presentation supports a diagnosis of: Response Feedback: The symptoms this child is experiencing is indicative of a radial head subluxation, or nursemaid s elbow. The symptoms are not consistent with femoral anteversion, carpal tunnel syndrome, Osgood-Schlatter disease, or osteomyelitis. • Question 18 2 out of 2 points Anterior cruciate ligament integrity is assessed via the _____ test. Response Feedback: The Lachman test evaluates anterior cruciate ligament integrity. The straight leg raise test assesses nerve root damage, the valgus stress test assesses instability of the lateral and medial collateral ligaments, the Homan test assesses for blood clots in the legs, the Thomas test is used to detect flexion contractures of the hips. • Question 19 2 out of 2 points A 7-year-old boy is brought into your office with a chief complaint of possible fracture in his left third finger. He jammed it while playing basketball 2 days ago. The mother states that she really does not think it is broken because he can move it. What is your best response? • Question 20 2 out of 2 points A patient presenting for the first time with typical low back pain should receive which of the following diagnostic tests? [Show Less]
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NURS 6512N Week 7 Quiz 2 Sets – Question and Answers
NURS 6512N Week 7 Quiz 2 Sets – Question and Answers Walden University A (Graded A). What is considered the gold standard diagnostic radiology tes... [Show More] t for appendicitis? Thin cut CT CBC with diff Abdominal ultrasound Barium enema Pulsus paradoxus greater than 20 mm Hg, tachycardia greater than 130 beats per minute, and increasing dyspnea are signs of: intracranial pressure. pulmonary hypertension. status asthmaticus. tetanic contractions. drug overdose. A 5-year-old is complaining of nondescriptive "belly pain." Your next action should be to ask him to: A. point a finger to the spot that hurts. B. draw a circle around the area that hurts. C. use a metaphor to describe the pain. D. identify how pain medication affects the pain. You are caring for a patient with trigeminal neuralgia. During the assessment, the patient would describe the pain as: A. throbbing and dull. B. burning or shocklike. C. tender and deep. D. cramping and spasmodic. Ms. Green is an 85-year-old female patient with dementia who presents to the emergency department with her daughter because of a change in function. Which pain assessment scale would be the best choice? A. Oucher Scale B. Checklist for Nonverbal Pain Indicators C. Wong/Baker Rating Scale D. CRIES Scale Body language that leads you to suspect the person is in pain is: A. talkative, verbose speech. B. fretful hand movements. C. focused, fixed eye stares. D. marked salivation. You ask the patient to raise the head and shoulders while lying in a supine position. A midline abdominal ridge rises. You chart this observation as a(n): small inguinal hernia. large epigastric hernia. abdominal lipoma. diastasis recti. incisional hernia. When auscultating the abdomen, which finding would indicate collateral circulation between the portal and systemic venous systems? Arterial bruit Gastric rumbling Renal hyperresonance Borborygmi Venous hum Which structure is located in the hypogastric region of the abdomen? Bladder Cecum Gallbladder Stomach Liver The major function of the large intestine is: water absorption. food digestion. carbohydrate absorption. mucous absorption. glycogen breakdown. Before performing an abdominal examination, the examiner should: ascertain the patient s HIV status. have the patient empty his or her bladder. don double gloves. completely disrobe the patient. uncover only the painful areas of the abdomen. Which abdominal organs also produce hormones and function as endocrine glands? Kidney and liver Liver and gallbladder Stomach and spleen Gallbladder and pancreas Pancreas and kidney After thorough inspection of the abdomen, the next assessment step is to: percuss. palpate nonpainful areas. auscultate. perform a rectal examination. palpate painful areas. A mother brings her 2-year-old child for you to assess. The mother feels a lump whenever she fastens the child s diaper. Nephroblastoma is likely for this child when your physical examination of the abdomen reveals a(n): fixed mass palpated in the hypogastric area. tender, midline abdominal mass. olive-sized mass of the right upper quadrant. nontender, slightly moveable, flank mass. sausage-shaped mass in the left upper quadrant. What condition is associated with purplish striae? Cushing disease Diastasis recti Liver cirrhosis Recent pregnancy Intra-abdominal bleeding When examining a patient with tense abdominal musculature, a helpful technique is to have the patient: hold his or her breath. sit upright. flex his or her knees. raise his or her head off the pillow. fully extend the legs. A patient presents to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The patient sustained blunt trauma to the abdomen and complains of pain in the upper left quadrant that radiates to the left shoulder. What organ is most likely injured? Gallbladder Liver Spleen Stomach Colon Visible intestinal peristalsis may indicate: normal digestion. intestinal obstruction. increased pulse pressure of aorta. aortic aneurysm. paralytic ileus. The majority of nutrient absorption takes place in the: stomach. small intestine. cecum. transverse colon. descending colon. An umbilical assessment in the newborn that is of concern is: a thick cord. an umbilical hernia. one umbilical artery and two veins. pulsations superior to the umbilicus. visible nondistended superficial veins. QUIZ 2 • Question 1 2 out of 2 points What is considered the gold standard diagnostic radiology test for appendicitis? • Question 2 2 out of 2 points Pulsus paradoxus greater than 20 mm Hg, tachycardia greater than 130 beats per minute, and increasing dyspnea are signs of: Response Feedback: Status asthmaticus is a severe and prolonged asthma attack that resists usual therapeutic approaches. The patient experiences dyspnea, can only get out a few words between breaths, and has tachycardia often more than 130 beats per minute and pulsus paradoxus greater than 20 mm Hg. Pulsus paradoxus is more likely in pericardial effusion, constrictive pericarditis, and severe asthma. • Question 3 2 out of 2 points A 5-year-old is complaining of nondescriptive "belly pain." Your next action should be to ask him to: Response Feedback: Asking the child to point to the area of pain can help communicate a more precise location. • Question 4 2 out of 2 points You are caring for a patient with trigeminal neuralgia. During the assessment, the patient would describe the pain as: Response Feedback: Pain resulting from nerve tissue damage is described as having a burning, shock-like (electrical) quality. Throbbing and dull pain is usually due to a tumor pressing on a cavity. Tender and deep pain results from bone or soft tissue. Cramping and spasmodic pain is usually visceral or colic pain. • Question 5 2 out of 2 points Ms. Green is an 85-year-old female patient with dementia who presents to the emergency department with her daughter because of a change in function. Which pain assessment scale would be the best choice? Response Feedback: The Checklist for Nonverbal Pain Indicators is for nonverbal adults. The Oucher and Wong/Baker Rating Scales are pediatric scales. The CRIES Scale is for infants. • Question 6 2 out of 2 points Body language that leads you to suspect the person is in pain is: Response Feedback: The person in pain may suddenly become quiet, have an inability to keep the hands still, and have lackluster eyes, pallor, diaphoresis, pupil dilation, and dry mouth. • Question 7 2 out of 2 points You ask the patient to raise the head and shoulders while lying in a supine position. A midline abdominal ridge rises. You chart this observation as a(n): Response Feedback: A diastasis recti occurs when abdominal contents bulge between two abdominal muscles to form a midline ridge as the head is lifted. It has little clinical significance and most often occurs in repeated pregnancies and obesity. • Question 8 2 out of 2 points When auscultating the abdomen, which finding would indicate collateral circulation between the portal and systemic venous systems? Response Feedback: Venous hum is associated with blood flow in venous collaterals found in portal hypertension. Aortic bruit occurs during systole, while a venous hum is a continuous sound and softer than a bruit. The other choices are not vascular sounds. • Question 9 2 out of 2 points Which structure is located in the hypogastric region of the abdomen? Response Feedback: The hypogastric (pubic) area contains the ileum, the bladder, and the pregnant uterus. • Question 10 2 out of 2 points The major function of the large intestine is: Response Feedback: The major function of the large intestine is the absorption of water and excretion of solid waste material in the form of stool. Mucous glands secrete large quantities of alkaline mucus. • Question 11 2 out of 2 points Before performing an abdominal examination, the examiner should: Response Feedback: The patient should empty the bladder to ensure an accurate examination of organs as well as to provide comfort for the patient. • Question 12 2 out of 2 points Which abdominal organs also produce hormones and function as endocrine glands? Response Feedback: The pancreas produces pancreatic juices as well as insulin and glucagon; the kidneys produce urine as well as the hormones rennin and erythropoietin. • Question 13 2 out of 2 points After thorough inspection of the abdomen, the next assessment step is to: Response Feedback: Assessment of the abdomen begins with inspection followed by auscultation. This break from the usual system examination sequence is because palpation and percussion can alter the frequency as well as the intensity of bowel sounds. Therefore, auscultation is done first. • Question 14 2 out of 2 points A mother brings her 2-year-old child for you to assess. The mother feels a lump whenever she fastens the child s diaper. Nephroblastoma is likely for this child when your physical examination of the abdomen reveals a(n): Response Feedback: A Wilms tumor (nephroblastoma) is the most common intra-abdominal tumor of childhood. It presents with hypertension, fever, malaise, and a firm nontender mass deep within the flank that is only slightly movable and is usually unilateral. • Question 15 2 out of 2 points What condition is associated with purplish striae? Response Feedback: Striae from pregnancy or obesity begin as a pink or purple color then turn silvery white; striae associated with Cushing disease stay purplish. • Question 16 2 out of 2 points When examining a patient with tense abdominal musculature, a helpful technique is to have the patient: Response Feedback: To help relax the abdominal musculature, it is helpful to place a small pillow under the patient s head and under slightly flexed knees. The other choices increase muscle flexion. • Question 17 2 out of 2 points A patient presents to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The patient sustained blunt trauma to the abdomen and complains of pain in the upper left quadrant that radiates to the left shoulder. What organ is most likely injured? Response Feedback: Spleen laceration/rupture is always suspected with abdominal injury, because of its anatomic location. The patient s presenting symptoms confirm this suspicion. • Question 18 2 out of 2 points Visible intestinal peristalsis may indicate: Response Feedback: Peristalsis is not usually visible and when detected may indicate an intestinal obstruction. • Question 19 2 out of 2 points The majority of nutrient absorption takes place in the: Response Feedback: Very little absorption takes place in the stomach; most absorption takes place in the small intestine. The cecum and transverse colon are part of the large intestine, and its major function is water reabsorption. • Question 20 2 out of 2 points An umbilical assessment in the newborn that is of concern is: Response Feedback: What is expected is two arteries and one vein. A single umbilical artery indicates the possibility of congenital anomalies. A thick cord suggests a well-nourished fetus, an umbilical hernia will generally spontaneously close by 2 years, and pulsations to the abdomen in the epigastric area are common. Nondistended superficial veins are usually visible in the thin infant. The Joint Commission (TJC; formerly, the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations [JCAHO]) requires that: repeated intensity documentation is done on the course of pain relief for all patients. The perception of pain: is impacted by emotions and quality of sleep The value of the use of scales for patients to rate their pain intensity is that: the patient's response to therapy can be documented. [Show Less]
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NURS 6512N Week 4 Quiz – Question and Answers
NURS 6512N Week 4 Quiz Walden University NURS 6512N Week 4 Quiz – Question and Answers (Graded A). Wound infections are often cause by all of the fo... [Show More] llowing organisms except: Staphylococcus aureus Proteus Streptococci Chlamydia Adhesive skin glues are indicated for closure of which of the following wounds? Laceration on the flexor surface of the elbow Laceration to the palm of the hand Laceration to the chin Laceration on the tongue Lidocaine with epinephrine can safely be used to anesthetize which of the following? The tip of the nose The fingers The penis The forehead A Dennie-Morgan fold is probably caused by: A. birth trauma. B. high fever. C. excess adipose tissue. D. chronic rubbing. A 29-year-old white woman appears jaundiced. An etiology of liver disease has been excluded. What history questions should the nurse ask? A. Whether she had unprotected sex B. Whether she has a history of diabetes mellitus C. Whether she had unusual bleeding problems D. Whether she eats a lot of yellow and orange vegetables A simian line seen in the palm of a small child may imply: A. Down syndrome. B. Turner syndrome. C. systemic sclerosis. D. profound dehydration. You are conducting a preschool examination on a 5-year-old child. Which injury would most likely raise your suspicion that the child was being abused? A. Recent bruising over both knees B. A healed laceration under the chin C. A bruise on the right shin with associated abrasion of tissue D. Bruises in various stages of resolution over body soft tissues Fluorescing lesions are best distinguished using a(n): A. incandescent lamp. B. magnifying glass. C. transilluminator. D. Wood’s lamp. The skin repairs surface wounds by: A. exaggerating cell replacement. B. excreting lactic acid. C. producing vitamins. D. providing a mechanical barrier. Which cultural group has the lowest incidence of nevi? A. Native Americans/American Indians B. African Americans C. Mexican Americans D. Asians Assessment of poor hygiene, healed fractures with deformity, or unexplained trauma in older adults indicates: A. sexual abuse. B. physical neglect. C. psychological abuse. D. violated rights. You are inspecting the lower extremities of a patient and have noted pale, shiny skin of the lower extremities. This may reflect: A. systemic disease. B. a history of vigorous exercise. C. peptic ulcer disease. D. mental retardation. Mrs. Leonard brings her newborn infant into the pediatrician's office for a first well-baby visit. As the health care provider, you teach her that newborns are more vulnerable to hypothermia due to: A. the presence of coarse terminal hair. B. desquamation of the stratum corneum. C. their covering of vernix caseosa. D. a poorly developed subcutaneous fat layer. During history taking, a mother states that her son awoke in the middle of the night complaining of intense itching to his legs. Today, your inspection reveals honey-colored exudate from the vesicular rash on his legs. Which condition is consistent with the above findings? A. Exanthem B. Impetigo C. Solar keratoses D. Trichotillomania Painful vesicles are associated with: A. psoriasis. B. pityriasis rosea. C. paronychia. D. herpes zoster. The most common inflammatory skin condition is: A. cutis marmorata. B. eczematous dermatitis. C. intradermal nevus. D. pityriasis rosea. You have just completed a skin assessment on Mr. Baker. During your assessment, you have transilluminated a skin lesion. During the physical examination, you know that skin lesions are transilluminated to distinguish: A. vascular from nonvascular lesions. B. furuncles from folliculitis lesions. C. fluid-filled from solid cysts or masses. D. herpes zoster from varicella. A flat, nonpalpable lesion is described as a macule if the diameter is: A. greater than 1 cm. B. less than 1 cm. C. 3 cm exactly. D. too irregular to measure. Skin turgor checks are performed to determine the: A. temperature of the skin. B. hydration status. C. actual age. D. extent of an ecchymosis. Small, minute bruises are called: A. ecchymoses. B. petechiae. C. spider veins. D. telangiectasias. QUIZ 2 • Question 1 2 out of 2 points Wound infections are often cause by all of the following organisms except: • Question 2 2 out of 2 points Adhesive skin glues are indicated for closure of which of the following wounds? • Question 3 2 out of 2 points Lidocaine with epinephrine can safely be used to anesthetize which of the following? • Question 4 2 out of 2 points A Dennie-Morgan fold is probably caused by: Response Feedback: Persons with chronic atopic or allergic conditions tend to rub the eyes sufficiently to cause an extra crease or pleat of skin below the eye, called the Dennie-Morgan fold. • Question 5 2 out of 2 points A 29-year-old white woman appears jaundiced. An etiology of liver disease has been excluded. What history questions should the nurse ask? Response Feedback: In the absence of liver disease, another cause of jaundice is increased carotene pigmentation. Diets high in carrots, sweet potatoes, and squash are high in carotene and can make the skin appear to be jaundiced. Whether she had unprotected sex, a history of diabetes mellitus, or unusual bleeding problems would not assess the jaundiced skin. • Question 6 2 out of 2 points A simian line seen in the palm of a small child may imply: Response Feedback: The simian line, a single transverse crease, is seen on the palm of children with Down syndrome. • Question 7 2 out of 2 points You are conducting a preschool examination on a 5-year-old child. Which injury would most likely raise your suspicion that the child was being abused? Response Feedback: Toddlers and older children who bruise themselves accidentally do so over bony prominences, like the knees, chin, and shin. Bruises over soft tissues are more consistent with abuse. • Question 8 2 out of 2 points Fluorescing lesions are best distinguished using a(n): Response Feedback: Fluorescing lesions (e.g., some tinea lesions) show a characteristic yellow-green color under a Wood's lamp. • Question 9 2 out of 2 points The skin repairs surface wounds by: Response Feedback: The skin's tissue cells have a rapid rate of turnover and constant renewal, thereby enabling the skin to repair damaged surfaces. • Question 10 2 out of 2 points Which cultural group has the lowest incidence of nevi? Response Feedback: Nevi are more common in persons who burn rather than tan; therefore, African Americans have the lowest rates of nevi. • Question 11 2 out of 2 points Assessment of poor hygiene, healed fractures with deformity, or unexplained trauma in older adults indicates: Response Feedback: Described is the most common form of elder abuse: physical neglect. • Question 12 2 out of 2 points You are inspecting the lower extremities of a patient and have noted pale, shiny skin of the lower extremities. This may reflect: Response Feedback: Pale, shiny skin of the lower extremities may reflect peripheral changes that occur with systemic disorders, such as diabetes mellitus and cardiovascular disease. • Question 13 2 out of 2 points Mrs. Leonard brings her newborn infant into the pediatrician's office for a first well-baby visit. As the health care provider, you teach her that newborns are more vulnerable to hypothermia due to: Response Feedback: Newborns have a poorly developed subcutaneous fat layer and so have a reduced ability to generate heat. • Question 14 2 out of 2 points During history taking, a mother states that her son awoke in the middle of the night complaining of intense itching to his legs. Today, your inspection reveals honey-colored exudate from the vesicular rash on his legs. Which condition is consistent with the above findings? Response Feedback: Impetigo causes intense pruritus, regional lymphadenopathy, and honey-colored exudative crusting as the vesicles or bullae rupture and dry. • Question 15 2 out of 2 points Painful vesicles are associated with: Response Feedback: Herpes zoster (shingles) produces painful itching or burning of the dermatome area. • Question 16 2 out of 2 points The most common inflammatory skin condition is: Response Feedback: The most common inflammatory skin disorder is eczematous dermatitis. • Question 17 2 out of 2 points You have just completed a skin assessment on Mr. Baker. During your assessment, you have transilluminated a skin lesion. During the physical examination, you know that skin lesions are transilluminated to distinguish: Response Feedback: Transillumination is used to determine the presence of fluid in cysts and masses. Fluid-filled lesions will transilluminate with a red glow, and solid masses will not transilluminate. • Question 18 2 out of 2 points A flat, nonpalpable lesion is described as a macule if the diameter is: Response Feedback: A macule by definition is a flat, circumscribed area that is less than 1 cm in diameter and is measurable. An example of a macular rash is measles. • Question 19 2 out of 2 points Skin turgor checks are performed to determine the: Response Feedback: Skin will remain tented if the patient is dehydrated or will not tent if edema is present. • Question 20 2 out of 2 points Small, minute bruises are called: Response Feedback: Petechiae are less than 0.5 cm in diameter. Ecchymoses are greater than 0.5 cm in diameter. Spider veins and telangiectasias are vascular lesions [Show Less]
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Walden University NURS 6512 Final Exam 3. Questions & Answers
Walden University NURS 6512 Final Exam 3. Questions & Answers Walden University NURS 6512 Final Exam 3. NURS 6512 NURS 6512 Final Exam 3 Walden Uni... [Show More] versity NURS 6512 Final Exam 3. Questions & Answers (Graded A) Question 1 1 out of 1 points The reliability of health-related findings and observations is the responsibility of the: Answer: professional and the patient. Question 2 1 out of 1 points Which of the following statements is true regarding the examination of peripheral arteries? Answer: The pulses are most readily felt over bony prominences. Question 3 1 out of 1 points As Mr. B. enters the room, you observe that his gait is wide based and he staggers from side to side while swaying his trunk. You would document Mr. B.'s pattern as: Answer: cerebellar ataxia. Question 4 1 out of 1 points You are conducting a clinical breast examination for your 30-year-old patient. Her breasts are symmetrical with bilateral, multiple tender masses that are freely moveable with well-defined borders. You recognize that these symptoms and assessment findings are consistent with: Answer: fibrocystic changes Question 5 1 out of 1 points Which one of the following is a proper technique for use of a speculum during a vaginal examination? Answer: Press introitus downward; insert closed speculum obliquely Question 6 1 out of 1 points When is the mental status portion of the neurologic system examination performed? Answer: Constantly, throughout the entire interaction with a patient Question 7 1 out of 1 points Normal changes of the aging brain include: Answer: diminished perception of touch. Question 8 1 out of 1 points The finger-to-nose test allows assessment of: Answer: coordination and fine motor function. Question 9 1 out of 1 points The difference in blood pressure readings between the right and the left arms is considered normal up to _____ mm Hg. Answer: 10 Question 10 1 out of 1 points Tarry black stool should make you suspect: Answer: upper intestinal bleeding Question 11 1 out of 1 points Anterior cruciate ligament integrity is assessed via the _____ test. Answer: Lachman Question 12 1 out of 1 points Examination of the patient in the lithotomy, or knee-chest, position includes: Answer: palpation of anal sphincter tone. Question 13 1 out of 1 points Inquiry about nocturnal muscle spasms would be most significant when taking the musculoskeletal history of: Answer: older adults. Question 14 1 out of 1 points Which cranial nerves are usually evaluated during the examination of the eyes? Answer: III and VI Question 15 1 out of 1 points Assessing orientation to person, place, and time helps determine: Answer: state of consciousness. Question 16 1 out of 1 points To spread the breast tissue evenly over the chest wall, you should ask the woman to lie supine with: Answer: one arm overhead and a pillow under her shoulder. Question 17 1 out of 1 points Cranial nerve XII may be assessed in an infant by: Answer: observing the infant suck and swallow. Question 18 1 out of 1 points Diabetic peripheral neuropathy will likely produce: Answer: diminished pain sensation. Question 19 1 out of 1 points Nerves that arise from the brain rather than the spinal cord are called: Answer: cranial Question 20 1 out of 1 points Inspection of the scrotum should reveal: Answer: left scrotal sac lower than the right. Question 21 1 out of 1 points Postural hypotension is defined as a _____ when the patient stands, compared with sitting or supine readings. Answer: systolic pressure drop of more than 15 mm Hg with a pulse rate increase Question 22 1 out of 1 points The rectal past medical history of all patients should include inquiry about: Answer: hemorrhoid surgery. Question 23 1 out of 1 points You are initially evaluating the equilibrium of Ms. Q. You ask her to stand with her feet together and arms at her sides. She loses her balance. Ms. Q. has a positive: Answer: Romberg sign. Question 24 1 out of 1 points When assessing a 17-year-old for nuchal rigidity, you gently raise his head off the examination table. He involuntarily flexes his hips and knees. To confirm your suspicions associated with this positive test, you would also perform a test for the _____ sign. Answer: Kernig Question 25 1 out of 1 points You are conducting an examination of Mr. Curtis's heart and blood vessels and auscultate a grade III murmur. The intensity of this murmur is: Answer: moderately loud. Question 26 1 out of 1 points You are interviewing a 20-year-old patient with a new-onset psychotic disorder. The patient is apathetic and has disturbed thoughts and language patterns. The nurse recognizes this behavior pattern as consistent with a diagnosis of: Answer: schizophrenia. Question 27 1 out of 1 points The best way to ease the apprehension of a 3-year-old child before a physical examination is to: Answer: let the child hold the stethoscope while you listen. Question 28 1 out of 1 points When you attempt to move a 10-month-old child from his mother's lap to the examination table, he screams loudly. Your best action is to: Answer: perform the examination while the child is in the mother's lap. Question 29 1 out of 1 points You are conducting a preparticipation physical examination for a 10-year-old girl with Down syndrome who will be playing basketball. She has slight torticollis and mild ankle clonus. What additional diagnostic testing would be required for her? Answer: Cervical spine radiograph Question 30 1 out of 1 points A 23-year-old white woman has come to the clinic because she has missed two menstrual periods. She states that her breasts have enlarged and that her nipples have turned a darker color. Your further response to this finding is to: Answer: suggest pregnancy testing. Question 31 1 out of 1 points A positive straight leg raise test usually indicates: Answer: lumbar nerve root irritation. Question 32 1 out of 1 points Loss of immediate and recent memory with retention of remote memory suggests: Answer: dementia. Question 33 0 out of 1 points Bimanual examination of the uterus includes: Answer: grasping the vaginal wall and pulling it downward. Question 34 1 out of 1 points While collecting personal and social history data from a woman complaining of breast discomfort, you should question her regarding: Answer: alcohol, tobacco, and caffeine use. Question 35 1 out of 1 points When assessing superficial pain, touch, vibration, and position perceptions, you are testing: Answer: sensory function. Question 36 1 out of 1 points You are performing a two-point discrimination test as part of a well physical examination. The area with the ability to discern two points in the shortest distance is the: Answer: fingertips Question 37 1 out of 1 points If a patient cannot shrug the shoulders against resistance, which cranial nerve (CN) requires further evaluation? Answer: CN XI, spinal accessory Question 38 1 out of 1 points The Mini-Mental State Examination: Answer: may be used to quantitatively estimate cognitive changes. Question 39 1 out of 1 points When palpating joints, crepitus may occur when: Answer: irregular bony surfaces rub together. Question 40 1 out of 1 points Electrical activity recorded by the electrocardiogram (ECG) tracing that denotes the spread of the stimulus through the atria is the: Answer: P wave. Question 41 1 out of 1 points When the Goodenough-Harris Drawing Test is administered to a child, the evaluator principally observes the: Answer: presence and form of body parts Question 42 1 out of 1 points A pulsation that is diminished to the point of being barely palpable would be graded as: Answer: 1 Question 43 1 out of 1 points During a routine prenatal visit, Ms. T. was noted as having dependent edema, varicosities of the legs, and hemorrhoids. She expressed concern about these symptoms. You explain to Ms. T. that her enlarged uterus is compressing her pelvic veins and her inferior vena cava. You would further explain that these findings: Answer: are usual conditions during pregnancy. Question 44 1 out of 1 points The examiner percusses for diaphragmatic excursion along the: Answer: scapular line Question 45 1 out of 1 points An ophthalmoscopic eye examination involves: Answer: lens inspection. Question 46 1 out of 1 points Which condition is considered progressive rather than reversible? Answer: Dementia Question 47 1 out of 1 points Breath sounds normally heard over the trachea are called: Answer: bronchial. Question 48 0 out of 1 points You are assessing Mr. Z.'s fluid volume status as a result of heart failure. If your finger depresses a patient's edematous ankle to a depth of 6 mm, you should record this pitting as: Answer: 4+. Question 49 1 out of 1 points Nancy Walker is a 16-year-old girl who presents to the clinic with complaints of severe, acute chest pain. Her mother reports that Nancy, apart from occasional colds, Nancy is not prone to respiratory problems. What potential risk factor is most important to assess with regards to Nancy's current problem? Answer: Cocaine use Question 50 1 out of 1 points Recent unilateral inversion of a previously everted nipple suggests: Answer: cancer. Question 51 1 out of 1 points The physical assessment technique most frequently used to assess joint symmetry is: Answer: inspection. Question 52 1 out of 1 points During chest assessment, you note the patient's voice quality while auscultating the lung fields. The voice sound is intensified, there is a nasal quality to the voice, and the e's sound like a s. This sound is indicative of: Answer: lung consolidation. Question 53 1 out of 1 points While interviewing a 70-year-old female clinic patient, she tells you that she takes ginkgo biloba and St. John's wort. You make a short note to check for results of the: Answer: Mini-Mental State Examination. Question 54 1 out of 1 points Breath odors may clue the examiner to certain underlying metabolic conditions. The odor of ammonia on the breath may signify: Answer: uremia. Question 55 1 out of 1 points One of the most important aspects to consider in the orthopedic screening examination is: Answer: symmetry. Question 56 1 out of 1 points When palpating breast tissue, the examiner should use the _____ at each site. Answer: finger pads, gliding Question 57 1 out of 1 points The goals of preparticipation sports evaluation include: Answer: identifying risk of injury or death during sports participation. Question 58 1 out of 1 points Part of the screening orthopedic component of the examination includes evaluating the person while he or she is: Answer: duck walking. Question 59 1 out of 1 points A red, hot swollen joint in a 40-year-old man should lead you to suspect: Answer: gout. Question 60 1 out of 1 points It is especially important to test for ankle clonus if: Answer: deep tendon reflexes are hyperactive. Question 61 1 out of 1 points For purposes of examination and communication of physical findings, the breast is divided into: Answer: four quadrants plus a tail. Question 62 1 out of 1 points The adnexa of the uterus are composed of the: Answer: fallopian tubes and ovaries. Question 63 1 out of 1 points Functional assessment is most important during the examination of a(n): Answer: older adult. Question 64 1 out of 1 points Which one of the following techniques is used to detect a torn meniscus? Answer: McMurray test Question 65 1 out of 1 points A finding that is indicative of osteoarthritis is: Answer: Heberden nodes. Question 66 1 out of 1 points The foramen ovale should close: Answer: within minutes of birth. Question 67 1 out of 1 points Montgomery tubercles are most prominent in the breasts of: Answer: pregnant women. Question 68 1 out of 1 points A parent is advised to restrict contact or collision sports participation for their child. An example of a sport in which this child could participate is: Answer: riflery. Question 69 1 out of 1 points A cervical polyp usually appears as a: Answer: bright-red soft protrusion from the endocervical canal. Question 70 1 out of 1 points An idiopathic spasm of arterioles in the digits is termed: Answer: Raynaud disease. Question 71 1 out of 1 points You are examining a patient in the emergency department who has recently sustained head trauma. In order to initially assess this patient's neurologic status, you would: Answer: test the six cardinal points of gaze. Question 72 1 out of 1 points You are inspecting the genitalia of an uncircumcised adult male. The foreskin is tight and cannot be easily retracted. You should: Answer: inquire about previous penile infections. Question 73 1 out of 1 points A 12-year-old boy relates that his left scrotum has a soft swollen mass. The scrotum is not painful upon palpation. The left inguinal canal is without masses. The mass does transilluminate with a penlight. This collection of symptoms is consistent with: Answer: hydrocele. Question 74 1 out of 1 points An examiner has rotated a brush several times into the cervical os. The brush was withdrawn and stroked lightly on a glass slide. The slide was sprayed with fixative. Which type of specimen requires this technique for collection? Answer: Cytology smear Question 75 1 out of 1 points The presence of cervical motion tenderness may indicate: Answer: pelvic inflammatory disease. Question 76 1 out of 1 points Palpation of epitrochlear nodes is part of the: Answer: examination of the upper extremities. Question 77 1 out of 1 points Ulnar deviation and boutonniere deformities are characteristic of: Answer: rheumatoid arthritis. Question 78 1 out of 1 points A common finding in markedly obese and pregnant women is: Answer: lordosis. Question 79 1 out of 1 points A grade IV mitral regurgitation murmur would: Answer: radiate to the axilla. Question 80 1 out of 1 points The musculoskeletal examination should begin when: Answer: the patient enters the examination room. Question 81 1 out of 1 points Throughout the history and physical examination, the clinician should: Answer: evaluate the whole patient. Question 82 1 out of 1 points To assess a cremasteric reflex, the examiner strokes the: Answer: inner thigh and observes whether the testicle and scrotum rise on the stroked side. Question 83 1 out of 1 points The spread of the impulse through the ventricles (ventricular depolarization) is depicted on the ECG as the: Answer: QRS complex. Question 84 1 out of 1 points You are examining Mr. S., a 79-year-old diabetic man complaining of claudication. Which of the following physical findings is consistent with the diagnosis of arterial occlusion? Answer: Loss of hair over the extremity Question 85 1 out of 1 points If your patient has nipple discharge, you will most likely need a: Answer: glass slide and fixative. Question 86 1 out of 1 points The checkout station for preparticipation physical evaluation (PPE) is critical because at this point: Answer: coordination of follow-ups is reviewed. Question 87 1 out of 1 points An apical PMI palpated beyond the left fifth intercostal space may indicate: Answer: left ventricular hypertrophy. Question 88 1 out of 1 points The Denver II is a tool used to determine: Answer: whether a child is developing as expected. Question 89 1 out of 1 points To hear diastolic heart sounds, you should ask patients to: Answer: lie on their left sides. Question 90 1 out of 1 points Your 15-year-old patient is athletic and thin. Radiography of an ankle injury reveals a stress fracture. You should question this patient about her: Answer: menstrual cycles. Question 91 1 out of 1 points In the most effective percussion technique of the posterior lung fields, the patient cooperates by: Answer: folding the arms in front. Question 92 1 out of 1 points While examining a 30-year-old woman, you note that one breast is slightly larger than the other. In response to this finding, you should: Answer: note the finding in the patient's record. Question 93 1 out of 1 points Temporalis and masseter muscles are evaluated by: Answer: having the patient clench his or her teeth. Question 94 1 out of 1 points Which medical condition would exclude a person from sports participation? Answer: Fever Question 95 1 out of 1 points Your patient's chief complaint is repeated pencil-like stools. Further examination should include: Answer: digital rectal examination (DRE). Question 96 1 out of 1 points Which portion of the physical examination is best done with the patient standing? Answer: Spinal Question 97 1 out of 1 points Kawasaki disease is suspected when assessments of a child reveal: Answer: conjunctival injection, strawberry tongue, and edema of the hands and feet. Question 98 1 out of 1 points Palpation of a normal prostate in an older adult is likely to feel: Answer: rubbery. Question 99 1 out of 1 points Your older clinic patient is being seen today as a follow-up for a 2-day history of pneumonia. The patient continues to have a productive cough, shortness of breath, and lethargy and has been spending most of the day lying in bed. You should begin the chest examination by: Answer: auscultating the lung bases. Question 100 1 out of 1 points Facial muscle or tongue weakness may result in: Answer: aphasia. [Show Less]
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Walden University NURS 6512N WEEK 2 QUIZ 1 – Questions and Answers
Walden University NURS 6512N WEEK 2 QUIZ 1 – Questions and Answers NURS 6512N WEEK 2 QUIZ 1 NURS 6512N Walden University NURS 6512N WEEK 2 QUIZ 1 �... [Show More] �� Questions and Answers (Graded A). 1. When percussing, a dull tone is expected to be heard over: Most of the abdomen. emphysemic lungs. The liver. Healthy lung tissue. An empty stomach. 2. The dorsal surface of the hand is most often used for the assessment of: crepitus. thrills. texture. vibration. temperature. 3. A patient in the emergency department has a concussion to the head. You suspect the patient may also have a retinal hemorrhage. You are using the ophthalmoscope to examine the retina of this patient. Which aperture of the ophthalmoscope is most appropriate for this patient? Strabismoscope Red-free filter Slit lamp Small aperture Grid 4. The use of secondary, tangential lighting is most helpful in the detection of: variations in skin color. enlarged tonsils. foreign objects in the nose or ear. variations in contour of the body surface. variations in texture and mobility. 5. Tuning forks with a frequency of 500 to 1000 Hz are most commonly used to measure: vibratory sensations. hearing from bone conduction. hearing range of normal speech. noise above the threshold level. peripheral motor nerve damage. 6. Which patient is at the highest risk for the development of latex allergy? The new patient who has no chronic illness and has never been hospitalized The patient who has had multiple procedures or surgeries The patient who is allergic to eggs The patient who is allergic to contrast dye The patient who is a vegetarian 7. A variant of the percussion hammer is the neurologic hammer, which is equipped with which of the following? Brush and needle Tuning fork and cotton swab Penlight and goniometer Ruler and bell Transilluminator 8. Transillumination functions on the principle that: infrared radiation is easily detected. black light causes certain substances to fluoresce. converging and diverging light brings structures into focus. tangential light casts shadows that illuminate contours. air, fluid, and tissue transmit light differentially. 9. Which statement is true regarding the relationship of physical characteristics and culture? Physical characteristics should be used to identify members of cultural groups. There is a difference between distinguishing cultural characteristics and distinguishing physical characteristics. To be a member of a specific culture, an individual must have certain identifiable physical characteristics. Gender and race are the two essential physical characteristics used to identify cultural groups. All cultural traits can be viewed as static whereas physical traits are dynamic. 10. A scale used to assess patients weight should be calibrated: when the patient tells you the weight is not correct. by a qualified technician at regularly scheduled intervals. each time it is used. when necessary, with the patient standing on the scale. only by the manufacturer. 11. Which technique is commonly used to elicit tenderness arising from the liver, gallbladder, or kidneys? Finger percussion Only indirect percussion techniques are ever used to elicit tenderness. Fist percussion Thumb percussion Palmer percussion 12. A rubber or plastic ring should be around the bell end-piece of a stethoscope to: prevent the transmission of static electricity. avoid cold metal from touching the patient. prevent the sharp edge of the stethoscope from damaging the patient s skin. allow firm pressure to be applied without discomfort. ensure secure contact with the body surface. 13. In terms of cultural communication differences, Americans are more likely to _____ than are other groups of patients. emphasize attitudes and feelings maintain eye contact come quickly to the point use silence comfortably speak more softly than other cultures 14. For a woman with a small vaginal opening, the examiner should use a _____ speculum. plastic Graves Pederson pediatric nasal metal Graves 15. During percussion, the downward snap of the striking fingers should originate from the: wrist. forearm. shoulder. interphalangeal joint. elbow. 16. You are auscultating a patient s chest. The sounds are not clear, and you are having difficulty distinguishing between respirations and heartbeats. What technique can you use to facilitate your assessment? Anticipate the next sounds. Isolate each cycle segment. Listen to all sounds together. Move the stethoscope clockwise. Ask the patient to whisper his name. 17. Expected normal percussion tones include: dullness over the lungs. hyperresonance over the lungs. tympany over an empty stomach. flatness over an empty stomach. resonance over the liver. 18. During auscultation, you can limit your perceptual field best by: asking patients to describe their symptoms. listening through the patient s clothing. closing your eyes. performing palpation before percussion. turning out the lights in the examination room. 19. Standard Precautions apply to all patients: with bloodborne infections. with infected, draining wounds. in intensive care units. receiving care in hospitals. believed to have an infectious disease. 20. Which of the following describes a physical, not a cultural, differentiator? Ritual Rite Race Norm Ethos [Show Less]
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NURS 6512N Week 9 Quiz – Question and Answers
NURS 6512N Week 9 Quiz – Question and Answers Walden University NURS 6512N Week 9 Quiz – Question and Answers (Graded A). Question 1 2 out of 2 po... [Show More] ints The Denver II is a tool used to determine: Response Feedback: Denver II is a tool to determine whether the child is developing fine and gross motor skills, language, and personal social skills as expected according to the child s age. Question 2 2 out of 2 points A positive Babinski sign is normal until what age? Response Feedback: A positive Babinski sign, fanning of the toes and dorsiflexion of the great toe, is a normal finding until the infant is 16 to 24 months old. Question 3 2 out of 2 points While interviewing a 70-year-old female clinic patient, she tells you that she takes ginkgo biloba and St. John s wort. You make a short note to check for results of the: Response Feedback: Ginkgo biloba and St. John s wort are herbal remedies intended to improve mental alertness and elevate mood. As side effects, they can also result in disorientation and confusion that can be monitored with the Mini-Mental State Examination. The Denver and the Goodenough-Harris tests are used for childhood development, and the Glasgow Coma Scale is used to rate coma depth. The CAGE Questionnaire is useful tool for approaching a discussion of the use of alcohol. Question 4 2 out of 2 points Environmental hazards and cognitive function are data needed for the personal and social history section of a neurologic assessment for: Response Feedback: Exposure to lead, arsenic, insecticides, organic solvents, dangerous equipment, and work at heights or in water are important factors to consider in the personal and social history of all patients. Question 5 2 out of 2 points You have asked a patient to close his eyes and identify an object placed in his hand. You are evaluating: Response Feedback: Stereognosis is the ability to recognize an object through touch and manipulation. Tactile agnosia, an inability to recognize objects by touch, suggests a parietal lobe lesion. Graphesthesia tests the patient s ability to identify the figure being drawn on their palm. The vibratory sense uses a tuning fork placed on a bony prominence. Two-point discrimination uses two sharp objects to determine the distance at which the patient can no longer distinguish the two points. The extinction phenomenon tests sensation by simultaneously touching bilateral sides of the body with a sterile needle. Question 6 2 out of 2 points Motor maturation proceeds in an orderly progression from: Response Feedback: Motor maturation proceeds in a cephalocaudal direction. Motor control of the head and neck develops first, followed by the trunk and extremities. The other choices are incorrect because they relate maturation sequence inappropriately. Question 7 2 out of 2 points Deep pressure tests are used mostly for patients who are experiencing: Response Feedback: Deep pressure sensation is tested by squeezing the trapezius, calf, or biceps muscle, thus causing discomfort. When superficial pain sensation is not intact, then further assessments of temperature and deep pressure sensation are performed. Question 8 2 out of 2 points Loss of immediate and recent memory with retention of remote memory suggests: Response Feedback: Dementia is the loss of both immediate and recent memory while retaining remote memories. ADHD is associated with recent and remote memory impairment; impaired judgments are thought process dysfunctions; and stupor is impaired consciousness. Delirium manifests with confusion with disordered perceptions as well as motor and sensory excitement with inappropriate reactions to stimuli. Question 9 2 out of 2 points A patient in the deepest coma would be scored a _____ on the Glasgow Coma Scale. Response Feedback: The lowest score possible is a 3, which represents the deepest coma. Question 10 2 out of 2 points Diabetic peripheral neuropathy will likely produce: Response Feedback: Peripheral neuropathy is a disorder of the peripheral nervous system that results in motor and sensory loss in the distribution of one or more nerves, more commonly in the hands and feet. Patients may have sensation of numbness, tingling, burning, and cramping. In moderate to severe diabetic neuropathy, there is wasting of the foot muscles, absent ankle and knee reflexes, decreased or no vibratory sensation below the knees, or loss of pain or sharp touch sensation to the mid-calf level. Question 11 2 out of 2 points You are initially evaluating the equilibrium of Ms. Q. You ask her to stand with her feet together and arms at her sides. She loses her balance. Ms. Q. has a positive: Response Feedback: The Romberg test has the patient stand with his eyes closed, feet together, and arms at the sides. Slight swaying movement of the body is expected but not to the extent of falling. Loss of balance results in a positive Romberg test. Kernig sign tests for meningeal irritation; Homan sign tests for venous thrombosis; and McMurray test is a rotation test for demonstrating a torn meniscus. A positive Murphy s sign is usually a sign of gallbladder disease. Question 12 2 out of 2 points Flight of ideas or loosening of associations are associated with: Response Feedback: Flight of ideas, loosening of associations, word salad, neologisms, clang associations, echolalia, and utterances of unusual sounds are all associated with psychiatric disorders. Question 13 2 out of 2 points At what age should the infant begin to transfer objects from hand to hand? Response Feedback: Transferring objects hand to hand begins at 7 months. Purposeful release of objects is noted as a normal finding by 10 months. Purposeful movements, such as reaching and grasping for objects, begin at about 2 months of age. The progress of taking objects with one hand begins at 6 months. There should be no tremors or constant overshooting of movements. Question 14 2 out of 2 points You are performing a two-point discrimination test as part of a well physical examination. The area with the ability to discern two points in the shortest distance is the: Response Feedback: The fingertips can discern two points with a minimal distance of 2 to 8 mm; the back, 40 to 70 mm; the palms, 8 to 12 mm; the upper arms, at 75 mm; and the chest and forearms, 40 mm. Question 15 2 out of 2 points Normal changes of the aging brain include: Response Feedback: Sensory perceptions of touch and pain are diminished by aging. The velocity of nerve impulse conduction declines, so response to stimuli takes longer. The number of cerebral neurons is thought to decrease by 1% a year beginning at 50 years of age; however, the vast number of reserve cells inhibits the appearance of clinical signs. Dermatomal patterns do not change. Acquired knowledge is maintained throughout life. Question 16 2 out of 2 points To assess a cremasteric reflex, the examiner strokes the: Response Feedback: Stroking the inner thigh of a male patient (proximal to distal) will elicit the cremasteric reflex. The testicle and scrotum rise on the stroked side. Stoking the skin around the anus produces reflexive contracture of the external anal sphincter referred to as the anal wink. Stroking the sole of the foot elicits a Babinski sign; stroking the abdomen elicits an abdominal reflex; and stroking the palm elicits a palmar grasp. Question 17 2 out of 2 points The finger-to-nose test allows assessment of: Response Feedback: To perform the finger-to-nose test, the patient closes both eyes, touches his or her nose with the index finger, alternating hands while gradually increasing the speed. This tests coordination and fine motor skills. All of the other choices test sensory function without motor function. Question 18 2 out of 2 points The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to: Response Feedback: The Glasgow Coma Scale is used when a patient has an altered level of consciousness and is used to quantify consciousness. It cannot determine the cause of decreased consciousness, diagnose disorders, or predict responses to medications. Abstract reasoning is assessed by other methods. Question 19 2 out of 2 points An aversion to touch or being held, along with delayed or absent language development, is characteristic of: Response Feedback: Autistic disorder involves a combination of behavioral traits (lack of awareness of others, aversion to touch or being held, odd or repetitive behaviors, or preoccupation with parts of objects) and communication deficits (usually echolalia [parrot speech]). Question 20 2 out of 2 points A woman brings her husband to the emergency department and states that he is having a stroke. You are the student NP on the hospitalist service and are sent down first to obtain the history and physical. You develop a differential diagnosis and know that the initial gold standard radiology test to further evaluate is: [Show Less]
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Walden University NURS 6512N WEEK 2 QUIZ 5 – Questions and Answers
Walden University NURS 6512N WEEK 2 QUIZ 5 – Questions and Answers NURS 6512N WEEK 2 QUIZ 5 NURS 6512N Walden University NURS 6512N WEEK 2 QUIZ 5 –... [Show More] Questions and Answers (Graded A) 1. You are performing a vaginal examination on a patient with a history of spina bifida. As you insert the metal speculum, the patient suddenly feels nauseated and is sweating, and her skin turns blotchy. What is your most immediate reaction to this situation? Remove the speculum. 2. Mr. Walder is a 56-year-old man who has been complaining of chest palpitations. Which position is useful for auscultating heart sounds? Left lateral recumbent 3. Which technique is used during both the history taking and the physical examination process? Inspection 4. Ms. Jones is a 31-year-old female patient who presents for a routine physical examination. Which examination technique will be used first? Inspection 5. The use of secondary, tangential lighting is most helpful in the detection Variations in contour of the body surface. 6. You are caring for a nonambulatory 80-year-old male patient and he tells you, a female nurse, that he feels like he is having drainage from his rectum. Which initial nursing action is appropriate? Drape the patient and observe the rectal area. 7. Mrs. Smalls is a 42-year-old woman who has presented to the office for a head to toe examination as part of her preventive health care assessment. The room has adequate lighting, and you have access to both sides of the examining table. What position should you assume while conducting this examination? Either side of the patient 8. You are planning to palpate the abdomen of your patient. Which part of the examiner's hand is best for palpating vibration? Ulnar surface 9. Mrs. Berger is a 39-year-old woman who presents with a complaint of epigastric abdominal pain. You have completed the inspection of the abdomen. What is your next step in the assessment process? Auscultation 10. The degree of percussion tone is determined by the density of the medium through which the sound waves travel. Which statement is true regarding the relationship between density of the medium and percussion tone? The less dense the medium, the louder is the percussion tone. Expected normal percussion tones include: Tympany over an empty stomach. 11. During percussion, a dull tone is expected to be heard over: The liver. 12. When using mediate or indirect percussion, which technique is appropriate? Place the palmar surface of the nondominant hand on the body surface, with the fingers s lightly spread apart. 13. During percussion, the downward snap of the striking fingers should originate from the: Wrist. 14. During auscultation, you can limit your perceptual field best by: Closing your eyes. 15. You are auscultating a patient's chest. The sounds are not clear, and you are having difficulty distinguishing between respirations and heartbeats. Which technique can you use to facilitate your assessment? Isolate each cycle segment. 16. Auscultation should be carried out last, except when examining the: Abdomen. 17. Tympanic thermometers measure body temperature when a probe is placed: In the auditory canal. 18. The height-measuring attachment of the standing platform scale should be pulled up: Before the patient steps on the scale. 19. Which of the following occurs when firm pressure is used to apply the stethoscope's bell endpiece to the skin? It functionally converts to a diaphragm endpiece. 20. Weak pulses, fetal heart activity, and vessel patency are all best assessed with which type of stethoscope? Ultrasonic 21. You are using an ophthalmoscope to examine a patient's inner eye. You rotate the lens selector clockwise and then counterclockwise to compensate for: Myopia. 22. A patient in the emergency department has a concussion. You suspect the patient may also have a retinal hemorrhage. You are using the ophthalmoscope to examine the retina of this patient. Which aperture of the ophthalmoscope is most appropriate for this patient? Red-free filter 23. Which type of speculum should be used to examine a patient's tympanic membrane? The largest speculum that will fit comfortably in the ear 24. The pneumatic attachment for the otoscope is used to evaluate: tympanic membrane movement. 25. Mr. Walters, a 32-year-old patient, tells you that his ears are "stopped up." An objective assessment of this complaint is achieved by using the: tympanometer. 26. To perform a deep tendon reflex measurement, you should: Briskly tap the tendon with the rubber end of the hammer. 27. When monitoring serial measures, such as head circumference or abdominal girth, which procedure is best to ensure that the tape measure is placed in the same position each time? Mark the borders of the tape at several intervals on the skin with a pen. 28. The Pederson speculum has blades that: Are narrower and flatter. 29. Which of the following are causes of hyperreflexia? (Select all that apply.) Cold stirrups Insertion of a speculum Pressure during bimanual exam 30. The Snellen E vision acuity chart would most likely be used for __________. Preschool children 31. The stethoscope's diaphragm is most useful for the assessment of __________ sounds. High-pitched 32. For a woman with a small vaginal opening, the examiner should use a __________ speculum. Pederson [Show Less]
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Walden University NURS 6512N WEEK 2 QUIZ 4 – Questions and Answers
Walden University NURS 6512N WEEK 2 QUIZ 4 – Questions and Answers NURS 6512N WEEK 2 QUIZ 4 NURS 6512N Walden University NURS 6512N WEEK 2 QUIZ 4 �... [Show More] � Questions and Answers (Graded A) 1. Auscultation should be carried out last except when examining The abdomen. 2. Which of the following statements is true regarding tympanic membrane temperature? It is an accurate measurement of body temperature because the tympanic membrane shares its blood supply with the hypothalamus. 3. A scale used to assess a patient's weight should be calibrated Each time it is used. 4. The height-measuring attachment of the standing platform scale should be pulled out Before the patient steps on the scale. 5. An infant should be placed in which position to have his or her height or length measured? Supine on a measuring board 6. The stethoscope's diaphragm is most useful in the assessment of _____ sounds. High-pitched 7. A rubber or plastic ring should be around the bell end-piece of a stethoscope to Ensure secure contact with the body surface. 8. Which technique should be used to stabilize the stethoscope during auscultation? The endpiece should be held between the second and third fingers. 9. A patient in the emergency department has a concussion to the head. You suspect that the patient may also have a retinal hemorrhage. You are using the ophthalmoscope to examine the retina of this patient. Which aperture of the ophthalmoscope is most appropriate for this patient? Red-free filter 10. The Tumbling "E" vision acuity chart would most likely be used for _____ patients. Preschool 11. The pneumatic attachment for the otoscope is used to evaluate Tympanic membrane movement. 12. The patient tells you that his ears are "stopped up." An objective assessment of this complaint is achieved by using a(n) Tympanometer. 13. Tuning forks with a frequency of 500 to 1000 Hz are most commonly used to measure Hearing range of normal speech 14. To perform a deep tendon reflex measurement, you should Briskly tap the tendon with the rubber end of the hammer. 15. A variant of the percussion hammer is a neurologic hammer, which is equipped with which of the following? Brush and needle 16. When monitoring serial measurements, such as head circumference or abdominal girth, which procedure is best to ensure that the tape measure is placed in the same position each time? Mark the borders of the tape at several intervals on the skin with a pen. 17. Transillumination functions on the principle that Air, fluid, and tissue transmit light differentially. 18. When performing transillumination of a body cavity, the use of which of the following could be harmful to the patient? Halogen bulb 19. For a woman with a small vaginal opening, the examiner should use a _____ speculum. Pederson [Show Less]
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Walden University NURS 6512N WEEK 2 QUIZ 3 – Questions and Answers
Walden University NURS 6512N WEEK 2 QUIZ 3 – Questions and Answers NURS 6512N WEEK 2 QUIZ 3 NURS 6512N Walden University NURS 6512N WEEK 2 QUIZ 3 ... [Show More] – Questions and Answers (Graded A) 1. Guidelines for Standard Precautions indicate that mask and eye protection or a face mask should be worn while performing Trachea care and suctioning. 2. Standard Precautions apply to all patients Receiving care in hospitals. 3. According to the guidelines for Standard Precautions The caregiver's hands should be washed after touching any body fluids and contaminated items regardless of whether gloves are worn. 4. One recommendation to prevent latex allergy is to Wash hands with mild soap after removing gloves and then dry the hands thoroughly. 5. Which patient position is useful for auscultating heart tones? Left lateral recumbent 6. Which technique is used during the history taking and the physical examination process? Inspection 7. Which examination technique should be used first? Inspection 8. The use of secondary, tangential lighting is most helpful in the detection of Variations in contour of the body surface. 9. A nonambulatory 80-year-old male patient tells the female nurse that he feels like he is having drainage from his rectum. Which initial nursing action is appropriate? Drape the patient and observe the rectal area. 10. You are conducting a head to toe examination as part of a patient's preventive health assessment. The room has adequate lighting, and you have access to both sides of the examining table. What position should you assume while conducting this examination? To the right side of the patient 11. Which part of the examiner's hand is best for palpating vibration? Ulnar surface and base of the fingers 12. The dorsal surface of the hand is most often used for the assessment of Temperature. 13. When conducting the abdominal examination, after you inspect, you proceed next to Auscultation. 14. Expected normal percussion tones include Tympany over an empty stomach. 15. When percussing, a dull tone is expected to be heard over The liver. 16. During percussion, the downward snap of the striking fingers should originate from the Wrist. 17. Which technique is commonly used to elicit tenderness arising from the liver, gallbladder, or kidneys? Fist percussion 18. During auscultation, you can limit your perceptual field best by Closing your eyes. 19. You are auscultating a patient's chest. The sounds are not clear, and you are having difficulty distinguishing between respirations and heartbeats. What technique can you use to facilitate your assessment? Isolate each cycle segment. 20. When examining the abdomen, which technique should be used first? Inspection [Show Less]
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Walden University NURS 6512N WEEK 2 QUIZ 2 – Questions and Answers
Walden University NURS 6512N WEEK 2 QUIZ 2 – Questions and Answers NURS 6512N Walden University NURS 6512N WEEK 2 QUIZ 2 – Questions and Answers (G... [Show More] raded A) Question 1 2 out of 2 points When percussing, a dull tone is expected to be heard over: Response Feedback: Dull tones are expected over more dense areas such as the liver. Question 2 2 out of 2 points The dorsal surface of the hand is most often used for the assessment of: Response Feedback: The dorsal surface, or back of the hand, can best feel for warmth. Question 3 2 out of 2 points A patient in the emergency department has a concussion to the head. You suspect the patient may also have a retinal hemorrhage. You are using the ophthalmoscope to examine the retina of this patient. Which aperture of the ophthalmoscope is most appropriate for this patient? Response Feedback: The red-free filter permits recognition of hemorrhages. The grid estimates the size of lesions; the slit lamp examines the anterior eye and assesses the elevation of lesions; and the small aperture is used with small pupils. The strabismoscope is used for detecting strabismus. Question 4 2 out of 2 points The use of secondary, tangential lighting is most helpful in the detection of: Response Feedback: Tangential lighting is used to cast shadows in order to best observe contours and variations in body surfaces. All of the other choices are best observed with direct lighting that does not cast shadows. Question 5 2 out of 2 points Tuning forks with a frequency of 500 to 1000 Hz are most commonly used to measure: Response Feedback: Normal speech has a range of 300 to 3000 Hz; therefore, the 500- to 1000-Hz fork is most often used because it can estimate hearing loss in the range of normal speech. Question 6 2 out of 2 points Which patient is at the highest risk for the development of latex allergy? Response Feedback: The patient who has had multiple procedures or surgeries has a higher exposure rate to rubber gloves and to equipment and supplies that contain latex and therefore is at a higher risk for developing an allergic response. Question 7 2 out of 2 points A variant of the percussion hammer is the neurologic hammer, which is equipped with which of the following? Response Feedback: The neurologic hammer unscrews at the handle to reveal a soft brush and the knob on the head unscrews, to which is attached a sharp needle. Question 8 2 out of 2 points Transillumination functions on the principle that: Response Feedback: Transillumination functions to differentiate between various media in a cavity. It can distinguish between air, fluid, and tissue. It consists of a strong light in the visible spectrum with a narrow beam. Question 9 2 out of 2 points Which statement is true regarding the relationship of physical characteristics and culture? Response Feedback: Physical characteristics do not symbolize cultural groups; there is a difference between the two, and they are considered separately. Cultures are dynamic in their evolution. Question 10 2 out of 2 points A scale used to assess patients weight should be calibrated: Response Feedback: Obtaining weight begins with a manual calibration of the scale before the patient stands on the scale. Electronic scales are automatically calibrated before each reading. Question 11 2 out of 2 points Which technique is commonly used to elicit tenderness arising from the liver, gallbladder, or kidneys? Response Feedback: The fist percussion is a direct percussion technique used to elicit tenderness over organs such as the liver, gallbladder, or kidneys. Question 12 2 out of 2 points A rubber or plastic ring should be around the bell end-piece of a stethoscope to: Response Feedback: The ring around the bell portion of the stethoscope functions to secure contact with body surfaces when placed lightly on the skin. Question 13 2 out of 2 points In terms of cultural communication differences, Americans are more likely to _____ than are other groups of patients. Response Feedback: In the United States, individuals are very direct in conversation and come to the point quickly. They also tend to talk more loudly and to worry less about being overheard. Question 14 2 out of 2 points For a woman with a small vaginal opening, the examiner should use a _____ speculum. Response Feedback: The Pederson speculum has blades that are as long as those of the Graves speculum but are both narrower and flatter and therefore more comfortable for women with small vaginal openings. Pediatric or nasal speculums would be too small for adult use. Plastic speculums are similar in uses to the metal counterparts. Question 15 2 out of 2 points During percussion, the downward snap of the striking fingers should originate from the: Response Feedback: The dominant hand s middle finger strikes the stationary finger with a wrist motion and is lifted quickly off the striking surface. Question 16 2 out of 2 points You are auscultating a patient s chest. The sounds are not clear, and you are having difficulty distinguishing between respirations and heartbeats. What technique can you use to facilitate your assessment? Response Feedback: If you are hearing everything at once, it is more difficult to distinguish different sounds. Try isolating each segment and listen to that segment intently, then move on to another segment. For example, listen only to breath sounds, then only to inspiratory breath sounds, then only expiratory breath sounds. Question 17 2 out of 2 points Expected normal percussion tones include: Response Feedback: A normal lung produces resonance percussion tones while an empty stomach is expected to produce tympany. Dull percussion tones are heard over the liver. Question 18 2 out of 2 points During auscultation, you can limit your perceptual field best by: Response Feedback: By closing your eyes, your sense of hearing becomes more acute and it increases your ability to isolate sounds. Question 19 2 out of 2 points Standard Precautions apply to all patients: Response Feedback: Although all of the statements are true, the best answer is 4. Standard Precautions were developed with the intent of application in the care of all hospitalized patients; however, the standard has merit to be applied to all cases of patient care regardless of the environment in which care is delivered. Question 20 2 out of 2 points Which of the following describes a physical, not a cultural, differentiator? Response Feedback: Race is a physical, not a cultural, differentiator. [Show Less]
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