PSYC101 / PSYC 101 Module 5 – General
Psychology (Latest 2026/2027 Update) |
Verified Questions & Correct Answers |
Grade A | Portage Learning
2026
...
/ 2027 Academic Year
Q: Which of the following phrases describes the different mental states of students in your
class, whether it be drowsy, full of energy, or somewhere in-between?
A. Preconscious awareness
B. Content awareness
C. State of awareness
D. Stream of consciousness
C. State of awareness
Q: Corrina finds a quiet cubicle at the library and prepares for a long night of studying.
While she studies, she is also aware of the conversation taking place at the next table. What
aspect of consciousness describes Corrina's awareness of both her textbook material and
the other conversation?
A. Preconscious awareness
B. State of awareness
C. Stream of consciousness
D. Content of awareness
D. Content of awareness
Q: From an evolutionary perspective, why is the conscious awareness of ongoing
sensations advantageous for animals?
A. It enables animals to have a sense of mortality and a strong will to pass on their genes.
B. It provides the opportunity to choose responses rather than to respond instinctively.
C. It allows animals to respond instinctively to oncoming threats.
D. It facilitates the development of complex motor and sensory control.
B. It provides the opportunity to choose responses rather than to respond instinctively.
Q: Consciousness requires complex interactions between the cerebral cortex and the
____.
A. hippocampus
B. thalamus
C. amygdala
D. midbrain
B. thalamus
Q: What brain structure is responsible for raising or lowering the thresholds of conscious
awareness?
A. Reticular formation
B. Medial parietal cortex
C. Substantia nigra
D. Corpus callosum
A. Reticular formation
Q: Which of the following is a correct statement about the default mode network (DMN)
in the brain?
A. It focuses the brain on detailed tasks.
B. It maintains unconscious activity that prepares the brain for conscious thought.
C. It maintains a consistent source of energy usage in the brain.
D. It lights up the brain so that you make fewer mistakes.
B. It maintains unconscious activity that prepares the brain for conscious thought.
Q: Tasha runs a day care center. She places birthday hats on a group of children to
celebrate 1-year-old Chantal's birthday. Tasha notices that when Chantal passes by a mirror
she grabs for the hat by reaching for the mirror instead of reaching for her own head. Tasha
picks up the baby and helps her find her hat. What aspect of consciousness has Chantal not
yet reached?
A. Meta-cognition
B. Reflective awareness
C. Awareness of sensation
D. Self-awareness
D. Self-awareness
Q: Being conscious means to know or be aware of _____, both internally and in the
world around us.
A. things that have happened in the past
B. possible future paths
C. completed activities
D. ongoing experiences
D. ongoing experiences
Q: Some researchers restrict the possibility of self-aware consciousness to species that
____.
A. show strong individualism
B. demonstrate cognitive complexity
C. are at the top of the food chain
D. exhibit complex social behavior
D. exhibit complex social behavior
Q: Which of the following is a possible explanation for why animals have evolved to have
various states of alertness?
A. Sleep keeps animals from being at risk for attack.
B. Sleep allows animals to respond instinctively.
C. Sleep enables animals to specialize in daytime or nighttime activity.
D. Sleep allows animals to repair their bodies and conserve energy.
D. Sleep allows animals to repair their bodies and conserve energy.
Q: Activity in the ________ of the brain corresponds to mind wandering, thinking about
the self, and preparing for conscious thought.
A. reticular activating system (RAS)
B. behavioral inhibition system (BIS)
C. prefrontal cortex (PFC)
D. default mode network (DMN)
D. default mode network (DMN)
Q: Among the brain structures that are believed to participate in consciousness are the
cerebral cortex, thalamus, and _____.
A. occipital lobe
B. prefrontal cortex
C. reticular formation
D. hippocampus
C. reticular formation
Q: An animal's light-dark cycle, which for humans is 24 hours, is otherwise known as its
_____.
A. circadian rhythm
B. cerebrodynamic cycle
C. chronometric temperance
D. contrast arousal
A. circadian rhythm
Q: Kendyl was born with a congenital disorder that prevents her eyes from sensing light;
her fraternal twin brother, Gabe, was born with normal vision. Compared with Gabe,
Kendyl will likely have ____.
A. the same circadian cycle
B. a shorter circadian cycle
C. a longer circadian cycle
D. no circadian cycle
C. a longer circadian cycle
Q: Patti finds her husband, Derek, asleep in his recliner. She gently touches his shoulder
and says, "Derek, wake up; the dog needs to go out." Derek abruptly responds, "Patti, I am
awake!" Derek was most likely in ____.
A. Stage 1 N-REM sleep
B. Stage 2 N-REM sleep
C. Stage 3 or 4 N-REM sleep
D. REM sleep
A. Stage 1 N-REM sleep
Q: Which of these would be characteristic of someone in Stage 4 N-REM sleep?
A. Brain activity similar to that of an awake person but with the external appearance of deep
sleep
B. Deep sleep with disorientation before waking
C. An EEG similar to a drowsy, waking person
D. Sleeping through familiar stimuli but waking to unexpected stimuli
B. Deep sleep with disorientation before waking
Q: Study participants who were selectively deprived of Stages 3 and 4 N-REM sleep
PSYC101 / PSYC 101 Module 6 – General
Psychology (Latest 2026/2027 Update) |
Verified Questions & Correct Answers |
Grade A | Portage Learning
2026
...
/ 2027 Academic Year
Q: In a classical conditioning experiment, a dog that has been trained to salivate to a tone will
no longer do so if food is never presented just before the tone. This is an example of:
Answer
extinction
Q: In classical conditioning, if a dog is trained to salivate to a high-pitched tone can also
salivate to a tone with a lower pitch, this is an example of (two words):
Answer
stimulus generalization
Q: In a classical conditioning study, a dog knows to salivate to food. This dog then hears a
tone, is given food, and then eventually learns to salivate to the tone alone. In this study, the
salivation when seeing food is the (two words):
Answer
unconditioned response
Q: Sometimes an animal or person who does not initially get a reward for exploring
something new will learn better than a person or animal who gets a reward on the first day.
Answer
It is as if the animal or person who did not get the reward is forming a better mental (or
cognitive) map. This is an example of (two words):
latent learning
Q: The relatively permanent change in behavior knowledge, capability or attitude
acquired through experience is called:
Answer
learning
Q: The type of response a behavior gets will determine whether the same response will be
strengthened in the future and behaviors followed by something uncomfortable will be less
likely to occur. For example, a cat that learns that pressing a switch will allow it to escape a
maze, will be more likely to press that switch in the future. This is known as the (three
words):
Answer
law of effect
Q: One kind of learning occurs when a stimulus (a knock on the door) occurs before a
second stimulus (the appearance of a good friend) which then causes a behavior (smiling).
Eventually, the second stimulus is not needed, and the first (a knock on the door) will cause
the behavior (smiling). This kind of learning is called (two words)
Answer
classical conditioning
Q: In operant conditioning, a behavior that removes something pleasant is less likely to be
repeated. For example, a teenager stops coming home late because the teenager does not
want to lose her or his privileges. This is an example of (two words):
Answer
negative punishment
Q: To teach an animal to do a complex trick, the researcher using operant conditioning
rewards each action the animal does that is partly in the direction desired by the researcher.
For example, if a researcher wants a mouse to climb a ladder, the researcher may first
reward the rat for just touching the ladder. Then later, reward the rat for putting its paw on
the next highest rung of the ladder. This is an example of:
Answer
shaping
Q: In operant conditioning, a behavior that removes something unpleasant is more likely
to be repeated. For example, a young person is more likely to clean up his or her room to
avoid the unpleasant consequence of getting nagged by his or her parents. This is an
example of (two words):
Answer
negative reinforcement
Q: Learning by watching how others are rewarded or punished (such as learning a new
behavior by watching TV characters) is called (two words):
Answer
observational learning
Q: The foundation of all learning is the ability to connect two very different sensations or
perceptions together in the mind. (i.e., putting the sound of a dog together with the image
of a dog). This foundation is called (two words):
Answer
associative learning
Q: Changes in behavior that seem to be based on biological makeup, which are triggered
by changes in the time or year (e.g., some animals migrate in winter) or aging (some
animals have a critical period in which they will bond to their mother) is called:
Answer
instinct
Q: In operant conditioning, some things will increase the likelihood of a behavior. For
example, if a pigeon presses a button, it gets a bit of food, which makes it more likely to
press the button in the future. Adding a consequence, such as food, that increases a
behavior is called:
Answer
reinforcement
Q: In a classical conditioning study, a dog knows to salivate to food. This dog then hears a
tone, is given food, and then eventually learns to salivate to the tone alone. In this study, the
food is the (two words):
Answer
unconditioned stimulus
Q: The type of learning that increases or decreases a behavior using reinforcers or
punishers is called (two words):
Answer
operant conditioning
Q: In operant conditioning, a behavior that creates a pleasant outcome is more likely to be
repeated. For example, a young person is more to study hard for an exam, if the first time
that person studied hard that person got an A on the first exam. This is an example of (two
words):
Answer
positive reinforcement
Q: What is the primary symptom of delusional disorder?
Answer
The presence of deeply held false beliefs
Q: A person who is a victim of a violent crime would most likely experience which of the
following?
Answer
Trauma
Q: In the Middle Ages, treatments for mental illness in Europe focused on
Answer
Demonology
Q: Which one of the following best refers to a significant impairment in psychological
functioning?
Answer
Mental disorder
Q: A person who regularly visited the practitioner of the first psychological technique
designed to promote positive changes in his or her behavior would be a client of
Answer
Sigmund Freud
Q: Unlike psychoanalysts, behavior therapists believe that:
Answer
Deep insight into one's problems is often unnecessary for improvement
Q: An individual hears voices in his head that instruct him to hurt himself. Which of the
PSYC101 / PSYC 101 Module 7 – General
Psychology (Latest 2026/2027 Update) |
Verified Questions & Correct Answers |
Grade A | Portage Learning
2026
...
/ 2027 Academic Year
Q: What is memory?
A. The ability to retain knowledge
B. The ability to pay attention during an event
C. The ability to learn from environmental stimuli
D. The transformation of information from one form to another
A. The ability to retain knowledge
Q: The three steps of memory are encoding, storage, and _____.
A. translation
B. cueing
C. processing
D. retrieval
D. retrieval
Q: Encoding is the process of acquiring information and _____ it into memory.
A. recovering
B. transferring
C. retrieving
D. salvaging
B. transferring
Q: Like other adaptations, forming memories requires _____.
A. knowledge of the process
B. energy
C. skill
D. intelligence
B. energy
Q: _____ refers to the process of acquiring information and transferring it into memory.
A.Storage
B. Retrieval
C. Information processing
D. Encoding
D. Encoding
Q: Two of the most common causes of retrieval failure are interference and _____.
A. sensations
B. semantics
C. stress
D. cues
C. stress
Q: _____ refers to the process of keeping information in the brain for future reconstruction.
A. Encoding
B. Storage
C. Information processing
D. Retrieval
B. Storage
Q: _____ refers to the process of finding memories or reconstructing the details that make
up a memory.
A. Storage
B. Information processing
C. Retrieval
D. Encoding
C. Retrieval
Q: What is the main evolutionary benefit of memory?
A. It gives animals the ability to react to each predator as a new experience.
B. It provides animals with a way to connect more deeply with one another.
C. It allows animals to communicate better.
D. It allows animals to use information from the past to respond quickly to immediate
challenges.
D. It allows animals to use information from the past to respond quickly to immediate
challenges.
Q: Memory's benefits to survival are shown in the fact that nearly all animals are able to form
memories despite ____.
A. the high energy costs
B. their inability to recall the memories easily
C. the social pressure against it
D. the time it takes to form the memories
A. the high energy costs
Q: According to the Atkinson and Shiffrin model of memory, information flows through three
stages. What is the correct flow of information in this model?
A. Sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory
B. Sensory input, short-term memory, and long-term rehearsal
C. Sensory memory, short-term rehearsal, and long-term memory
D. Short-term memory, working memory, and long-term memory
A. Sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-term memory
Q: ____ codes are used to process touch and other body senses.
A. Acoustic
B. Haptic
C. Echoic
D. Visual
B. Haptic
Q: The ability to remember seven numbers plus or minus two was first identified by
psychologist ____.
A. Richard Atkinson
B. George Sperling
C. George Miller
D. Alan Baddeley
C. George Miller
Q: Which of the following is an adaptation of the short-term memory model that involves the
active manipulation of multiple types of information simultaneously?
A. Declarative memory
B. Restorative memory
C. Working memory
D. Autobiographical memory
C. Working memory
Q: _____ rehearsal is simple repetition of the material.
A. Introspective
B. Maintenance
C. Elaborative
D. Functional
B. Maintenance
Q: Superior recall for the first items on a list is known as the ____.
A. primacy effect
B. nondeclarative effect
C. declarative effect
D. recency effect
A. primacy effect
Q: The first stage of the Atkinson-Shiffrin model involves the retention of large amounts of
incoming data for very brief amounts of time. This is called ____.
A. short-term memory
B. sensory memory
C. explicit memory
D. declarative memory
B. sensory memory
Q: The ability to remember seven numbers plus or minus two refers to the ____.
A. capacity of semantic memory
B. duration of semantic memory
C. duration of short-term memory
D. capacity of short-term memory
D. capacity of short-term memory
Q: Carlos asks Laura to write down her phone number and e-mail address. He promptly loses
the slip of paper. However, he finds that he stills remembers them both. This is possible
because ____.
A. working memory processes information as visuospatial memories
B. of the nature of rehearsal within working memory
C. working memory can manage more than one type of information at a time
D. of the passive nature of storage involved with working memory
C. working memory can manage more than one type of information at a time
Q: Long-term memory is characterized by ____.
A. limited duration and unlimited capacity
B. limited duration and limited capacity
C. unlimited duration and limited capacity
D. unlimited duration and unlimited capacity
D. unlimited duration and unlimited capacity
Q: In most cases, information moves from short-term or working memory to long-term
memory through ____.
A. mnemonics
B. the method of loci
C. chunking
D. rehearsal
D. rehearsal
Q: A graph of the serial position effect, where the likelihood that an item will be recalled is
plotted as a function of the item's position in a list during presentation, takes the shape of a
____.
A. line that begins at a high level and slopes downward to the right
B. U-shaped curve
C. line that begins at a low level and slopes upward to the right
D. J-shaped curve
B. U-shaped curve
Q: Declarative memories are consciously retrieved memories that are easy to verbalize and
include ____.
A. semantic, episodic, and autobiographical information
B. semantic, procedural, and autobiographical memories
C. explicit and implicit memories
D. nondeclarative and implicit aspects
A. semantic, episodic, and autobiographical information
Q: ____ memory is organized like a timeline.
A. Episodic
B. Semantic
C. Classical
D. Nondeclarative
A. Episodic
Q: Priming is a change in a response to a stimulus as a result of exposure to a ____.
A. stimulus below the objective threshold
B. subliminal message
C. stimulus above the subjective threshold
D. previous stimulus
D. previous stimulus
Q: Scientists have discovered correlations between activity in parts of the human brain and
specific components of long-term memory through the observation of ____.
A. patients with brain damage and brain-imaging studies in healthy participants
B. infants
C. pigeons and rats, both of whom were born with only half of their cerebral cortex
D. taxicab drivers in London, Chicago, and New York
A. patients with brain damage and brain-imaging studies in healthy participants
Q: Within the category of declarative memories, far more is known about _______
organization than other types of organization.
A. episodic
B. procedural
C. explicit
D. semantic
D. semantic
Q: A cue is ____.
A. any stimulus that helps you access target information
B. a memory aid that links new information to well-known information
C. the transformation of information from one form to another
D. the process of grouping similar or meaningful information together
A. any stimulus that helps you access target information
Q: A declarative memory that is accessed in a conscious, direct, and effortful manner is also
called ____.
A. an explicit memory
B. a personal history memory
C. an implicit memory
D. a procedural memory
A. an explicit memory
Q: Professor Sevilla asks one of his graduate students, Leland, to finish his class lecture on
memory. Leland begins by explaining that nondeclarative memories (1) are unconsciously and
effortlessly retrieved memories; (2) are easy to verbalize; (3) include memories for classical
conditioning, procedural learning, and priming; and (4) are also known as implicit memories.
Which part of his definition is inaccurate?
A. Nondeclarative memories are unconsciously and effortlessly retrieved.
B. Nondeclarative memories include memories for classical conditioning, procedural learning,
and priming.
C. Nondeclarative memories are easy to verbalize.
D. Nondeclarative memories are also known as implicit memories.
C. Nondeclarative memories are easy to verbalize.
Q: Alex is starting his day. Which of the following represents a procedural memory?
A. He reminds himself to pack a lunch for work.
B. He brushes his teeth.
C. He forgets his keys.
D. He grimaces at the sound of the alarm clock.
B. He brushes his teeth.
Q: The hippocampus ____.
A. serves as a storage location for long-term memories
B. participates in the consolidation of information into long-term memory
C. is unrelated to the formation of spatial memories
D. plays a role in procedural memory
B. participates in the consolidation of information into long-term memory
Q: What theory views the mind as an interconnected network made up of simpler units?
A. Constructivist theory
B. Connectionist theory
C. Correlational theory
D. Computational theory
B. Connectionist theory
Q: Recognition tasks are easier than recall tasks because ____.
A. they provide fewer cues
B. they are based on personal experience
C. they provide more cues
D. they provide widely accepted cues
C. they provide more cues
Q: Marietta has memorized the capital cities of all 50 states. This is an example of ____
memory.
A. episodic
B. autobiographical
C. procedural
D. semantic
D. semantic
An implicit memory for how to carry out a motor skill or action is called ____.
A. eidetic memory
B. retrograde memory
C. declarative memory
D. procedural memory
D. procedural memory
Procedural memories are easy to describe in words.
A. true
B. false
B. false
Episodic memories are affected by damage to the ____.
A. amygdala
B. prefrontal cortex
C. visual cortex
D. basal ganglia
B. prefrontal cortex
The spreading activation model proposes that people organize general knowledge based on
____.
A. existing cultural norms
B. predetermined hierarchies
C. semantic similarities
D. their personal experiences
D. their personal experiences
Roger is preparing for his final exam in bioethics. In terms of memory retrieval, the most
difficult type of exam question will most likely be ____.
A. matching
B. multiple choice
C. essay
D. true-false
C. essay
The reduction in the ability to retrieve rarely used information over time is called ____.
A. decay
B. forgetting
C. interference
D. motivated forgetting
A. decay
Mr. Langley's former high school Latin students are holding a 25-year reunion. He surprises
them with a vocabulary game show quiz. His students most likely ____.
A. have retained much of the vocabulary they knew in high school
B. remembered about 35% of the vocabulary
C. have forgotten much of what they knew due to the passage of time
D. found that they could not remember a thing
A. have retained much of the vocabulary they knew in high school
Which of the following is the best description of interference?
A. The reduction in the ability to retrieve rarely used information over time
B. A failure to retrieve negative or traumatic memories
C. Competition between newer and older information in memory
D. A decrease in the ability to remember a previously formed memory
C. Competition between newer and older information in memory
Who was part of a team that demonstrated persistent changes in the strength of synapses
responsible for several types of learning in sea slugs?
A. Henry Molaison
B. Frederic Bartlett
C. Eric Kandel
D. Elizabeth Loftus
C. Eric Kandel
Research has shown that _____ plays an important role in the consolidation of memories.
A. lack of interference
B. sleep
C. age
D. intelligence
B. sleep
Which of these statements about long term memory is NOT true?
A. Older people are less able to add new information to their long-term memories than younger
people are.
B. Thinking about the meaning of a word helps you remember better than thinking about how
a word looks visually (e.g., size, font).
C. Telling someone else about an experience strengthens your ability to recall the experience
later.
D. There is no limit to how much long-term memory we have.
A. Older people are less able to add new information to their long-term memories than younger
people are.
fMRIs have shown that prefrontal areas of the brain appear to actively ____ memories that are
used less frequently.
A. suppress
B. encode
C. adapt to
D. retrieve
A. suppress
Kevin is legally required to send a quarterly check to his former wife, whom he divorced 20
years ago. It annoys him greatly, and he finds that he often forgets until several days after the
due date. This is likely an example of ____.
A. motivated forgetting
B. retroactive interference
C. repressed memory
D. suppressed memory
A. motivated forgetting
The effect of our motivations on our retrieval of memories ____.
A. is primarily one of mild distortion, like a ripple in a pond
B. has not been substantiated by research studies
C. can exist but is unlikely to affect current attitudes or actions
D. can lead to distortion so that the original information is hardly recognizable
D. can lead to distortion so that the original information is hardly recognizable
Learning changes neural structure in that neurons have _____ axon terminals following
sensitization.
A. simpler
B. charged
C. habituated
D. larger numbers of
D. larger numbers of
Most types of memories appear stronger after _____.
A. eating
B. hearing classical music
C. sleep
D. sex
C. sleep
Aaron is studying for his sensation and perception exam by explaining terms and concepts to
his friend Catherine in his own words and providing self-referential examples. This is called
____.
A. recitation
B. mnemonics
C. the method of loci
D. distributive practice
A. recitation
A classic method of measuring the retention of material in long-term memory over time is to
____.
A. test and retest regarding the same material at regular intervals
B. conduct MRI scans of the brain at annual or biennial intervals
C. compare the rate of learning material the first time to the rate of learning the same material
a second time
D. measure levels of cortisol, noradrenaline, and other hormones
C. compare the rate of learning material the first time to the rate of learning the same material
a second time
_____ is a confusion between imagined and true memories.
A. Confabulation
B. Recitation
C. Habituation
D. Repression
A. Confabulation
_____ enhances communication between two neurons.
A. Synchronous activation
B. Biochemistry
C. Long-term potentiation
D. Short-term potentiation
C. Long-term potentiation
It is thought that sleep-related processing helps to reorganize existing memories to
PSYC101 / PSYC 101 Module 8 – General
Psychology (Latest 2026/2027 Update) |
Verified Questions & Correct Answers |
Grade A | Portage Learning
2026
...
/ 2027 Academic Year
Q: Which process best illustrates the effect of development stages on the interaction between
instinct and learning?
A
Conditioning
B
Imprinting
C
Facilitating
D
Engulfing
B) Imprinting
Q: Which process gives organisms the flexibility to survive in a changing world?
A
Learning
B
Reflexes
C
Instincts
D
Variable action patterns
A) Learning
Q: Which of the following is a primary advantage of observational learning?
A
It creates imprinting in human beings and lower animal species.
B
It provides rapid adaptation to situations beyond our control.
C
It transmits information across generations within families and cultures.
D
It synchronizes behaviors, particularly between two unacquainted individuals.
C) It transmits information across generations within families and cultures.
Q: Sleeping better the second night in a hotel than the first night after adjusting to the
environment is an example of ____.
A
sensitization
B
operant conditioning
C
habituation
D
classical conditioning
C) habituation
Q: A reaction to a given stimulus that requires no previous experience is referred to as
____.
A
a conditioned response
B
an uncharacteristic response
C
an unconditioned response
D
a characteristic response
C) an unconditioned response
Q: What mechanism is responsible for the process of extinction?
A
The previously formed association is forgotten.
B
Spontaneous recovery replaces the association.
C
New learning overrides old learning.
D
An aversion is formed in response to the association.
C) New learning overrides old learning.
Q: When Roxie was a puppy, she would jump excitedly on anyone who entered the house,
receiving praise for her actions. Now that Roxie weighs 65 lb, Roxie's owner has asked
everyone who enters the house to ignore the dog until she settles down. This scenario
illustrates the use of ____.
A
discrimination
B
latent inhibition
C
extinction
D
generalization
C) extinction
Q: The tendency to respond to stimuli that are similar to an original conditioned stimulus
is called ____.
A
aggregation
B
generalization
C
sensitization
D
habituation
B) generalization
C
The rats enjoyed the bright noisy stimulus enough to tolerate their illness.
Q: In Garcia and Koelling's taste-aversion study, why were the rats unable to associate a
bright noisy stimulus with feeling ill?
A
The rats were so distracted or frightened by the bright noisy stimulus that they did not
notice they were ill.
B
The rats relied more on taste and smell than on vision and hearing to identify food.
D
The rats lacked the cognitive ability to do so.
B) The rats relied more on taste and smell than on vision and hearing to identify food.
Q: Psychologist Dr. Martinez uses systematic desensitization to help his client Catherine
address her extreme fear of heights. What technique is Dr. Martinez likely to use?
A
Dr. Martinez and Catherine repeatedly visit a scenic viewpoint at the top of a hill. They have
a pleasant picnic there, gradually moving to picnic tables that are closer to the top of the
hill.
B
Each week, Dr. Martinez and Catherine take an elevator to the 50th floor of his office
building and go outside on the observation deck. They stand there in silence while she
internally works through her fear.
C
Each week, Dr. Martinez and Catherine take an elevator to the 50th floor of his office
building and go outside on the observation deck. They stand close to the edge while he
reassures her that everything will be all right.
D
Dr. Martinez teaches Catherine relaxation techniques then gradually, through guided
imagery, asks her to imagine herself in a high place. If she starts to feel anxious, they
temporarily return to the relaxation techniques.
D)
Q: What is a key distinction between classical conditioning and operant conditioning?
A
Operant conditioning makes associations between two stimuli; classical conditioning
associates a behavior with its consequence.
B
In contrast to classical conditioning, operant conditioning leads to a relatively permanent
behavioral change.
C
In contrast to operant conditioning, classical conditioning leads to a relatively permanent
behavioral change.
C
positive punishment
D
Classical conditioning makes associations between two stimuli; operant conditioning
associates a behavior with its consequence.
D) Classical conditioning makes associations between two stimuli; operant conditioning
associates a behavior with its consequence.
Q: The method for increasing behaviors that allow an organism to escape or avoid an
unpleasant consequence is referred to as ____.
A
negative punishment
B
positive reinforcement
D
negative reinforcement
D) negative reinforcement
Q: A schedule of partial reinforcement in which the first response after a specified period
of time will be reinforced is called a ____ schedule.
A
fixed ratio
B
concrete interval
C
concrete ratio
D
fixed interval
D) fixed interval
C
an arbitrary ratio
A schedule of partial reinforcement in which reinforcement occurs after a fluctuating
number of behaviors is called ____ schedule.
A
an arbitrary interval
B
a variable ratio
D
a variable interval
B) a variable ratio
The Brelands concluded that animals' strong instinctive behaviors predominated over
behaviors that had been conditioned, which they described as ____.
A
behavioral reversion
B
the self-intrinsic effect
C
instinctive drift
D
inconclusive conditioning
C) instinctive drift
The key to an effective token economy is to offer ultimate rewards that are valuable to the
people you wish to motivate.
A
true
B
false
A) true
What did the children in Bandura's study on aggression do after they observed adults
hitting a doll, then being reprimanded?
A
The children showed fear of the doll.
B
The children hugged the doll to show empathy.
C
The children hit the doll themselves.
D
The children avoided the doll to avoid being reprimanded.
C) The children hit the doll themselves.
Either past or anticipated ____ encourages us to model another person's behavior.
PSYC101 / PSYC 101 Module 9 – General
Psychology (Latest 2026/2027 Update) |
Verified Questions & Correct Answers |
Grade A | Portage Learning
2026
...
/ 2027 Academic Year
Q: When we use the term "remembering" in day-to-day life, we are making reference to the
memory process of:
a. retrieval.
b. storage.
c. rehearsal.
d. encoding
a. retrieval.
Q: If new experiences disrupt recall of old experiences, this is referred to as:
retroactive interference
retrieval failure
cue overload
proactive interference
retroactive interference
Q: Estelle has fond memories for the night her husband proposed to her. This memory
probably involves not only her hippocampus but also her:
a. cerebellum
b. amygdala
c. hypothalamus
d. thalamus
b. amygdala
Q: When you tell your roommate about what happened on the way to class, that
information is retrieved from _____ memory.
a. episodic
b. sensory
c. working
d. semantic
a. episodic
Q: Conrad took a unit quiz for his psychology class, but he only took it once, although he
could take it multiple times. As a result he didn't see all the questions that were available in
the quiz-bank. When he eventually studied for that unit exam, he only studied the
information that was on the quiz that he had taken earlier. As a result he missed a number
of questions. This phenomena is called:
testing effect
cue overload
retrieval inhibition
implicit knowledge
retrieval inhibition
Q: Vera and Xavier are both eyewitnesses to a robbery at a convenience store. The police
ask them to come to the station to get their versions of the event. According to research,
what would be most likely to decrease the accuracy of Vera and Xavier's recounting of the
crime?
a. Vera and Xavier are offered a bottle of water or coffee while they are being questioned.
b. Vera and Xavier are questioned by the detectives separately.
c. Vera and Xavier are left in the witness room alone together for 20 minutes and they
discuss what they saw.
d. The police ask Vera and Xavier to describe the "facial features" of the person who
committed the crime.
c.
Vera and Xavier are left in the witness room alone together for 20 minutes and they discuss
what they saw.
Q: Your _____ memory helps you recall what happened to you during your first day of
college.
a. autobiographical
b. semantic
c. flashbulb
d. implicit
a. autobiographical
Q: Some people have amazing and elaborate memory processes that allow them to
remember a large amount of information in a short amount of time. Often, these
individuals are said to use ______, or elaborate scenes with discrete places, to help them
encode and recall information at a rapid rate.
the specificity principle
peg words
retroactive cues
memory palaces
memory palaces
Q: Ilana is trying to remember a set of dates for her history class. While she practices the
dates, she makes up rhymes and stories to go with them. This method of improving her
memory by adding to the information she is trying to remember while practicing it is called
a. elaborative rehearsal
b. constructive processing
c. associational networking
d. rote repetition
a. elaborative rehearsal
Q: "What's your ID number?" the associate asks over the phone. "Seven, six, four . . ." you
begin. After a brief pause, you continue, "seventy-two . . . sixteen thirty-eight." To ease the
burden on the associate's short-term memory, you are giving the number in ______ rather
than as individual digits.
a.
clusters
b.
clumps
c.
nuggets
d.
chunks
d.
chunks
Q: In a study, researchers asked one group of participants to watch a video about two
friends in an unpleasant argument. They asked another group of participants to watch the
same video, but told participants that it was a video of two friends enjoying a lively
discussion. Afterwards, the researchers notice that participants who were told the
discussion was an argument were more likely to falsely report that the people in the video
were yelling, frowning, and getting angry. This is an example of:
a.
misinformation effect
b.
cue overload
c.
source amnesia
d.
misattribution effect
a.
misinformation effect
Q: Which of the following students should retrieve information more successfully on
classroom exams based on studies of recoding strategies?
Irene, who attempts to relate her notes to information she already knows.
Grant, who repeats his notes to himself, trying to memorize them.
Grant and Irene should retrieve information equally well on exams.
Susan, who highlights important information in her notes and the text.
Irene, who attempts to relate her notes to information she already knows.
Q: Levi met a cute girl walking from class. The girl gave him her number and he is trying
to remember the digits until he can write it down. Levi is using what type of memory to
remember the girl's phone number?
collective
semantic
episodic
working memory
working memory
Q: Your drive to class each day is fairly standard - you start your car, take the same route,
and park in the same spot (or close to the same spot). One day, while sitting at a red light,
you witness a car chase - cops and even a helicopter. Years later, you can recall details from
that drive. Which memory concept is associated with why you will remember that particular
drive to class?
distinctiveness
misinformation effect
retroactive interference
constructive processing
distinctiveness
Q: Research on flashbulb memories indicates that
a. the details of these memories are very accurate.
b. the details of these memories are not very accurate.
c. the details of these memories are difficult to retrieve.
d. flashbulb memories are difficult to study scientifically.
b. the details of these memories are not very accurate.
Q: The testing effect refers to:
repeated self-testing as a way to enhance retention of information.
the emotional letdown people often experience after taking a test.
losing the majority of the information you learned for the test immediately after the test.
writing a test in the same state that you studied the material should enhance retention.
repeated self-testing as a way to enhance retention of information.
Q: If your episodic long-term memory were disabled, you would be unable to
a. remember details of your own personal life.
b. maintain information in short-term memory via rehearsal.
c. speak, but you could still comprehend language through listening.
d. recall simple facts such as names of presidents.
a. remember details of your own personal life.
Q: When trying to remember a list of words, a person may choose a word to which they
"hang" their memories on. This type of mnemonic device is called the _____ technique.
mnemonic word
peg word
retrieval language
word aid
peg word
Q: The encoding specificity principle is a hypothesis that states:
a retrieval cue will be effective to the extent that information encoded from the cue overlaps
or matches information in the memory trace.
a retrieval cue will NOT be effective to the extent that information encoded from the cue
overlaps or matches information in the memory trace.
a retrieval cue will be effective to the extent that information retrieved from the cue is
distinct or does not match information in memory.
a retrieval cue will be effective to the extent that information encoded from the cue is
distinct or does not match information in the memory trace.
a retrieval cue will be effective to the extent that information encoded from the cue overlaps
or matches information in the memory trace.
Your _____ memory helps you recall what happened to you during your first day of
college.
a. autobiographical
b. flashbulb
c. implicit
d. semantic
a. autobiographical
Thinking about the meaning of the information to be reviewed and trying to form
associations with information already in memory is called _____.
a. echoic memory
b. elaborative rehearsal
c. constructive processing
d. rote repetition
b. elaborative rehearsal
What do clinical psychologists study?
Mental disorders and the treatment of mental disorders.
How do clinical psychologists differ from psychiatrists?
Psychiatrists have medical training and are more likely to operate from that theoretical
perspective. Clinical psychologists would also focus on a variety of psychological and social
causes and treatments other than just biological.
What is the basic problem in depressive disorders?
Depressed mood.
How long must someone experience a depressed mood before being diagnosed with with
major depressive disorder?
Two weeks.
What are the two "poles" of bipolar disorder?
Mania and Depression
What is panic disorder?
Recurrent and unexpected panic attacks.
What is the gender difference in depression rates? Using the bio-psycho-social model,
describe some of the reasons for the gender difference in depression rates.
Gender difference: women are twice as likely to be diagnosed with depression as men.
Reasons: Bio: hormonal differences; psychological: rumination; social: differences in levels
of stress
What is the difference between mania and hypomania?
Mania will be indicated by high energy, racing thoughts, and potentially psychosis.
Hypomania is less extreme and does not have false sensations / ideas.
Define phobia.
Persistent, irrational fear
How can clinicians distinguish between the normal fears people have about performance
situations and social anxiety?
The biggest marker of any disorders is the level to which it interferes with life functioning.
Social anxiety that holds individuals back from performing their jobs or having meaningful
relationships may be problematic and may require treatment to overcome. Also, individuals
who are very isolated and have co-occurring depression may be at risk for additional, severe
problems such as suicide attempts. A final difference is that while many people are afraid of
public speaking, people with social anxiety experience high distress and physical symptoms
in response to everyday life events such as paying for groceries, ordering food at a
restaurant, greeting others, and talking to anyone in authority.
What is the difference between obsessions and compulsions?
Obsessions are repetitive unwanted thoughts, whereas compulsion are repetitive unwanted
behaviors that someone does in response to the thoughts.
What do the "related disorders" in the Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder and Related
Disorders category have in common?
Essentially, they all involve compulsive behaviors. Many of them also include obsessive
thoughts that are tied to the compulsive behaviors.
Describe dissociative identity disorder.
In DID, various personalities take turns holding the person's consciousness, or awareness.
Some personalities may be aware of one another, but others may not be.
What is one explanation of what DID exactly is?
Some possibilities: a fractured ego that is trying too hard to keep unwanted thoughts from
becoming conscious, the individual is acting out learned behaviors, or the individual is a
fraud.
What is a trauma?
A frightening event that you experience or witness.
What are the symptoms of PTSD?
PTSD symptoms fall under four clusters: Re-experiencing the traumatic event, avoidance of
reminders of the event, negatively changed mood and cognitions as a result of the event,
and hyperarousal symptoms.
What are some factors that may make someone more likely to develop PTSD?
Risk factors include prior childhood trauma, family history of PTSD, personal history of
abuse, history of depression and anxiety, lack of support
What is schizophrena? What are typical categories of symptoms?
Schizophrenia is a psychotic disorder involving distortions in thoughts, perceptions, or
PSYC101 / PSYC 101 Module 10 – General
Psychology (Latest 2026/2027 Update) |
Verified Questions & Correct Answers |
Grade A | Portage Learning
202
...
6 / 2027 Academic Year
Q: Reginald was in a coma following a car accident. After the accident, images of his brain
were taken which showed damage to Wernicke's area. How is this damage likely to affect
Reginald's functioning after he awakes from the coma?
(A) He will be unable to produce the full range of phonemes in his language.
(B) He will be unable to walk independently.
(C) It will be difficult for him to produce speech.
(D) He will be unable to meaningfully convey information to others.
(D)
Q: Renee is of average intelligence but finds it difficult to read. Which of the following
most strongly influenced Renee's difficulty?
(A) Genetic factors
(B) Her learning style
(C) How she was taught to read
(D) Environmental factors
(A)
Q: Barbara is participating in an academic competition where teams are tested on their
vocabulary knowledge. In forming her team, Barbara will increase her likelihood of winning
the competition by including who on her team?
(A) Ryan, a 27-year-old college graduate who made dean's list each semester
(B) Cynthia, a 26-year- old student one semester away from completing her (C) Ph.DSelena,
a 24-year- old college dropout with a thriving technology business
(D) Martin, a 16-year- old with straight A's in his classes
(B)
Q: Erin is an anthropologist studying members of a remote tribe located on an isolated
island. She learns that the village members do not verbally speak to one another but instead
appear to communicate by drawing varied sequences of geometric shapes. Which of the
following criteria best determines if this system serves as the tribe's language?
(A) It is used by all members of the tribe.
(B) It cannot be learned by anyone outside of the tribe.
(C) It is used to pass the history of the tribe from one generation to the next.
(D) It is used by only the most senior members of the tribe.
(C)
Q: Paolo was reviewing resumes of prospective new employees and came across a
candidate claiming that she was fluent in seven languages. Should he be skeptical of this
claim?
(A) No, this is possible but only if the languages are from the same world region.
(B) Yes, the candidate is only 22 years old and you need at least five years to learn each
language.
(C) Yes, humans can only be fluent in a maximum of five languages.
(D) No, there have been documented instances of individuals fluent in dozens of languages.
(D)
Q: Charles Spearman posited that generalized intelligence (g) is comprised of
(A) fluid and emotional intelligence.
(B) fluid and crystallized intelligence.
(C) emotional and social intelligence.
(D) crystallized intelligence and specific factors.
(B)
Q: Knowing the heritability of intelligence, you can predict how much of
(A) an individual's intelligence is due to their environment.
(B) an individual's intelligence is due to their genes.
(C) the difference between two people's intelligence is due to differences in their genes.
(D) the differences in intelligence observed across the population is due to genes.
(D)
Q: As part of Sterling's job, he frequently has to ask his boss to approve aspects of his
work. He has learned to approach her for such approvals only when she appears to be in a
positive mood. In this scenario, Sterling is utilizing his
(A) generalized intelligence (g).
(B) emotional intelligence.
(C) fluid intelligence.
(D) collective intelligence.
(B)
Q: Which of the following individuals likely developed their intellectual disability as the
result of an early serious medical illness?
(A) Emily, who has an IQ of 32
(B) Tamra, who has an IQ of 72
(C) Vicki, who has an IQ of 45
(D) Kelly, who has an IQ of 50
(A)
Q: Ronnie has an IQ score of 65. This score suggests he will
(A) demonstrate exceptional musical abilities.
(B) have no difficulty living independently.
(C) also have difficulty driving and dressing himself.
(D) perform similarly to his peers on other measures of intelligence.
(C)
Q: Timothy is involved in a motorcycle accident and suffers a traumatic brain injury to a
single region of his brain. During his recovery, his doctors notice that he is unable to name
the non-living items in his hospital room, including the bed, television, and chair.
According to this scenario, what else will likely be true about Timothy's post-injury
cognitive functioning?
(A) He will still be able to name types of animals and fruits.
(B) He will also be unable to name varieties of fruits.
(C) He will be able to name non-living items outside his hospital room.
(D) He will also be unable to name types of animals.
(A)
Q: Cameron is extremely afraid of snakes and avoids all images and descriptions of the
animal. His extreme avoidance means that he has only ever seen one image of a snake.
What is likely to be true about his prototype and exemplar mental images for the concept of
"snake?"
(A) He will be unable to form either a prototypical or exemplar image of a snake.
(B) He will be unable to form an exemplar of the concept given that he has only seen one
image.
(C) He will be unable to form a prototype of the concept given that he has only seen one
image.
(D)His mental image of the exemplar and prototypical snake will be the same.
(D)
Q: Which of the following best describes the difference between algorithms and
heuristics?
(A) Algorithms are faster than using heuristics.
(B) Algorithms generally guarantee a solution where heuristics do not.
(C) Heuristics guarantee a solution whereas algorithms do not.
(D) Heuristics require more information than algorithms.
(B)
Q: Elmer is working towards the goal of lowering his blood pressure. Once per week he
measures his blood pressure. This is an example of
(A) evaluating the success of a solution.
(B) implementing a plan.
(C) defining a problem.
(D) calculating probabilities.
(A)
Q: Individuals who make decisions based on their emotions and feelings are best
described as
(A) spontaneous decision-makers.
(B) rational decision-makers.
(C) avoidant decision-makers
(D) intuitive decision-makers.
(D)
Q: Claude is an artist known for turning common household goods into stunning
sculptures. Claude's ability to use these goods in this manner suggests he is
(A) using the availability heuristic.
(B) using the representativeness heuristic.
(C) high in functional fixedness.
(D) low in functional fixedness.
(D)
Q: Alton has decided that he needs to learn Spanish to stay competitive with other
workers in his field. He decided to enroll in a Spanish course at his local community college
and has already attended three classes. Alton is in what stage of the problem-solving
process?
(A) Implementing solutions
(B) Generating solutions
(C) Evaluating the success of solutions
(D) Defining the problem
(A)
Q: Harper has a rational style to decision-making. Which of the following best describes
her likely approach to buying a new car?
(A) She will decide on the first car she sees when entering the lot.
(B) She will use her "gut" feeling to select a new car.
(C) She will thoroughly compare different cars within her budget.
(D) She will purchase whichever car her best friend recommends.
(C)
Q: Paul is dissatisfied with the fact that he is spontaneous when making decisions and
often chooses risky options over safer alternatives. Paul thinks he will never get better at
making decisions and considers deferring all future major decisions to his wife. Is Paul
correct in this assessment?
(A) Yes, decision making ability is fixed once an individual's prefrontal cortex has fully
matured.
(B) Yes, he may be able to learn to make occasional safe decisions but his default will always
be to choose the risky option.
(C) No, decision-making is a skill that he can be taught at any age.
(D) No, because peers, including spouses are likely to have the same level of decision
making ability.
(C)
Q: Mental representations cannot be visual.
TRUE or FALSE
FALSE
Q: Our knowledge would be useless unless we imposed some type of _____ on all the bits
we know.
(A) organization
(B) concept
(C) cognition
(D) experience
(A)
Q: A disadvantage to the _____ approach to concept formation is that people can usually
come up with exceptions.
(A) exemplar
(B) common features
(C) dictionary definition
(C) prototype
(B)
Q: Which of the following is true?
(A) In both exemplars and prototypes, dissimilar objects will be included in a concept and
similar objects will be excluded.
(B) The processes in which prototypes and exemplars are used are very different.
(C) Even when an exemplar is well understood, evidence suggests that prototypes might
work better.
(D) Exemplars provide a better way of thinking about the variability of a category than
prototypes.
(D)
Q: Angela dreams of devoting her career to the reduction and eventual elimination of
malaria. What does the text recommend as an approach to address a substantial, large-scale
problem such as malaria?
(A) Prepare a single initial plan to address all aspects of the problem concurrently.
(B) Break the problem down into component parts with intermediate and long-term goals.
(C)Request proposals from interested parties and countries on how to address the problem.
(D) Plan a global summit of the world's wealthiest nations to develop a strategy.
(B)
Q: The availability heuristic is a rule of thumb in which ____.
(A) stimuli similar to a prototype are believed to be more likely than stimuli that are
dissimilar to a prototype
(B) the frequency of an event's occurrence is predicted by the ease with which the event is
brought to mind
(C) a higher value is placed on the more easily recognized alternative
(D) people choose between alternatives based on emotional or gut reactions to stimuli
(B)
Q: The recognition heuristic ____.
(A) requires a relatively sophisticated understanding of probability
(B) has been shown to beat other, more conventional means of selecting stocks
(C) is used by advertisers to encourage sales of their products
(D) explains a hot streak in a baseball player's batting average
(C)
Q: What is a rule-of-thumb approach in which we choose between alternatives based on
emotional or gut reactions to stimuli?
(A) Representativeness heuristic
(B) Recognition heuristic
(C) Availability heuristic
(D) Affect heuristic
(D)
Q: Good decision making is ____.
(A) a skill that can be taught
(B) not predictive of real-world behavior
(C) an innate skill
(D) a product of nature over nurture
(A)
Q: A time management tool for carrying out a plan is _____.
(A) a solution chart
(B) a Gantt chart
(C) a concept chart
(D) an exemplar chart
(B)
Shirley's home is full of piles of old newspapers and magazines, which she saves because
she might find them useful some day. She also collects rags, old paper towels, plastic bags,
and empty bottles and cans. Shirley likely has ____.
(A) abnormally low activity in the anterior cingulate cortex
(B) a damaged nucleus accumbens
(C) a hyperactive hypothalamus
(D) extremely high activity in the orbitofrontal cortex
(A)
Which event occurring around 100,000 years ago possibly marked the start of modern
language as we know it?
(A) The development of sophisticated hand tools
(B) The end of the last Mesozoic era
(C) The start of human migration to different continents
(D) A critical mutation in the FOXP-2 gene
(D)
An analysis of more than 500 contemporary languages has demonstrated that the number
of speech sounds in a language decreases systematically ____.
(A) with the culture's distance from Africa along migration routes
(B) with the level of assimilation into larger cultures
(C) with the level of education of the population
(D) according to the cultural values embedded in the language
(A)
A morpheme is ____.
(A) an arbitrary signal in a language system
(B) the smallest component of speech that carries meaning
(C) an individual speech sound unique to a specific language
(D) any phrase in a given language
(D)
Morphemes are combined into phrases and sentences according to ____.
(A) linguistic relativity principles
(B) personal preferences
(C) rules of grammar
(D) the nature of speech sounds
(C)
To search for animal precursors to human language capability, the most logical place to
start is with _____.
(A) birds
(b) dogs
(C) apes
(D) meerkats
(C)
The ability to use language is usually consistent with intelligence level with the exception of
_____ syndrome.
(A) Jones
(B) Williams
(C) Smith
(D) Walker
(B)
Which of the following reflects the current understanding of whether the two languages of
bilingualism are represented in different parts of the brain?
(A) The extent of the overlap is greater when the person is least proficient in the languages.
(B) Different languages overlap depending on the timing of learning and proficiency in each
language.
(C) The extent of overlap is less when a person learns both languages in childhood.
(D) Different languages are represented in different parts of the brain.
(B)
American Sign Language is ____.
(A) processed primarily by the right hemisphere of the brain because it is based on spatial
characteristics
(B) processed more or less equally by both the left and right hemispheres of the brain
(C) processed primarily by the left hemisphere of the brain, similar to other languages
(D) not a distinct language by definition
(C)
Which of the following is NOT part of the definition of intelligence?
(A) An IQ of at least 75
(B) Ability to understand complex ideas
(C) Ability to adapt effectively to the environment
(D) Ability to overcome obstacles
(A)
The ability to think logically using specific, learned knowledge is called ____ intelligence.
(A) general
(B) crystallized
(C) complex
(D) fluid
(B)
Strong musical abilities in people with Williams syndrome, which results in a lower than
PSYC101 / PSYC 101 Module 1 – General
Psychology (2026/2027 Latest Update) |
Verified Questions & Correct Answers |
Grade A | Portage Learning
2026
...
/ 2027 Academic Year
Q: According to memory research, studying is most effective if study sessions are:
a. short and across several days
b. long and all on a single day
c. short but all on a single day
Answer
a. short and across several days
Q: When your instructor finishes reviewing a new topic in lecture, she often gives a clicker
quiz. Clicker quizzes can serve the purpose of:
a. transfer appropriate learning
b. incidental learning
c. increasing working memory capacity
d. retrieval practice
Answer
d. retrieval practice
Q: Memory performance is enhanced if the type of task at encoding matches the type of
task at retrieval. This is called:
Answers:
a. metacognition
b. elaborate rehearsal
c. transfer-appropriate processing
d. spacing effect
Answer
c. transfer-appropriate processing
Q: Working memory capacity is related to:
Selected Answer:
a. better attentional control
b. all are correct
c. better reasoning skills
d. better reading comprehension
Answer
b. all are correct
Q: The individual plays an important role in memory acquisition. Which of the following
is LEAST likely to have an effect on memory?
a. the amount of money that you are reimbursed for learning the materials.
b. the situation in which you learn the material
c. prior knowledge
d. the learning strategy that was used
Answer
the amount of money that you are reimbursed for learning the materials.
Q: Transfer-appropriate processing is likely to occur if:
Selected Answer:
a. the student generates his own retrieval cues
b. the type of encoding matches the type of retrieval task
c. there is elaborate processing during encoding of the material
Answer
b. the type of encoding matches the type of retrieval task
Q: Which of the following examples, which is the most important factor in encoding
information to be remembered later?
a. trying to learn
b. having the instructor explain which materials you should review, rather than reviewing
the most difficult information
c. actively processing the meaning of the material
d. your level of motivation
Answer
c. actively processing the meaning of the material
Q: Of the following examples, which is the best way to encode material that you want to
learn?
Answers:
a. highlighting text, so that you will be able to reread it later when you study
b. reading a word and determining how many vowels it has
c. reading a word and thinking about how it relates to you
d. reading a word multiple times
Answer
c. reading a word and thinking about how it relates to you
Q: Which of the following is NOT helpful in learning new materials?
Selected Answer:
Anxiety
Forgetting
Chunking
Self-testing
Expertise
Answer
Anxiety
Q: Having more knowledge about a subject
Answer:
a. helps your ability to learn new related information
b. can inhibit you from learning other information
c. increases your working memory in other subjects
Answer
a. helps your ability to learn new related information
Q: Remembering information about a stimulus in addition to what you intended to
remember (such as position on a page) is called:
Answers:
a. transfer-appropriate learning
b. repetitive learning
c. incidental learning
d. intentional learning
Answer
c. incidental learning
Q: The study on master chess players showed that master chess players are better than
average players in recalling the location of pieces on a chess board because:
Answers:
a. they have superior memories
b. they have had more practice guessing where the pieces belong
c. they can chunk the pieces better into familiar groups
d. they are better able to talk through the problems than average players
Answer
b. they have had more practice guessing where the pieces belong
Q: Which of the following is NOT related to working-memory capacity?
Answers:
a. reading ability
b. implicit learning
c. reasoning skills
d. following directions
Answer
a. reading ability
Q: Which of the following is a good example of a working memory task?
Answers:
a. calculating a multiplication problem in your head
b. reading an interesting story
c. completing an addition problem on paper
d. playing a game of chess
Answer
a. calculating a multiplication problem in your head
Q: How does forgetting facilitate learning?
Answers:
a. Material that is partly forgotten and then re-learned is retained longer than material that
is learned quickly and easily.
b. Forgetting and remembering are both important exercises for our brains.
c. Forgetting does NOT facilitate learning.
d. Forgetting helps maintain information in long-term memory.
Answer
a. Material that is partly forgotten and then re-learned is retained longer than material that
is learned quickly and easily.
The term metacognition refers to:
Answer
a. our thoughts and knowledge about how our learning and memory work
Which of the following strategies will produce the most learning? Determining if:
Answers:
a.
a word rhymes with "nevermore."
b.
the word is printed in capital letters. .
c.
a word is a noun or a verb.
d.
a word has more than two syllables.
b.
the word is printed in capital letters.
Hugh is studying for his geography exam. He is in a hurry, so he focuses on the main points
of the text by highlighting. He skips all the examples that the authors provide to illustrate
each main point. Hugh is using which type of strategy?
Answers:
a.
chunking, to create easier units to remember later.
b.
an efficient study strategy, because highlighting will help him remember the main points.
c.
an elaborate processing strategy which will produce a good durable memory for the
materials.
d.
an ineffective study strategy and will probably not retain many of the main ideas that he
reads.
d.
an ineffective study strategy and will probably not retain many of the main ideas that he
reads
Students who have problems with anxiety so that it affects their learning, can be helped if
they
Answers:
a. ask for a quiet room to take the test
b. study harder
c. write about their anxiety
c. write about their anxiety
Psychology
The systematic study of behaviors and mental processes
All psychologists agree that the first three goals of psychology are to
Describe what organisms do, to explain how organisms behave as they do and to predict
how they will respond in the future and in different situations. Some psychologist add a
forth goal which is to control behavior and thus curb or eliminate psychological and social
problems.
The approach that focuses on how a persons genetic makeup, hormones and nervous
system interact with the environment to influence a wide range of behaviors is called
The Biological approach.
The approach that studies how organisms learn new behaviors or change or modify existing
ones in response to influences from the environment is called the (a)_____. There are two
versions of this approach. One that primarily studies observable behaviors and excludes
mental events is called (b)_____ and is best expressed by the ideas of B. F. Skinner; the
other, which includes observable behaviors plus cognitive processes is called the (c)____
approach and is expressed by the ideas of Albert Bandura and his colleagues
(A) behavioral. (B) strict behaviorism. (C) social cognitive
An approach that examines how our unconscious fears, desires and motivations influence
behaviors, thoughts and personality and cause psychological problems is called the
(a)_____ approach. Sigmund Freud developed this approach as well as the technique of
dream interpretation to bring unconscious ideas to the surface.
(A) psychoanalytic
The approach that investigates how people attend to, store and process information and
how this information affects learning remembering and believing is called the ______
approach
Cognitive
The approach that emphasizes peoples capacity for personal growth, freedom in choosing
their future and potential for self fulfillment is called the _______ approach
Humanistic
The approach that studies the influence of social and cultural factors on psychological and
behavioral functioning is called the ______ approach
Sociocultural
The approach that studies how evolutionary ideas such as adaptation and natural selection
explain human behaviors and mental processes is called the_______ approach
Evolutionary
The approach that studies how biological, psychological and socio-cultural factors influence
human development is called the____ approach
biopsychosocial
Considered the father of Psychology Wilhelm Wundt developed an approach
called(a)____. This approach studied the elements of the conscious mind by using a self
report technique called (b)____ Wundts approach was the beginning of today's cognitive
approach
(A) structuralism. (B) introspection
Disagreeing with Wundts approach, William James said that it was important to study
functions rather than elements of the mind. Accordingly James studied the functions of
consciousness as well as how mental processes continuously flow and adapt to input from
the environment. This approach is called ________. James's ideas contributed to the
modern area of psychology and influenced educational psychology.
Functionalism
James also applied the principles of psychology to teaching, so his approach had a great
effect on the field of _____ psychology
Educational
Also disagreeing with Wundts approach was a group of psychologists led by Wertheimer,
Kohler and Koffka who stated that perceptions cannot be explained by breaking them down
into individual elements or sensations. Instead, they believed that perceptions are more
than the sum of individual sensations, an idea called the _______ approach
Gestalt
Another psychologist who disagreed with Wundts approach was John. B. Watson. He stated
that psychology should use scientific principles to study only observable behaviors and not
mental events, an approach called ____. Watsons approach gave rise to the modern
behavioral approach.
Behaviorism
During the first 75 years of its more than 100 years of its existence, the fields of psychology
discriminated against (a)____ and (b)___, as indicated by the very limited number of
these individuals who were granted PhDs or offered positions in major universities.
(A) women (b) minorities
3 different strategies for note taking were studied: note taking plus review, which means
writing down almost everything the instructor says; note taking plus summary, which
means writing a summary of the lecture in your own words and note taking plus questions
which means asking and answering questions about the lecture material. The note taking
strategy that resulted in the highest exam grades involved(a)______ and the note taking
strategy that resulted in the lowest exam grades involved(b)_____
(A) answering questions (b) reviewing notes
There are 5 major settings in which psychologists work and establish careers. The largest
percentage of psychologists work in private practice or (a)____ settings, where they
diagnose and help clients with psychological problems. The second largest group work in
(b)____ settings, doing a combination of teaching. And research. The third largest group
work in a (c)___ of settings. The fourth largest group work in (d)______ settings, where
they are involved in selecting personnel, increasing job satisfaction and improving worker
management relations. The smallest group work in other settings, such as(e)_____ where
they do academic testing and counseling.
(A)therapy or clinical (b) academic (c) variety (d) industrial (e) school
Psychologists interested in the assessment and treatment of people with psychological
problems such as anxiety or stress specialize in ______ psychology
Clinical and counselling
Those who are interested in prejudice, attitudes, and group behaviors specialize in ______
psychology
Social
Those interested in social, emotional, and cognitive changes across the lifespan specialize in
______ psychology
Developmental
Those interested in studying sensation, perceptions, and learning, often under laboratory
conditions, specialize in ______ psychology
Experimental
Those interested in the interaction among genes, the nervous system, and the environment
choose ______ psychology
Biological or psychobiology
Those interested in how people process, store, and retrieve information choose _______
psychology
Cognitive
Those interested in the measurement and testing of skills, abilities, personality, and mental
problems specialize in______ psychology
Psychometrics
Those interested in the relationships of people and their work specialize in_______
psychology
Industrial/organizational
A better way to judge how prepared you are for an exam is to ask yourself specific _______
rather than to trust your judgement about what you think you know.
Questions
A good way to make your study time more efficient is to set specific_____ and keep track
of your progress.
Performance goals
Immediately after you reach a specific performance goal give yourself a _____ which will
both maintain and improve your motivation
Reward
To improve your lecture notes, try to associate new lecture material with what you already
know, and use your notes to ask and answer ____ in your own words
Questions
One of the most effective ways to overcome a strong tendency to delay starting a task,
known as _______ is to stop thinking about the final goal. Instead breakdown a large
assignment into a series of smaller goals and work on each goal separately
Procrastination
It's best to set a realistic ______ in order to accomplish each of the smaller goals
Schedule
John Watson disagreed with Wundts approach, which was called (a)_____ and disagreed
with Wundts technique of studying the mind, which was called (b)_____. Instead, Watson
emphasized the objective, scientific analysis of observable behaviors, which was known as
the (c) approach. Later this approach became a dominant force in psychology through the
work of behaviorist (d)
(A) structuralism. (B) introspection. (C) behavioral. (D) B. F. Skinner
Psychology
the study of behavior and mental processes
Father of modern psychology
Wilhelm Wundt is often considered to be the father of modern psychology, since he was
largely responsible for establishing psychology as its own field. Late 1800s
William Wundt focus
He was interested in conscious mental processes, or thoughts that a person is aware that he
or she is having
Ivan Pavlov and B.F. Skinner
Behaviorists - interested in behaviors they they could learn about through direct
observation
Sigmund Freud and Carl Jung
Unconscious mental processes - thoughts that a person is unaware that he or she is having
Type of therapy administered by Freud and Jung
psychoanalysis
6 Psychology perspectives
Behavioral, developmental, clinical, biological, sociocultural, cognitive.
BBCCSD
Behavioral psychology
Primarily study human behavior, focusing on the process of learning and motivation.
Humanistic model of clinical psychology
Focuses on characteristics of humankind: free will and personal responsibility. Carl Rogers
Developmental psychology
Focuses on the physical, emotional, and social changes that people undertake throughout
their lives.
Clinical psychology
Focuses on mental health and mental illness. Includes psychodynamic psychology and
humanistic psychology (2 therapy models)
Famous developmental theorist
Jean Piaget - fit in the cognitive perspective to his developmental psychology approach
Psychodynamic model of clinical psychology
Describes powerful, unconscious forces at work in the human psyche ("soul"). - perspective
adhered to by Freud and Jung
Biological Psychology
Focus on how the body is linked to thought and behavior. (genetics, hormones, anatomy)
Sociocultural psychology
Examine the social and cultural contexts of human thought and behavior. View social and
environmental influences as being hugely important contributors to behavior.
Cognitive Psychology
Primarily study human thought. - intelligence and memory. Arose after behaviorism.
Who bridged the gap from behaviorism to cognitive psychology
Albert Bandura - examined some cognitive processes (such as intelligence and memory)
and how they govern behavior.
Bio-psycho-social model
The most common approach to combining different psych perspectives.
Holistic view of human functioning Biological - address biological factors that lead to a
behavior - i.e. the way our nervous system operates or our genetic inheritance.
Psychological - factors like learning, motivation, and personality are necessary to
understand human behavior.
Social - factors like relationships and culture affect behavior.
Replication
Repeating a research study - results need to be consistently reliable. Replication across
multiple sites and studies can establish scientific findings, showing their consistency and
increasing our confidence in results
Scientific Method
1. Develop a hypothesis
2. Design a test
3. Analyze data
4. Present and/or publish the findings
5. Replication (not officially a step but important)
Difference between behaviorists and psychoanalysts
The behaviorists were only interested in studying things that they could directly observe,
but the psychoanalysts focused on unconscious forces that could not be observed at all.
Do behaviorists believe in free will
No. Classical behaviorism posits that human and animal behavior is shaped by the
environment and is not freely chosen.
What do clinical psychologists do?
Key activities: conduct research, administer therapy, offer consultation and evaluation,
supervise and teach others.
What are variables?
Any measurable conditions, events, characteristics, or behaviors that are controlled or
observed in a study.
What things make an experiment a unique research method
Control, Control group, manipulation, independent and dependent variables, manipulation,
and IRB (institutional review boards)
What is the purpose of a control?
To control for external variables and serve as a comparison to the group being manipulated.
Placebo
any substance that has no true medicinal benefit but is administered, as a control, to a
participant who believes it has actual benefit.
Independent and dependent variables
Independent variable - the variable that the researchers manipulate.
Dependent variable - the change that occurred.
Institutional Review Board (IRB)
Guidelines that govern human subjects research. Focus on 3 areas:
1. Participation must be voluntary.
2. The benefits for being in a study must outweigh the costs.
3. Selection of participants should not be biased.
Correlation study
Researcher wants to see if two variables are related to one another. Participants come as
they are and details about participants are compared to one another.
correlation coefficient
a statistical index of the relationship between two things (from -1 to +1)
Case studies
involves interviewing one person in great detail to intensely study one person at a time.
Naturalistic observation
Observation that occurs in a natural setting. It is opposite to an experiment because it
means the researcher embarks into the real world (not a controlled environment) and takes
notes on people as they engage in normal, everyday activities.
Cons: researchers are not privy to the inner thoughts of the participants; unable to test
participants in any way
Surveys
Most common research method in psych. Can be administered orally or in written form.
3 reasons why psychologists like using surveys
1. A survey is the easiest way to get a large participant sample.
2. Surveys are a very efficient research methodology.
3. Psychologists who are interested in having people report their own thoughts and feelings
are often best served by using a survey design.
measures of central tendency
mean, median, mode
Mean equation
∑X/N
Mode
most frequently occurring score
Standard Deviation
The average distance that every person's scores in a group deviate from the mean.
If class mean is 85 and SD is 5 we know that everyone scored between 80 and 90.
Variance
standard deviation squared. Useful for statistical formulas
Reliability
Consistency of a measurement. A test works the same way every time.
Validity
Refers to accuracy and truth - does the test measure what it is supposed to measure.
Content validity
If a test measures the content it claims to measure, it has high content validity.
Can tests be reliable without being valid?
Yes - scores can be consistent each time you take a test but the test may not be accurate
with what you're trying to measure.
A test can also be valid without being reliable - test may accurately measure what it claims
to measure but the way the questions are designed leads to different results each time you
take the test.
Operational definition
Involves defining a thing or idea in terms of how this item will be measured; very specific.
Population
All possible cases that meet a specific criterion. I.e., a population is all US citizens or all
female college students in the US.
Sample
A portion of the population that you can actually study and make inferences on the
population from.
Descriptive statistics
Used to summarize or describe data from samples. Analyzing measures of central tendency.
The purpose is to describe the sample.
Inferential statistics
Rely on sample data to make inferences about the population. Uses samples to generalize to
a population.
PSYC101 / PSYC 101 Module 2 – General
Psychology (2026/2027 Latest Update) |
Verified Questions & Correct Answers |
Grade A | Portage Learning
2026
...
/ 2027 Academic Year
Q: Which part of the nervous system allows us to interact with the world? What are the two
subdivisions that allow us to sense things and act on the world?
Answer
Central Nervous System allows us to interact with the world. Two subdivisions that allow us
to sense things and act on the world include the sympathetic and the parasympathetic cord.
Q: Identify the primary structural parts of a neuron and the functions they serve as
described in the textbook and during lecture.
Answer
Information is received at the dendrites, is passed through the soma and along the axon,
and is transmitted to the dendrites of other cells at mean points called synapses, where
neurotransmitters are released from the terminal buttons. Glial cells provide various types
of support for neurons (like nourishment, insulation, waste removal) and may contribute to
signal transmission in the nervous system.
Q: Explain how charged particles (e.g., Na+ ions) are differentially distributed inside and
outside of the resting neuron.
Answer
Negative Resting Potential: When resting there is a relatively lower concentration of
positive ions inside the cell.
Q: What is a neurotransmitter? Generally speaking, how do neurotransmitters influence
the internal potential of a post-synaptic neuron? Use the lock-and-key analogy in your
description.
Answer
Neurotransmitter: a chemical released by neurons that bind to other neurons.
Neurotransmitter is the key, while the neuron is the lock. Neurotransmitters influence the
internal potential of a post-synaptic neuron by changing how ions flow across the
membrane.
Q: What is an action potential? Explain how it is initiated and results in the release of
neurotransmitters.
Answer
Action potential: a sudden shift in the neurons electrical charge (more positive) that travels
down the axon. The firing of an action potential allows the channels in the cell membrane
that opened to let in sodium close up. Time is needed until it can open again, until then the
neuron cannot fire.
Q: Provide a list of behaviors that are associated with each of the following
neurotransmitters: Serotonin, Norepinephrine, Dopamine, Acetylcholine, and Endorphins.
Answer
Serotonin: Sleep/wake, eating, aggression
Norepinephrine: mood, arousal
Dopamine: Voluntary movement, pleasurable emotion
Acetylcholine: Muscles, memory, attention
Endorphins: Pleasurable emotions, pain reduction (runner's high)
Q: Match the following disorders to the appropriate neurotransmitter(s): Depression,
Schizophrenia, Alzheimer's Disease, and Parkinson's Disease.
Answer
Depression: Norepinephrine
Schizophrenia: Dopamine
Alzheimer's Disease: Acetylcholine
Parkinson's Disease: Dopamine
Q: For the disorders listed above indicate whether the neurotransmitter level is too high or
low. Additionally, provide examples of drugs that influence the levels of the
neurotransmitters and indicate whether the drugs increase, decrease, or block
neurotransmitter activity.
Answer
Depression: Norepinephrine:Cocaine and Amphetamines increase
Schizophrenia: Dopamine: Antipsychotics increase, Cocaine and Amphetamines decrease
Alzheimer's Disease: Acetylcholine: Nicotine increases lunar (botox treatments)
Parkinson's Disease: Dopamine: Antipsychotics increase, Cocaine and Amphetamines
decrease
Q: Define the terms agonist and antagonist and provide examples of how they influence
neurotransmitter activity.
Answer
Agonist: Mimics (causes) actions of neurotransmitter.
Antagonist: Opposes (blocks) actions of neurotransmitter
Q: What is phrenology? Why is it considered a pseudoscience?
Answer
A now abandoned study of the shape of skull as indicative of the strengths of different
faculties. This pseudoscience is based on the false assumption that mental faculties are
located in brain "organs" on the surface of the brain and can be detected by visible
inspection of the skull.
Q: As you anticipate getting up in front of the class, you begin to feel butterflies in your
stomach and a pounding in your chest. Explain how the sympathetic and parasympathetic
divisions of the autonomic nervous system work together to influence how your body reacts
to this situation.
Answer
The autonomic nervous system controls involuntary bodily functions. It connects nerves to
the heart, blood vessels, glands, and smooth muscles. It is often referred to as the fight of
flight response. The autonomic nervous system can be broken down into the sympathetic
division, which mobilizes the body's resources in emergencies, and the parasympathetic,
which conserves the body's resources in emergencies. In the scenario above, the pounding
in your chest suggests your heart is responding to the sympathetic division of the
autonomic nervous system. Aparasympathetic response from your heart would slow your
heart rate-not speed it up. The butterflies in your stomach are most likely digestions
slowing down and blood being rerouted to other areas of your body. This is another
example of a sympathetic response. As you begin your speech and overcome your nerves,
you heart beat will slow down and the butterflies will dissipate. These are signs of the
parasympathetic division because the body is relaxing and therefore conserving its
resources.
Q: List the three major divisions of the brain and their principle subdivisions as described
in class.
What behaviors are associated with the subdivisions listed above?
Answer
a) Hindbrain:
medulla-> Breathing and circulation
Pons-> Sleep and arousals Cerebellum-> Coordinated movement and balance and fine
tonging brain activity
b) Midbrain: Arousal
Sound localized
c) Forebrain:
Limble systems-> emotion and memory
Thalamus-> relays incoming and outgoing information Hypothalamus-> Regulation of
basic needs (eating, temperature control) Cerebrum-> Complex thought
Q: There are four primary cortical lobes. What are they? Where are the located? What
primary function is associated with each?
Answer
Temporal-> Hearing Located below the lateral fissure
Occipital-> Vision Located at the back of the brain, behind the parietal lobe and temporal
lobe
Blindspot Parietal-> Integrates information (ex: visual/body)
Touch-Primary somatosensory cortex
Located behind the central sulcus.
Frontal-> Movement-primary cortez
Use information for planning/strategies
Concerned with reasoning, planning, parts of speech and movement (motor cortex),
emotions, and problem-solving
Located in front of the central sulcus.
Q: What is blindsight?
Answer
People who are blind demonstrate some response to visual stimuli.
Q: How is the body represented on the Primary Motor and Primary Somatosensory
cortices of the brain? Where are these segments of the brain located (i.e., which cortical
lobe)?
Answer
Arranged in an orderly manner, inverted. The toes are represented at the top of the cerebral
hemisphere, while the mouth is represented at the bottom of the hemisphere, closer to the
lateral sulcus. These representations lie along a fold in the cortex called the central sulcus.
The homunculus is split in half, with motor representation for each side of the body
represented on the opposite side of the brain.[2] Some body parts may be controlled by
partially overlapping regions of cortex.
Primary motor located in the Frontal Lobe.
Primary Somatosensory Cortex located in the Parietal Lobe.
Q: The two hemispheres are connected by the.....
Answer
Central sulcus.
Q: What are the two primary language areas in the brain that were discussed during class?
Where are they located?
Answer
Broca's Area-> Speech production/fluency
Wernickes Area-> Comprehension of language
Q: Damage to a language area produces an aphasia, or loss of an ability to understand or
express speech. Describe the behavior of someone suffering from each of the two primary
aphasias we discussed in class.
Answer
Broca's Aphasia: Slow effortful speech
Wernicke's Aphasia: "Word salad"/receptive
transmits information between the brain and the peripheral nervous system?
Answer
Spinal Nerves
Q: Describe the three methods used by researchers to investigate the effects of genetics
and experience on behavior.
Answer
Family Studies: Researchers assess hereditary influence by examining blood relatives to see
how much they resemble one another to a specific trait.
Twin Studies: Researchers assess hereditary influence by comparing the resemblance of
identical twins and fraternal twins with the respect to a trait
Adoption Studies: asses hereditary influence by examining the resemblance between
adopted children and both their biological and their adoptive parents
Q: What kind of nerves carry sensory and motor messages in and out of the column that
Q: Which of the following brain areas is responsible for movement, sense of self, and
higher mental functions?
Answer
Frontal Lobes
Q: Which of the following involves obtaining additional information to check perceptions?
Answer
Reality Testing
Q: Which theory of dreaming, popularized by Freud, emphasizes internal conflicts,
motives, and unconscious forces?
Answer
Psychodynamic dream theory
Q: The awareness of one's internal thoughts and external surroundings.
Answer
How is consciousness defined in the field of psychology?
Q: Psychophysics is the study of how the mind interprets the physical properties of
_______.
Answer
Stimuli
Q: People perceive objects or events that have no external reality in a/an _______.
Answer
Hallucination
Q: Which one of the following is the name for a type of cell in the nervous system that
transmits information?
Answer
Neuron
Answer
science builds on prior discoveries
Q: What is the structure in the hindbrain involved in controlling coordination and balance
called?
Answer
Cerebellum
Q: Which of the following refers to the parts of the nervous system outside of the brain
and spinal cord?
Answer
Peripheral Nervous System
Q: science is described as a cumulative process. This means that
Q: Personal experience is associated with __________whereas, scientific method is
associated with ________________.
Answer
opinion; fact
Q: miller is conducting research aimed at understanding how elderly people can best
thrive when residing in an assisted-living home. she has several logical ideas that can be
tested in her research. these ideas, which might be considered educated guesses, are called
hypotheses
An example of an operational definition of anxiety is a:
Answer
a score on an anxiety questionare
Taylor walked into the psychology lab and was welcomed by the researcher. The first
document given to him by the researcher described the research experiment and what it
was to entail, which also required his signature. What was this ethical document?
Answer
informed consent
What is one reason why scientific psychologists follow a specific set of guidelines to help
them make decisions when doing research?
Answer
to ensure they protect research participants from potential harm
_________ methods in psychological research are approaches to data-gathering that are
tied to actual measurement and observation
Answer
empirical
which of the following is an example of an empirical question that would be tested by using
systematic observation
Answer
do native English-speaking Canadians take longer to learn chinese or to learn Spanish
When we develop ________ (groups of closely related phenomena or observations) in
science, we must do so in a way that can be tested. Otherwise, there is no way to prove (or
disprove them)
Answer
theories
The definition of psychology is generally considered to be the
scientific study of behavior and mental processes
Dr. Morabian is conducting research that was inspired by studies published 10 years before
he got his doctorate. He reads those studies, thinks about how they can be improved, and
designs research that will extend their findings. Dr. Morabian's work demonstrates that
science is:
cumulative
The purpose of ethical guidelines in psychological research is to
protect the rights of human and animal subjects
Looking for the best ways to help people monitor and control their blood pressure through
behavioral changes would be the concern of psychologists within which subfield?
health
the hypothesis in a research study is defined as the
idea or prediction that can be tested
confidentiality requires that
access to collected data be limited to research staff
The main focus of clinical psychology is on which aspect of human behavior?
understanding and treating psychological disorders
Meditation does which of the following to the body? (choose all that apply)
* Changes plasticity of the brain
* Lowers cortisol levels
* Changes brain structures
Match the drug with the neurotransmitter it mimics:
* benzodiazepines: GABA
* cocaine: Dopamine
* LSD: Serotonin
Which age group sleeps the longest?
Infants
When your body suddenly has an unexpected change in level of drug tolerance, this is
called:
Reverse tolerance
While there are some substances that are classified as drugs in the US, there are also
culturally accepted uses of such substances, such as peyote and ayahuasca, due to their use
for ceremonial and healing purposes.
True
Match the drug with the appropriate classification:
* Alcohol: Depressant
+ Nicotine: Stimulant
* Heroin: Opioid
* LSD: Hallucinogen
Pavlov's study of classical conditioning using dogs showed that dogs could learn to salivate
in response to a(n):
Conditioned stimulus
When behaviors are organized into many small steps during operant conditioning, this is
referred to as:
Shaping
The pleasurable experience of enjoying a good meal with another person on a first date can
cause you to also associate positive feelings toward that person due to:
High-order conditioning
The pleasurable experience of enjoying a good meal with another person on a first date can
cause you to also associate positive feelings toward that person due to:
Reinforcement
Studies show that violent video games can have prosocial effects
False
Which of the following are examples of learning? (choose all that apply)
* Operant conditioning
* Classical conditioning
PSYC101 / PSYC 101 Module 3 – General
Psychology (Latest 2026/2027 Update) |
Verified Questions & Correct Answers |
Grade A | Portage Learning
2026
...
/ 2027 Academic Year
Q: Janelle has five brothers who are 5, 7, 7, 10, and 16 years of age. The mean age of Janelle's
brothers is:
Answer
9
Q: The mean, median, and mode are measures of _____.
Answer
central tendency
Q: Differences between two samples are MOST likely to be statistically significant if the
samples are:
Answer
large
Q: The mean, median, and _____ are all measures of central tendency.
Answer
mode
Q: To measure variation in a set of data, one could calculate the _____ by subtracting the
lowest score from the highest score.
Answer
range
Q: The _____ is a measure of _____.
Answer
median; central tendency
Q: In terms of variation in data, averages that are derived from scores with _____ variability
are more reliable than averages based on scores with _____ variability.
Answer
low; high
Q: When trying to interpret a bar graph, it is important to check the _____ and note their
_____.
Answer
scale labels; range
Q: Rayshawn is trying to decide between two schools for his 8-year-old daughter. The
Einstein School states that the average intelligence test score of its students is 125, with a
standard deviation of 5.3. The Marie Curie School reports that the average intelligence test
score of its students is 125, with a standard deviation of 15.6. If he is MOST interested in
finding a school that has children with diverse abilities, which school should he choose for his
daughter?
Answer
the Marie Curie School
Q: Ahmed has five sisters who are 4, 4, 5, 9, and 10 years old. The _____ of his sisters' ages
is 5.
Answer
median
Q: The _____ is a measure of variation that uses information from each score.
Answer
standard deviation
Q: Dr. Perry is examining academic performance based on parental income level. Dr. Jian
finds that the sample variances are small and the differences between the groups are large.
Which is MOST likely?
Answer
results are significant
Q: _____ statistics can be used to determine the generalizability of results.
Answer
Inferential
Q: Consider this set of numbers: 1, 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 4, 7, 7, 7, 8, 15. The mode of the set is:
Answer
7
Q: Roderick is trying to decide between two schools for his 9-year-old daughter. Two schools
state that the average intelligence test score of its students is 125, which is higher than the
norm of 100. If Roderick is MOST interested in finding a school that has children with diverse
abilities, which statistic about the intelligence test scores would he want to know from both
these schools?
Answer
the standard deviation
Q: Regina has five brothers who are 4, 6, 6, 9, and 15 years of age. The mean age of Regina's
brothers is _____.
Answer
8
Q: Using these scores, identify the range: 5, 7, 7, 10, 11, 15.
Answer
10
Q: Consider this set of numbers: 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 4, 7, 7, 7, 9, 10. The mean of the set is:
Answer
5
Q: Today is the sixteenth birthday party for Danielle. Her younger brother, age 14, and older
sister, age 21, are in attendance. The median age of this family is:
Answer
16
Q: A fast-food restaurant has recently placed a large advertisement in several national
newspapers. It claims that people who eat at this restaurant lose more weight than do people
eating at a competing restaurant. The advertisement includes a simple bar graph displaying
this information. What should you look for in the bar graph to make sure their claims are
accurate?
Answer
the scale labels and their range
Q: Cory creates a bar graph for a sales meeting. The graph MOST likely displays _____
statistics
Answer
descriptive
Q: One person in a group of 12 people is 10 times older than any of the other members. With
respect to age, it is MOST likely that the majority of group members are younger than the
group's:
Answer
mean
Q: Differences between two samples are LEAST likely to be statistically significant if the
samples are _____ and the variability of the samples is _____.
Answer
small; large
Q: Which statement does NOT contain a gross statistical underestimate or overestimate?
Answer
About 4 percent of the population is gay or lesbian.
Q: The _____ is the score that divides a set of scores exactly in half.
Answer
median
Q: An individual uses which type of memory when executing the ability to ride a bike?
Answer
Procedural
Q: The concept that "practice makes perfect" refers to influencing your:
Answer
Implicit Memory
Q: The notion that strong emotions cause strong memories while weaker emotional
experiences produce weaker memories is due to the:
Answer
Arousal Theory
Q: According to the equipotentiality hypothesis, if memory is lost due to damage to one part
of the brain, another part of the same area will take over that memory function.
Answer
True
Q: You are telling your friend about a great movie you just saw, but you're having trouble
remembering the name of the movie. The title of the movie is one you've seen and heard
several times, and your recollection of the title is on the tip-of-your-tongue. This is referred to
as which type of memory error:
Answer
Blocking
Q: The act of retrieving a memory makes it much more likely that the memory can be
retrieved again due to the:
Answer
Testing effect
Q: Racial differences in IQ scores may be explained by:
Answer
Stereotype Threat
Q: Norms are expectations of what a given group should know and demonstrate.
Answer
False
Q: Divergent thinking is measured by IQ and achievement tests.
Answer
False
Q: When you board a plane and proceed to find your assigned seat on the boarding pass, this
is an example of a:
Answer
Cognitive script
Q: ___________________ helps people coordinate their language for use.
Answer
Common Ground
Q: You have just ended a long-term relationship, and you are so frustrated that you have
decided that you are done with dating forever. This is an example of:
Analogy heuristic
[answer1] take in light energy as it enters the eye and they use it to enable the eye to see color.
Cones
Q: After light is converted to an electrical impulse it is sent to the [answer1] lobe in the brain.
Answer
occipital
Q: Hawks have better visual acuity than humans, partly due higher concentrations of these
photoreceptors on their retinas: [answer1].
Answer
Cones
Q: [answer1] enable the eye to see in dim light.
Answer
Rods
Q: Animals that are nocturnal have an abundance of which photoreceptors? [answer1]
Answer
Rods
Q: The Optic Nerve consists of axons of which type of cells? [answer1]
Answer
Ganglion cells
Q: Define Binocular and Monocular cues. Then, describe a specific example of each type of
cue.
Binocular cue is when we use both eyes, between each eyes there is disparity which has a role in
the depth perception. like dark and light , we tend to see light object close and the dark ones far
away.
Monocular cue is when we use one eye only, like when we see close mail box passing by fast
because they are close, in the other hand far away object seems moving slow.
OR
Binocular cues we are seeing out of both eyes but there is a disparity between the eyes.
Monocular cues are the way we perceive things in size and distance. an example is the film lord
of the rings. There are many scenes with the hobbits next to humans or in this specific example
gandoff the wizard. In order to make the hobits look smaller they were films at different angles,
close up and far away.
[TEACHERS NOTE] 2.5 points for correctly defining and providing an example of Binocular
(uses both eyes).Examples should focus on depth information being communicated because of
the disparity between the eyes.
2.5 points for correctly defining and providing an example of Monocular (uses one eye).
Examples should focus on light, shadow, and depth perception (darker perceived as farther) or
distance (slower perceived as distant).
Q: For the following scenarios, indicate whether each is an example of Bottom-up or Top
down processing.
Answer
Your child tentatively takes a lick of gelato to see whether she likes the taste.
Bottom-up
Q: For the following scenarios, indicate whether each is an example of Bottom-up or Top
down processing.
Answer
Someone is rude to you and you spend the next day ruminating over what may have caused this
rudeness and trying to remember whether you did anything to offend this person.
Top-Down
The brain making sense of neural impulses is known as [answer1].
Answer
Perception
Fill in the blank: What is the law that states that a Just Noticeable Difference will be large when
the stimulus energy level is large and small when the energy level is small? [answer5]
Answer
Weber's Law
Fill in the blank: If Sam needs to speak up slightly louder in order for Max to hear him, the
difference between the first and second levels of loudness is known as the [answer1].
JND
True or false? Psychological factors such as one's expectations of the pain one might experience
can affect the actual experience of pain.
True
Fill in the blank: The [answer1] theory of pain states that certain pain signals on larger nerves
can be let in, while smaller ones are blocked entrance.
gate control
Describe the process of transduction, as it occurs in the inner ear.
The sound waves enter the inner ear where they strike the eardrum, which transmits the sound
waves to the cochlea which is filled of fluid, so the waves creates another waves inside the
cochlea, the sound waves travel to the basilar membrane which transform the sound waves into
neural impulse, therefore it travels to the brain (temporal lobe) to interpret the information
sent.
OR
Sound waves enter the inner ear going through the hammer,anvil, and stirrup. The sound
waves then move on to the inner ear to the chochlea that is filled with fluid. The Cochlea has a
basilar membrane which is a thin tissue that converts the vibrations from the tiny hairs to
electricity and this information then travels to the brain.
[TEACHERS NOTE] 3 points for mentioning Tympanic Membrane/eardrum, Cochlea, and
Basilar membrane. 2 points for correct description of each structure's function
Based on what you learned about the loudness of common sounds, what is your reaction? Were
you surprised? Why or why not? Do you think that if this information was generally known that
people would change their behavior? Do you plan on changing yours?
Based on what I learned on the loudness of common sounds I was not suprised. Having a
backgroung in music I am very familiar that sounds have a varity of different decibal that one
would not think are as loud as they are. I don't think ig this information was generally known
that people would change their behavior. I don't plan on changing my behavior.
[TEACHERS NOTE] Answers will vary, but 5 points given to answers that fully address each
question and do so by giving specific details.
To which lobe in the cerebral cortex is auditory information primarily sent? [answer1]
temporal lobe
What three bones make up the eardrum, or tympanic membrane:
hammer, anvil, stirrup
The [answer1] is a tube in the inner ear that is filled with fluid. When sound waves enter the
ear, they cause this fluid to vibrate.
Cochlea
Fill in the blank: The [answer1] is a thin tissue in the Cochlea of the ear that converts vibrations
into bioelectricity.
Basilar Membrane
Multiple choice: _____________ is the psychological property corresponding to the
frequency of a sound wave.
Pitch
True or false? Research in perception indicates that humans appear to be designed or wired to
see patterns.
True
Multiple choice: The ________________ states that humans tend to group similar objects.
Law of similarity
Multiple choice: The _________________ states that humans tend to group nearby objects.
Law of proximity
Multiple choice: The _______________ states that humans make more sense of connected
and continuous objects than disconnected ones.
Law of Continuity
Fill in the blank: The Gestalt concept of Figure and Ground illustrates that when we focus on
the figure or pattern, everything else in the background becomes [answer1]. ground
ground
Thoroughly answer the essay question. Essay answers should be in clearly written in full
sentences. (10 points)
1. Briefly describe where visual information is sent in the brain after traveling down the Optic
Nerve. In your answer, be sure to explain the roles and responsibilities of each brain region
discussed.
Once the light waves enter in the eye, the retina cells make transduction, the information are
sent first to the thalamus through the optical nerve, which is like switchboard, then to the
occipital lobe where the information sent by the retina cells will be interpreted. The occipital
lobe in the brain is where the vision center in located.
Some information are sent to the brain stem which control the pupils dilatation, some eyes
movements as saccades when the eye focus on an object.
OR
The visual information is sent to the optic nerve when light waves reflect off an object and
travels into the eye then travels to the cells in the back of the eye where the photoreceptors are
located which are rods that enable the eye to see in dim light and cones that enable the eye to
see color. It is in the back of the eye that the retina and gagnilon cells are located. The ganglion
cells have axons. The light energy information is then converted to electrical in pulse in the
optic nerve by bundles of axons from the ganglion cells. The electric energy leaves the optic
nerve and moves to the brain and the thalmus ( the thalmus is the switchboard center ) it then
mover on to the cerbreal cortex mostly to the visual cortext in the occiputal lobe, some
information goes to the brain stem to control pupil size and eye movement.
[TEACHERS NOTES] 3 points for correct identification of the following pathways: Optic Nerve
to Thalamus, Thalamus to Primary Visual Cortex in the Occipital Lobe, Thalamus to
Brainstem.
7 points for correct description of the roles and responsibilities of: Thalamus, Visual
Cortex/Occipital Lobe, Brainstem (2 pts each, 1 pt for overall level of detail in describing the
process of visual information being sent to these regions)
13- Thoroughly answer the essay question. Essay answers should be in clearly written in full
sentences. (10 points)
1. Choose three out of the four Gestalt principles: Figure and Ground, Law of Similarity, Law of
Proximity, Law of Continuity. Describe each of these in your own words. Then, based on the
module and the link to the graphic design website, choose one of these principles and describe
how this principle can be applied, such as to art, graphic design, or everyday life.
Figure and Ground: The figure is what we focus on when we look at picture and every other
thing becomes the background. A typical example would be when you focus on an image and
you are able to see a figure and if you look at the image from another direction, you tend to see
another figure
Law of similarity: This is a case where we put similar objects together. It is assumed that things
that look alike are actually alike. It may help us to work better but can also make cause
perceptual issues.
Law of continuity- Our brains make sense of connected objects rather than disconnected ones.
We expect people to stay the same every time we see them even though we understand that
change is constant.
Using Amazon logo as an example, The logo has an arrow which points from A to Z this could
help us understand that Amazon has got everything we may need from A to Z
[TEACHERS NOTE] 6 points for describing the principles and 4 points for application.
If a stimulus is very large, will the Just Noticeable Difference be large or small? large
large
Signal Detection Theory states that sensation depends on the_____________, the degree of
background simulation, and the current physical or psychological of the person receiving the
stimulus.
intensity of the stimulus
Rods and cones are examples of
photoreceptors
Diane is so used to the sounds of trains traveling back and forth near her house that she no
longer notices the sound. Which term from the module best describes this phenomenon?
Sensory Adaption
Regarding hearing, the softest level of sound that can be detected by the human ear is known
as the
absolute threshold.
Describe the process of transduction, as it occurs in the inner ear. (6 points)
When sound waves enter the inner ear, it strikes the tympanic membrane that has three little
bones called the hammer, the anvil and the stirrup due to their sizes. The sound waves keeps
moving to the snail like tube called the cochlea which is filled with fluid. The sound waves will
send vibrations through the fluid in the cochlea. There is a thin tissue in the cochlea called the
basilar membrane which converts the vibrations caused by the sound waves into electricity
through the stimulation of tiny hair cells. This impulse is then carried to the brain.
Of the following terms, which are psychological qualities rather than physical: Frequency,
Pitch, Amplitude, Loudness. (2 points)
Pitch and loudness.
Of the above terms (frequency, pitch, etc.), which are physical qualities rather than
psychological? (2 points)
Frequency and Amplitude
Which one of the following statements accurately represents the stability of an individual's
sexual orientation?
Sexual orientation remains fairly consistent throughout the average person's life
Which one of the following is an accurate characteristic of the mental health of homosexuals?
They are more likely to suffer from anxiety and depression
Which of the following developmental stages spans from birth to one year?
Infancy
Which one of the following terms refers to culturally constructed distinctions between male
and female characteristics?
Gender
Which one of the following is the most accurate representation of the dynamic relationship of a
mother and her child?
Difficult children may illicit more negative parenting
The passage of physical and psychological traits through genes from parents to offspring is
called
Heredity
Which of the following statements describes how a drive differs from an incentive?
Drive is the state of tension that arises from an unmet need, while incentive is a specific reward
that motivates behavior
Which of the following is a characteristic of people high in the need of achievement?
They strive to do well anytime they are evaluated
The study of how and why human beings experience transformations in behavior that occur
during every stage of life from conception to death is known as
Developmental Psychology
Which of the following parts of the brain regulates emotional behaviors and basic biological
needs, including hunger, thirst, and the sex drive?
Hypothalamus
__________ is the study of psychological disorders, including their symptoms, etiology,and
treatment.
Psychopathology
A condition characterized by abnormal thoughts, feelings, and behaviors is known as
a______________.
Psychological disorder
Psychological disorders are tied closely to ________________. Meaning that
whilesymptoms like hallucinations are seen as a disorder, there are other places in the
worldwhere they are highly valued.
cultural expectations
Wakefield proposed an influential concept in which he defines psychological disorders as a
_______________.
harmful dysfunction
According to the APA what three things are required for a diagnosis of a disorder?
1. Significant disturbances in thoughts, feelings, and behaviors
2. The disturbances reflect some kind of biological, psychological, or developmental
dysfunction.
3. The disturbances lead to significant distress or disability in one's life.
What is the current version of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manuel of Mental Disorders
(DSM)?
DSM-5
What are the categories describing each disorder in the DSM are?
a. Diagnostic features
b. Diagnostic criteria
c. Prevalence
d. Risk Factors
There are two major systems for the classification of mental disorders. The DSM is one and the
World Health Organization (WHO) publishes the
International Classification of Diseases
According to the text, what is the definition of diathesis?
Diathesis is a predisposition for a disorder.
The prevalence of all anxiety disorders appears to be
25-35%
__________________ is the most frequently occurring class of mental disorders.
Avoidant and schizoid personality disorders
__________________ involves excessive, distressing, and persistent fear or anxiety about a
specific object or situation
Anxiety Disorders
What are the three major learning pathways for acquiring a phobia?
a. Classical Conditioning
b. Vicarious Learning
c. Verbal transmission of information
________________ is characterized by extreme and persistent fear or anxiety of social
situation in which the person could be evaluated negatively by others.
Social Anxiety Disorder
______________ percent of a sample of tested adults with social anxiety disorderreported a
history of teasing in childhood
92
________________ recurrent and unexpected panic attacks, along with at least one month
of persistent concerns about additional panic attacks
Panic Disorder
What is the percentage of the U.S. population that dies each year as a result of panic attacks?
0%
What are the three casual theories of Panic Disorder?
a. Neurobiological
b. Conditioning
c. Cognitive
_____________ is a relatively continuous state of excessive, uncontrollable, and pointless
worry and apprehension.
Generalized Anxiety Disorder
What are the three diagnostic criteria of Generalized Anxiety Disorder?
a. The diffuse worrying and apprehension is not part of another disorder.
b. Symptoms occur more days than not for at least 6 months.
c. Symptoms are accompanied by any three of the following symptoms: Restlessness, difficulty
concentrating, being easily fatigued, muscle tension, irritability, and sleep difficulties.
_______________ involves thoughts and urges that are intrusive and unwanted(obsession)
and/or the need to engage in repetitive behaviors or mental acts (compulsion).
Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
______________ is persistent, unintentional, and unwanted thoughts and urges that
arehighly intrusive, unpleasant, and distressing
Obsessions
_____________ are repetitive and ritualistic acts, typically carried out primary as a means
to minimize the distress that obsessions trigger or the likelihood of a feared event.
Compulsions
____________ involves a preoccupation with a perceived flaw in the individual'sphysical
appearance that is either nonexistent or barely noticeable to other people.
Body Dysmorphic Disorder
____________ involves great difficulty in discarding possessions, regardless of how
valueless/useless they are, usually resulting in an accumulation of items that clutter living or
work areas.
Hoarding Disorder
In what area of the brain is hoarding disorder thought to be localized?
Anterior Cingulate
In what area of the brain is body dysmorphia thought to be localized?
Prefrontal cortex
In what area of the brain is obsessive-compulsive disorder thought to be localized
OCD circuit
What are the two diagnostic criteria for diagnosing PTSD?
a. Individual was exposed to, witnessed, or experienced the details of a traumatic experience
("actual or threatened death, serious injury, or sexual violence")
b. Symptoms occur for at least one month.
What are the two mood disorders covered in the text and in class?
a. Depressive Disorder
b. Bipolar and Related Disorders
What are the four diagnostic criteria for diagnosing Major Depressive Disorder?
a. "Depressed mood most of the day, nearly every day"
b. Loss of interest and pleasure in usual activities.
c. At least 5 symptoms for at least a two-week period.
d. Symptoms cause significant distress or impair normal functioning and are not caused by
substances or a medical condition
What are the three subtypes of depression?
a. Seasonal Pattern
b. Peripartum onset (postpartum depression)
c. Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia)
In bipolar disorder mood states fluctuate between ___________ and ___________.
depression; mania
List three of the symptoms of mania.
a. Excessively irritable
b. Easily distracted.
c. Engage in reckless behavior.
The neurotransmitter most closely associated with depression is _____________.
Serotonin
The neurotransmitter most closely associated with bipolar is _________________.
Dopamine
_______________ states that cognitive vulnerability + stressful life events lead to
depression.
Diathesis-Stress model
______________ contains themes of loss, failure, rejection, worthlessness, and inadequacy.
Depressive schemas
In the Hopelessness Theory of Depression ___________ and _________ lead to
depression
specific negative thinking style; sense of hopelessness
______________ is repetitive and passive focus on the fact that one is depressed
anddwelling on depressive symptoms.
Rumination
What is the percentage of individuals who complete suicide having at least one mental disorder
(most frequently a mood disorder)?
90%
What are the five major symptoms of schizophrenia?
a. Hallucinations
b. Delusions
c. Disorganized Thinking
d. Catatonic Behaviors
e. Disorganized or abnormal motor behavior
What is the neurotransmitter most significantly associated with schizophrenia?
Prefrontal Cortex
_____________ is characterized by an individual becoming split off or dissociated, from
their core sense of self - memory and identity become disturbed.
Dissociative Disorder
What are the three Dissociative Disorders?
a. Dissociative Amnesia
b. Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder
c. Dissociative Identity Disorder
____________ is characterized by a pervasive and inflexible personality style that differs
markedly from the expectations of the individual's culture and causes distress or impairment.
Personality Disorder
What are the four cluster B personality disorders?
a. Antisocial personality disorder
b. Histrionic personality disorder
c. Narcissistic personality disorder
d. Borderline personality disorder
______________ is characterized by instability in interpersonal relationships, self
image,and mood, as well as marked impulsivity.
Borderline Personality Disorder
____________ is characterized by a complete lack of regard for other people's rights or
feelings.
Antisocial Personality Disorder
Research has revealed two things about brain anatomy in relation to antisocial personality
disorder.
a. Less activation in brain regions involved in the experience of empathy and feeling concerned
for others.
b. Greater activation in a brain area involved in self-awareness, cognitive function and
interpersonal experience.
______________ is a constant pattern of inattention and/or hyperactivity and impulsive
behavior that interferes with normal functioning.
ADHD
What is the neurotransmitter most significantly associated with ADHD?
Dopamine
What are the three symptoms of autism spectrum disorder?
a. Deficits in social interaction (e.g., do not make eye contact, turn head away when spoken to,
prefer playing alone).
b. Deficits in communication (e.g., one-word responses, difficulty maintaining conversation,
echoed speech, and problems using and understanding nonverbal cues).
c. Repetitive patterns of behavior or interests.
Clues to the important roles both nature and nurture play in development is seen in infants as
they begin to gain the ability to actively perceive the distance from themselves to objects in the
environment. This ability is also known as what term?
Depth perception
A preschooler who watches an adult empty a small pitcher of water into a glass believes that:
The poured volume increases or decreased depending on the appearance of the container
Adam is upset that his twin brother Ryan has two pieces of pie while he only has one. His Mom
rightly states that it's the same amount of pie it's just that Ryan's piece fell apart into two pieces
as it was transferred onto the plate. Still not satisfied, Adam begins to throw a temper tantrum.
In a moment of desperation, Adam's Mom cuts his piece in half saying: "There, Adam, now you
have two pieces!" This worked. Adam is now happy. What Piagetian Stage is Adam in?
Preoperational
Which of the following is a potential problem with Piaget's theory of cognitive development?
All are potential issues.
The idea that on the object permanence task, infants perform better when the waiting period is
shorter at just six months of age supports which of the following problems with Piaget's
theory?
Cognitive development is more continuous than Piaget thought
Piaget's stage theory can be described as which of the following?
Discontinuous and qualitative
What measure might a psychologist use to demonstrate that an infant does not know that his
teddy bear exists when it is removed from his field of vision?
The object permanence task
According to Piaget, the developmental processes that explain children's cognitive
development are measured by:
How children reason, with fundamental changes tin thinking occurring in each stage
The relation of nature to nurture is the same as the relation of _______.
genetics to environment
Farrah is in kindergarten and is learning about _____. To track her progress, her teacher
presents her with pairs of words and asks her which of them rhyme.
phonemic awareness
The ______ model describes how financial difficulties are associated with parents' depressed
moods, which can cause problems with a child's normal adjustment.
Family stress
Hector is a strict father who demands and expects obedience from his children. What is his
style of parenting known as?
authoritarian
When Rachel, a toddler, visits a neighbor's home with her mother, she explores the room
where the adults are sitting, but she will not leave the room. When her mother leaves to inspect
the garden, she gets agitated and later rushes to her immediately when mother returns.
Rachel's behavior demonstrates _____ attachment.
Secure
Julee's mom has noticed that her daughter has been especially good at resisting the cookies in
the kitchen so she doesn't spoil her dinner each night. Julee knows if she can wait until after
dinner she can eat two cookies. This successful experience of motivated self-regulation can also
be referred to as what?
effortful control
Nick and Brenda are attentive parents. They are encouraging and warm, yet they are firm with
boundaries, and make sure the rules of the home are clearly communicated. When their
children make mistakes, Nick and Brenda try to use the mistakes a learning experiences, even
when punishment is administered. What kind of parenting style is this?
Authoritative
Allison has been described by her parents, teachers, and friends as hyperactive. Therefore, her
parents try to modify her environment by taking her to the park and signing her up for sports
teams in order to fit her temperament. This is an example of which of the following:
Goodness of fit
One element that shapes personality is temperament, which is related to self-regulation and is:
biologically based
According to research referenced in your text, babies who are _____ tend to elicit more
sensitive and affectionate care from their parents compared with babies who lack these
attributes.
easygoing and attractive
Marcellus has an 8-year old daughter. He showers her with love and gifts and generally lets her
make her own decisions. Baumrind (2013) would suggest that Marcellus has a(n) ____
parenting style
Permissive
Which of the following is NOT a challenge associated with peer relationships during
childhood?
Poor conflict management
Lilly is trying different sports throughout the summer to determine which team she would like
to try out for in high school. Lilly would likely fall in which of Marcia's identity statuses?
Moratorium
Family adversity, abuse, and parental psychopathology are predictors of _____________
during adolescence.
Suicide
Risky behavior may be due, in part, to an underdeveloped part of the adolescent brain that
controls ________.
self-regulation
Researchers have suggested that certain genetic variations make adolescents more or less
susceptible to environmental influences. This is known as:
Differential susceptibility model
Beth's father often invalidates her feelings and pressures her to think in certain ways. What is
the term for parents' manipulation of adolescents' emotional and cognitive world?
psychological control
Which of the following is NOT a contributing factor to the creation of emerging adulthood as a
distinct life stage?
Starting careers at an earlier age
Erikson believed that individuals should strive to reach identity formation during adolescence.
This is similar to what stage in Marcia's identity theory?
identity achievement
Precious has several friends who look, act, and think in ways similar to her. This similarity is
known as ________.
homophily
The biological changes of puberty and the cognitive changes that occur during adolescence:
Are universal, occurring in all adolescents
What is one intrapersonal factor that affects adolescents' academic achievement?
intrinsic motivation
Global subjective well-being is highest during ______ and lowest in ______.
Early and later adulthood; middle adulthood
According to Carstensen, the Socioemotional Selectivity Theory explains what about older
adults and their social support?
Older adults restrict their social life to include emotionally close friends
Although older adults experience cognitive decline, they perform just as well as younger adults
on tasks that require expert knowledge because:
Their life experience compensates for slower processing speed
Which of the following personality traits has been found to predict important life outcomes,
such as job success, health, and longevity?
Conscientiousness
Opal has learned a lot about housing construction in her 20 years as a realtor. Recalling facts
about siding and insulation would be an example of Opal's _____ intelligence
crystallized
Gary is not fast when completing a vocabulary test but if given enough time can get nearly
100% on the test. While Gary's old age may influence his reaction time, his _______
intelligence is fully intact due to his large amount of life experience and knowledge.
crystallized
Instead of socializing with large groups of acquaintances, Nancy spends her time with a few
people with whom she is emotionally close. Choosing to keep a smaller social circle is in line
with the:
socioemotional selectivity theory
Joe and Morris have been friends for over 50 years. Now in their seventies, Joe still plays golf 3
times a week but Morris has physical limitations that prevent him from doing so. The
differences in the way that these men are aging reflects the concept of __________.
heterogeneity
Why is it that older adults tend to demonstrate worse performance on memory tasks that
involve recall when compared to younger individuals?
Recall tasks draw on working memory skills, which become less efficient as we age.
Research on cognitive abilities in late adulthood suggests that as we age,
fluid intelligence will decline and crystallized intelligence will remain steady.
Personality traits are defined as:
relatively enduring dispositions in behavior that characterize individuals across varying types
of situations
Hans Eysenck suggested that two traits are the most important traits of the Five-Factor Model.
More recently, Jeffrey Gray has suggested that these two traits are important because they are
related to fundamental reward and avoidance systems in the brain. Which two traits of the
Five-Factor Model are Eysenck and Gray referring to, and how do they map onto the reward
and avoidance systems?
Extroverts approach rewards while Neurotic individuals avoid punishment.
According to the Lexical Hypothesis, which of these traits do not "go together"?
Generous - Selfish
_____ means that similar behaviors or tendencies occur across different situations. This
explains why it is often easy to predict how a person will act in a given context.
Consistency
Factor analysis allowed personality theorists to:
analyze the correlations among traits and identify the most important ones
In the "person-situation debate" amongst psychologists, what was Walter Mischel's side of the
argument?
Traits are an illusion. People may not be consistent across situations and thus it would be
fruitful to study the distinct reactions in specific situations
Kyle has a reputation for being very calm during an emergency. He copes very well with stress
and is able to think clearly and make effective decisions. Which of the Big 5 factors of
personality would Kyle likely score low in?
Neuroticism
A person does not "have" or "not have" a personality trait but instead can possess varying
amounts of it. This is because personality traits reflect ____________________ rather
than distinct personality types.
continuous distributions
Adam tries to convince others to give him money for lunch, and one time he influenced his boss
into letting him have a promotion despite the other candidate being more qualified than he
was.
Machiavellian
Walter Mischel (1968, 2009) pointed out this apparent fact about the predictability of
individuals' behavior through personality tests
People's behavior varies greatly situation by situation, but tests can reveal their average
behavior across many situations.
Clint is a very confident person who tends to take charge when he has been assigned to a group
task. Which of the Big 5 factors of personality would Clint likely score high in?
extraversion
Personality refers to ______.
characteristic ways that people differ from one another
Which two traits of the Five-Factor Model does Eysenck consider the most important traits?
Extraversion and Neuroticism
The night before a midterm exam, Wayne is invited to a party by his friends. He decides not to
go to the party because doing well in the course is important to his career goals. Which of the
Big 5 factors of personality would Wayne likely score high in?
Conscientiousness
Istvan is well liked by his friends because he is trusting, considerate, compassionate, loyal, and
easy to get along with. Which of the Big 5 factors of personality would Istvan likely score high
in?
agreeableness
PSYC101 / PSYC 101 Module 4 – General
Psychology (Latest 2026/2027 Update) |
Verified Questions & Correct Answers |
Grade A | Portage Learning
2026
...
/ 2027 Academic Year
Q: In a study described in the textbook, people read passages that put them in the middle of
scenes with objects spread around them. They read, for example, "Directly behind you at eye
level is an ornate lamp attached to the balcony wall." When asked to recall the details of the
scenes, participants
Answer
took more time to say what objects were behind them.
Q: The "hiker puzzle," which is presented in the textbook, illustrates the point that
Answer
the way a problem is represented will affect its difficulty.
Q: First proposed by the philosopher H. Paul Grice, ________ is an overarching rule of
audience design.
Answer
the cooperative principle
Q: Which of the following is an example of judgment?
Answer
Answer
She didn't think their marriage would work.
Q: A review of the research on the ability of people to engage in deductive reasoning
would lead you to the conclusion that
Answer
the use of deductive reasoning is affected by one's specific knowledge and representational
resources.
Q: Your teacher is trying to get the class to use analogical problem solving. When he gives
you a problem to solve by analogical reasoning, you will increase your chances of being
successful by
Answer
using past experiences with similar problems.
Q: In an experimental psychology class, the students watch a rat run from the start box to
a goal box in a maze that has been set up to allow only left-hand turns. The rat's behavior
reminds the students of problem solving. In this context, the maze would be equivalent to
the
Answer
problem space
Q: An executive's chair has begun to wobble because a screw has gotten a little loose, so
he calls the maintenance department. His inability to realize that a dime from his pocket
could also be used as a screwdriver is an example of
Answer
functional fixedness
Q: People engaged in analogical problem solving will try to remember similar problems
they have experienced in the past and solutions that were successful.
Answer
true
Q: Research on the way decisions are framed suggests that framing in terms of gains leads
to better decision making than framing in terms of losses.
Answer
false
Q: Several decades ago, the gap between the IQ scores of African Americans and White
Americans was estimated to be about 15 IQ points. Research from 2002 suggests that in 30
years that gap closed by about ________ points.
Answer
4 to 7
Q: One consequence of the large-scale use of intelligence testing in the United States was
that
Answer
the public came to accept that intelligence tests could differentiate people in terms of
socially important characteristics.
Q: Studies exploring the correlations between IQ scores of individuals on the basis of
their degree of genetic relationship have found that
Answer
identical twins reared apart show higher correlations than fraternal twins reared together.
Q: You are sitting in your time machine, trying to decide what date and location to set.
You want to go back to the earliest time and place that assessment was widely used. You
should set the dial to send you back about ________ years to the country of ________.
Answer
4,000; China
Q: Due in part to the advocacy of psychologists such as Henry Goddard, it became
national policy in 1924 to administer intelligence tests for the purpose of making decisions
concerning the
Answer
suitability of immigrants.
Q: A student has just about finished writing a term paper on the scientific study of
intelligence and now must come up with a concluding statement. If he wants to draw a
conclusion with which most psychologists would agree, he should say that
Answer
there is a difference of opinion about the nature of intelligence.
Q: Terman explored the popular myth that gifted children have problems with social and
emotional adjustment. He found
Answer
his sample to be better adjusted than their less gifted peers.
Q: A person taking the WAIS-IV would receive a
Answer
Full Scale IQ and four additional scale scores.
Q: Howard Gardner's concepts of interpersonal and intrapersonal intelligence are related
to the concept of emotional intelligence, or EI.
Answer
true
Q: A person is diagnosed as having a learning disorder when they demonstrate a large
discrepancy between their achievement and measured IQ, due to such factors as low
motivation or physical problems such as visual deficits.
Answer
false
Q: Which attachment style is the result of the caregivers' inconsistent level of response to
their child?
Answer
Resistant attachment
Q: According to the Social Learning Theory, which factor influences gender identity
development the most?
Answer
Environment
Q: Infant temperament is influenced by heredity and is somewhat predictive of
personality later in life.
Answer
True
Q: The theory that development occurs in unique stages is referred to as:
Answer
Discontinuous Development
According to Erik Erikson's psychosocial development theory, we experience how many
stages of development over our lifespan?
Answer
8
The gender and sexuality spectra encompass (choose all that apply):
Answer
*biological sex
*gender presentation
According to Carol Dweck's (2007) longitudinal study on mindset with middle school
children, there was a steady rate of improvement across the two years observed with those
students that had a:
Answer
Growth mindset
Your more knowledgeable other (MKO) is correlated with your achievement motivation.
Answer
True
Which of the following emotions are considered universal basic emotions? (choose all that
apply)
Answer
*Disgust
*Happiness
*Surprise
Mark has worked several years at the local bakery, where he has both baked and decorated
cakes for various events and parties. He has recently decided to open his own business,
where he plans to bake cakes for parties and weddings. Mark's confidence that he will be
successful in his new business endeavor is known as:
Self-Efficacy
Women and men differ in their regulation of their emotions.
True
Many schools of thought on cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) are based on Lazarus'
Theory.
True
People who see someone who appears angry are likely to _____ the angry person.
avoid
The effects that one's emotions have on other people refer to the ____ functions of
emotions.
interpersonal
All of the following are functions of emotions EXCEPT
rationalizing past behavior
In a popular movie about the Mafia, the head of the family chastises one of his sons, Sonny,
for letting other people know what he was thinking and feeling. "Never let anyone outside
the family know what you are thinking," the Mafia boss says to Sonny. From an emotions
perspective, the father is speaking about _________.
display rules
Which of the following is NOT a basic emotion?
Guilt
Emotions serve a cultural function. One such function is to:
guide how people ought to feel in various situations
The physiological reaction we feel when we experience fear is due to the activity of the
____ nervous system.
Sympathetic
Emotions have
physiological and cognitive elements
Emotions prepare us for behavior by _____ various systems such as attention, memory,
and motivation.
coordinating
The ____ function of emotion refers to the effect of one's person's emotions on other
people or on the relationships between people.
interpersonal
Jacinta believes that people who are military veterans are all brave, honorable, and
respectable. These beliefs represent a(n) ______ that she has for veterans.
attitude
In order to study fear, a neuroscientist connects Natalie to an electroencephalograph (EEG)
and then shows her a brief video of scary animals. These include wasps, snakes, and
alligators. He then observes at Natalie shows activation in her amygdala. At which level of
analysis has this scientist made his observations?
physiology
The fact that none of us are alone in the world - that we are all affected by others and, in
turn, affect others - is the emphasis of the study of _____.
social psychology
What is the area of social psychology that focuses on how people think about others and
about the social world?
social cognition
Devin is interviewing candidates to work at the cash register in his convenience store. When
Margaret applies, she indicates on her application that she has been in rehab for drug
addiction, and that she has been clean and sober for over 3 years. Devin decides not to hire
her, because he thinks people with drug habits are not trustworthy. Devin's actions are
demonstrating ______.
discrimination
The study of ______, which is a major topic of focus for social psychologists, examines the
psychological process involved in having a sexual interest in another person.
attraction
Shortly after she gets to her new college, 2500 miles away from home Tomasa goes to the
school's activity fair to find some groups to join. She immediately signs up to audition for
two different musical clubs, which are her interest. Her desire to join these groups may help
to satisfy her need to _____.
belong
Complementary views for assessing and understanding a phenomenon in psychology are
referred to as levels of _____, and they range from the most general to the most specific.
analysis
Prejudices, stereotypes, and discrimination:
can occur independently but are related
Rueben is in a biology class and the professor tells the students to find a lab partner.
Rueben immediately approaches an Asian classmate because he believes that all Asian
students are naturally good in math and science. Rueben's mental shortcut is an example of
a(n) ______.
stereotype
______ is the tendency to change one's attitude or behavior to match a perceived social
norm.
Conformity
Obedience, even when it is destructive, is more likely when:
the consequences are remote.
an authority figure is giving the command.
there is ambiguity in the situation.
The tendency to act like those around us and be influenced by what they do is called?
Conformity
Hammond has just started working at a new job stacking items at the supermarket. He
notices that most of his colleagues do stretching exercises before they begin their shift. To
fit in with the others and to avoid any disapproval, Hammond also begins to do the
stretching exercises. Which of the following concepts explains Hammond's behavior?
normative influence
Which factor decreased the rates of obedience in studies conducted by Milgram?
Seeing other participants refusing to press the shock levers
When the instructions to continue came from another participant
When the person being shocked was in the same room as the participant
Kelly is at a college party and notices everyone is drinking. She concludes that the majority
of students on campus must also drink alcohol frequently. What would we call Kelly's
perception of what most people are doing?
Descriptive norm
What do we rely on in situations in which there are no clear societal norms?
Descriptive norms
In Asch's line study roughly _______ of participants gave at least one wrong answer.
76%
Milgram's obedience study demonstrated what factor in participants willing to shock others
to an extreme level?
Following orders from an authority figure
The line study conducted by Asch is a prime example of what process?
Normative influence
Listening to your friend's advice for the best place to get ice cream over an ad that states the
same place as the best ice cream shop in town is based on what technique?
Word of mouth
Exposing participants to weak arguments before presenting them with strong persuasive
messages helps participants resist persuasion. What is this effect called?
inoculation
What is one of the implications of the Triad of Trustworthiness?
Without carefully considering the facts, people will believe someone high on the three
factors
Which processing route focuses on logic and relevant material?
Central
Physically attractive people experience many benefits in life. Particularly, more physically
attractive people have an easier time persuading others. Which characteristic is an example
of why this occurs?
Physically attractive people are perceived as having higher moral character.
Which processing route relies on heuristics?
Peripheral
The reason that a "foot-in-the-door" sales pitch technique works is that it
takes advantage of your need to be consistent.
Elsa purchased concert tickets about two months ago. Today is the concert but it's raining
out, meaning Elsa would have to purchase an umbrella and rain boots if she still wants to
go. Why is Elsa still likely to be persuaded to attend the concert?
sunk costs
Tracy enters a car dealership interested in buying a new car. Immediately she is greeted by
a salesman offering her water or soda and a cookie. The salesman is likely relying on what
social norm to help persuade Tracy to buy a car?
reciprocity
Persuasion is most effective when individuals are:
not feeling that their freedom to make a choice is threatened
Ben is playing basketball with his friends one day when he notices everyone else has name
brand shoes. He is uncertain how the quality of his shoes compares to his friends but
because of __________ he feels pressure to conform and ends up buying name brand
shoes for himself by the following week.
social proof
When a bartender offers you a free taste, you feel obligated to purchase the drink. This is an
example of:
reciprocity
What is the most effective way to protect from being persuaded?
To accept just how vulnerable we are
What is one of the implications of the Triad of Trustworthiness?
Without carefully considering the facts, people will believe someone high on the three
factors
The peripheral route to persuasion takes advantage "trigger features" that activate
sequential behavior in animals and humans. What is this sequence of behavior called?
fixed action patterns (FAPs)
What is compared to a "recording" that always happens in the same way every time?
Fixed action patterns
Oscar would like to go to a movie without supervision. To try and get what he wants, he
starts by asking his mom if he can go on a trip to the Rollercoaster Park with just his
friends. When his mom says no, like he predicted, he goes on to ask if he can at least go to
the movies by himself. Oscar's strategy in asking to go to the movies is an example of what
persuasion trick?
door in the face
The Implicit Association Task (IAT) used in research, which records participants' reaction
times to categorizing objects, is measuring what type of attitude?
implicit attitude
Which of the following is an implicit attitude task: the task presents images of faces of men
and women and then measures the time it takes the research participant to label the photo
as good or bad?
evaluative priming task
The area of social psychological that focuses on how people think about others and about
the social world is called social __________.
cognition
Kari visited the doctor recently who told her she needed to start eating better or she is at
risk for a heart attack within the next few years. Kari is very motivated to view herself in a
positive light and doesn't like the news the doctor gave her. She wonders if the doctor's tests
could have been inaccurate. Kari's uncertainty over her health results from the doctor is an
example of what?
motivated skepticism
Which of the following is the most accurate statement about affective forecasting?
People tend to be accurate with predicting whether event will result in positive or negative
feelings but inaccurate regarding the strength or duration of these emotions.
Mood-congruent memory is occurring in which of the following scenarios?
John is currently sad and can more easily recall a time when he got in trouble for a late
assignment.
When being considered for a job opening, people being interviewed often mirror the
interviewer's behavior. This can be explained by what concept?
chameleon effect
The durability bias occurs when a person overestimates how long their feelings might last.
This bias is a type of:
affective forecasting
How is it that schemas help people save time as they have new experiences or encounter
new people or objects on a daily basis?
We compare new experiences to previously stored schemas and this allows us to put forth
less effort to assess those new encounters.
People naturally use mental "shortcuts" to simplify their social world. These shortcuts are
known as:
heuristics
the development of _______________ has provided a new level of advantage for
gathering information from research participants at specific times, often randomly selected,
throughout a given day.
smartphones
Dr. Sharma wants to study the extent to which stress is related to suicidal ideation in people
who suffer from depression. She gathers information about the level of stress, depressive
symptoms, and suicidal thoughts a set of participants experience the day after they attend
the funeral of a loved one. Because this study is assessing people under conditions that are
not typical of everyday life, it is lacking in __________ validity.
ecological
the degree to which a study allows unambiguous casual inferences has _________.
internal validity
Dr. Fikshunal is interested in how our bodies respond to being excluded from a group.
Therefore, she decides to monitor the heart rate and cortisol levels of participants as they
engage in their environment and indicate experiences when they felt ostracized. In this
scenario, Dr. Fikshunal is:
studying daily physiology
researchers that study the online behavior of people focus on their:
virtual language behavior
Dru is reading about the different types of research. If he reads, "This type of research has
the primary advantage of allowing a scientist to determine cause and effect relationships,"
what kind of research method is he studying?
a laboratory experiment
Imagine that researchers were interested in learning about public support for gay marriage.
If the researchers analyzed Facebook posts regarding the acceptance or rejection of
homosexuality (via opinions in status updates, article posts, or groups they officially like),
they would be:
studying online behavior
the degree to which a study ensures that potential findings apply to settings and samples
other than the ones being studied refers to:
external validity
what type of research highlights causality, allowing the cause to be separated from the
effect?
laboratory experiments
it is important to design research experiments that are associated with real-world situations
in order to ___________ findings to a larger population
generalize
Dr. Tylka is conducting research about the risk of developing eating disorders in adolescent
boys. She concludes that her findings apply not only to the sample of high school boys she
studied, but to other males in other settings and contexts. In this regard, Dr. Tylka is stating
that her findings have high __________ validity.
external
____ refers to the degree to which causal inferences can be made in the study; ____ refers
to the degree that the study's findings can be applied to the larger population
internal: external
The ability to arrive at broad conclusions based on smaller ones is known as __________.
It requires that the sample under investigation be representative of the larger population
from which it was drawn
generalizability
When researchers take special care to include and control for every possible variable, the
study is likely to have high ___________, even though the results may not generalize to a
more realistic situation
internal validity
For Lindsey's dissertation, she has e-mails sent out to people 4 times a day for 4 weeks. In
these e-mails, she asks about current emotional experiences and activities. What method is
she using?
experience sampling
Dr. Hart is interested in the role of relationships in preventing heart disease. As her
patients come into her office in Bluebell, Alabama, she asks them two questions: Are you a
in a relationship? Have you experienced any heart problems in the last 8 years? Based on
her findings, she concludes that relationships cause cardiovascular (heart) problems. One
issue with her methodology is that the results are not generalizable. What does this mean?
her results may not be true for the entire population
As a researcher, you decide that you are very interested in peoples' everyday behavior (i.e.,
daily social interactions and activities). Therefore, you decide to use an electronically
activated recorder, or EAR device, to capture the acoustic diary of participants' days as they
naturally unfold. In this scenario, you are:
studying daily behavior
The degree to which the effect, or findings, have been obtained under conditions that are
typical for what happens in everyday life and daily routines.
ecological validity
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