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HESI-A2 CHEMISTRY HESI-A2 CHEMISTRY Chemistry note cards for HESI entrance exam Question Answer Matter that has a definite shape and volume soli... [Show More] d Matter that changes in volume with changes in temperature and pressure gas A change of matter is when no change is made to the chemical composition of a substance. physical Simplest of substances and is represented by a letter or letters element Law that states matter can neither be created nor destroyed during a chemical reaction Law of conservation of mass The breaking of bonds and reforming of new bonds to create new chemical compounds with different chemical formulas and different chemical properties Chemical reaction 5 main chemical reactions synthesis, decomposition, combustion, single replacement, double replacement Chemical reaction in which 2 elements combine to form a product synthesis Chemical reaction that is the breaking of a compound into component parts decomposition The chemical reaction that is the reaction of a compound with oxygen combustion Chemical reaction that consists of an active metal reaction with an ionic compound creating a new compound single replacement Chemical reaction involving 2 ionic compounds; the reactant yields "switched partners" double replacement how elements are arranged on the periodic table by their chemical properties Number that represents the # of protons an atomic number element has average of the masses of each of its isotopes as they occur in nature atomic mass Mass number - atomic number = # of neutrons in an element Columns of the periodic table = groups Rows of the periodic table = periods Group IA = charge +1 Group IIA = charge +2 Group IIIA = charge +3 Group VA = charge -3 Group VIA = charge -2 Group VIIA = charge -1 Charge of noble gases 0 Positively charged ions protons Negatively charged ions electrons Neutral ions neutrons # of proteins in an element = atomic number proteins + neutrons = mass number In reactions, atoms try to reach stable electron configurations. chemical reactions take place in the nucleus, to obtain stable nuclear configurations. nuclear Word used to describe the emission of particles from an unstable nucleus. radioactivity The particles that are emitted during radioactivity radiation 3 types of radiation alpha, beta, gamma Radiation that is the emission of helium ions alpha Alpha radiation particles have a charge of +2 How can penetration from alpha particles be stopped? piece of paper Radiation that is a product of the decomposition of a neutron. It is composed of high-speed, high- energy electrons. beta radiation How can beta radiation particles be stopped? aluminum foil radiation is high-energy electromagnetic radiation that lacks charge and mass. gamma What radiation can be stopped by several feet of concrete or several inches of lead? gamma radiation 2 types of chemical bonding ionic & covalent What bond is an electrostatic attraction between 2 oppositely charged ions? (between metals & nonmetals) ionic A single bond is formed when 2 atoms share a pair of electrons. covalent A bond is formed when 2 electron pairs are shared. double covalent A bond is formed when 3 electron pairs are shared. triple covalent What is the strongest type of chemical bond? What is it formed by? covalent bond; non-metals In a covalent bond compound, if the electrons are shared equally, then the bond is . non-polar If electrons are not shared equally in a covalent bond, the bond is . polar is based on the difference in electronegativity values for the elements involved polarity Hydrogen bonding, dipole interactions and dispersion forces. intermolecular forces Bond that is the attraction for a hydrogen atom by a highly electronegative element. hydrogen bond Elements fluorine, chlorine, oxygen and nitrogen are generally involved in a bond. hydrogen Bond that is the strongest of the intermolecular forces hydrogen The attractions of one dipole for another dipole interactions A is created when an electron pair in a covalent bond is shared unequally dipole A dipole attraction is a intermolecular force. weak The weakest of all intermolecular forces. dispersion forces Dispersion forces are typically found in covalent compounds. Non-polar 6.02 x 10^23 is a mole The mass of one mole of a substance atomic mass The part of chemistry that deals with the quantities and numeric relationships between compounds in a chemical reaction. stoichiometry To balance an equation, are placed in front of each component. coefficient 4 ways to increase the reaction rate increase temperature, increase surface area, increase concentrations and reactants and add a catalyst Increasing the causes the particles to have greater kinetic energy, allowing them to move faster and have a greater chance temperature Accelerates a reaction by reducing the activation energy, or the amount of energy needed for a reaction to occur. catalyst reaction involve the transfer of electrons from one element to another redox The loss of electrons oxidation The gain of electrons reduction Sum of oxidation #'s = The charge on polyatomic ions Compounds acting as hydrogen-ion donors acids Compounds acting a hydrogen-ion acceptor bases pH value less that 7.0; taste sour/tart; produce h30+ (most of their formulas begin with H) acids Produce OH-; taste is bitter, feels slippery; conduct electricity; formulas contain OH-, pH value is greater than 7.0 bases What characterizes a chemical reaction as combustion? adding O2 What is the change of potassium in KCl? +1 because K is found in group IA How many electrons does an oxygen ion have 10 (it has an atomic # of 8 and is in group VIA, which has a -2 charge, which means it has 2 more electrons than he 8 protons). How many neutrons does an atom of carbon -14 contain? 8 (take the mass #-atomic # = neutrons) 14-6=8 What is the strongest type of chemical bond? covalent bond What is the mass of one mole of CO2? 44g/mol (C=12.011 + (15.999 x 2) = answer) How many moles are present in 2 moles of O2? 1.204 x 10^24 (1 mole - 6.02 x 10^23, 2 mole would be double that) What would be the oxidation state of the sulfur atom in sulfuric acid, H2SO4? +6 [Show Less]
hesi-a2-exam-grammar-questions-and-answers-latest-update. HESI A2 – Grammar NB: Majority of these questions are directly from the HESI, and some are ... [Show More] in the same format that is similar to the questions on the exam. Which sentence is grammatically correct? a.) Who’s coming to the party? b.) Whose to blame for the economy? c.) Who’s hat is this? d.) Whose going to vote? - Correct answer: A Who’s: who is Whose: belonging to someone a.) I went two the store. b.) I want ice cream, too. c.) The nurse gave him too shots. d.) I want to know your name. - Correct answer: D There is no right or wrong for adding a comma before the word ‘too’ – however, the comma indicates primarily for emphasis, meaning it is not necessary. a.) He did well on his diet. b.) He done well on his diet. c.) He did good on his diet. d.) He done good on his diet. - Correct answer: A Did well vs. Did Good Well is used as an adverb, describing the verb. Good is used as an adjective, to describe a noun. ‘He sang well’ is the appropriate use of well (describes how he sang). ‘He is a good boy’ is the appropriate use of good, which is used to describe the noun (boy). a.) Several lost his or her keys on the train. b.) Does everyone have their train tickets ready? c.) Is everyone ready for their ice cream sundaes? d.) Somebody left his or her jacket on the train. - Correct answer: D Everyone is singular, so ‘their’ is not matched correctly to the singular noun. Several is plural, so it should be ‘their keys’, and not ‘his or her’. Which sentence should replace the following incorrect sentence? - This door to remain unlocked when occupied.” a.) This door will remain unlocked when the office is occupied. b.) This door to remain unclosed while open. c.) This sentence is correct as written. d.) This office must have the door unlocked at all times. - Correct answer: A Which sentence is grammatically correct? a.) Sarah plays her new saxophone well. b.) The band did good during the halftime show. c.) The band that played before ours was well. - Correct answer: A Sarah plays (verb) her new saxophone well (adverb). Well is used correctly in this sentence. Answer choice B does not use good in the correct term. It should be ‘the band did well’ because (did) is the verb. Remember, well is an adverb. Answer choice C should be ‘the band that played before ours was good’, because it’s describing the band (noun), and good is an (adjective) used to describe a noun. Which use of apostrophe is correct in the sentence? Because of staff change’s, the list of the birthday’s was distributed to all worker’s in the business’ three offices. a.) Change’s b.) Worker’s c.) Business’ d.) Birthday’s - Correct answer: C Business’ is used correctly – it is showing ownership of the business’ three offices. The possessive of a plural noun is formed by adding only an apostrophe when the noun ends in s. Which sentence is grammatically correct? a.) The patient told the nurse, “put the flowers on the table over their.” b.) The students looked at their test scores. c.) Their comes a time when one choose between right and wrong. d.) Their waiting for you. - Correct answer: B The word ‘their’ is not used correctly in any of the answer choices besides B. ‘Their’ is used for ownership. Answer choice C should be written as ‘there comes a time when one chooses between right and wrong. Answer choice D should be written as ‘they’re (they are) waiting for you. Answer choice A should be written as “put the flowers on the table over there”. Identify the dependent clause in this sentence: The mother dog left her bed as soon as the puppies were asleep. a.) As soon as the puppies were asleep b.) Left her bed as c.) The puppies were asleep d.) The mother dog left her bed - Correct answer: A An independent clause is a sentence that can be used independently – which applies to answer choices C and D. A dependent clause is a sentence that contains a subject (noun) and verb, but it cannot stand on its meaning. A dependent clause usually begins with a subordinate clause (because, who, before, when, for, as, although, after…) – Answer choice A starts with a subordinate clause and requires an independent clause to make up the complete sentence. Select the sentence in which snake is used as a VERB. a.) The cobra is a venomous snake. b.) The spy had to snake his way furtively onto the train. c.) The plumber used his snake to open up the clogged pipe. d.) You are being a snake when you steal from me. - Correct answer: B A verb is used to describe an action, state, or occurrence. Answer choice A is incorrect because ‘snake’ is used as a noun. Answer choice C is also incorrect because it is used as a noun – a snake is a device used to help clear clogged drains/pipes. Answer choice D is incorrect because it is describing the person as a snake – adjective (used to describe a noun). Select the sentence that is grammatically correct. a.) The nurse spoke to my sister and I about our mother’s condition. b.) The nurse spoke to my sister and me about our mother’s condition. c.) The nurse spoke to me and my sister about our mother’s condition. d.) The nurse spoke to I and my sister about our mother’s condition. - Correct answer: B The best way to understand what works best is by separating the sentences – break it down: “The nurse spoke to me about my mother’s condition.” This statement is grammatically correct. “The nurse spoke to I about my mother’s condition” is not grammatically correct. When in doubt, split the sentences. Select the word that is grammatically incorrect. The most important things in my life are making money, traveling abroad, and to live well. a.) In b.) To live c.) The most d.) Are - Correct answer: B Note that the verbs end in ‘ing’ – present participle – so, the correct term would be ‘living well’, not ‘to live well’. Based on the principals of asepsis, the nurse should consider a sterile packet below waist level to be contaminated. a.) To be b.) Principals c.) Asepsis d.) Waist - Correct answer: B Always pay attention to each word being used – principals sound the same as PRINCIPLES, but have completely different meanings. I will call you when I will get back from visiting my sister. a.) Visiting b.) My c.) When d.) Will get - Correct answer: D Her mother asked her what would she do after she graduated from college. a.) From b.) Her c.) Would/she d.) Mother - Correct Answer: C The grammatically correct sentence would be stated as: “Her mother asked her what she would do after she graduated from college.” The words are switched. Select the word or phrase that makes the sentence grammatically correct. After having robbed the bank, a.) The back president offered a reward for the thief. b.) The thief’s wife became very nervous. c.) The police searched for the thief for many weeks. d.) The thief hid at the house of a friend. - Correct answer: D The sentence starts with a dependent clause (hint: subordinating conjunction – after); the sentence cannot stand alone, meaning it needs to be accompanied by an independent clause. A clause is a collection of phrases with the subject and verb – so answer choice D matches the subject (thief) – his action after having robbed the bank Select the word or phrase that is grammatically incorrect. When you add sugar to it, your cup of coffee becomes not only sweet, but also fattening. a.) Also b.) Becomes c.) To d.) Cup of - Correct answer: B or A? This is a conflicting answer – this exact question appeared on the exam and I chose answer choice B. I agree that the word ‘but’ should be added before ‘also’; however the word ‘becomes’ is placed in an awkward position in the sentence. I don’t think it’s placed in the right spot – the sentence should instead read ‘your cup of coffee not only becomes sweet, but also fattening.’ The word ‘becomes’ is misplaced, and the word ‘also’ is lacking a friend – ‘but’. So, the word ‘becomes’ would be the most likely answer. Long before his death, Pablo Picasso had became one of the most important artists in history. a.) In b.) Long before c.) Had became d.) The most - Correct answer: C The most correct phrase would be ‘was’ – the sentence states before his death, meaning that the verb should be past tense. He was one of the most important artists in history. Select the correct word(s) for the blank in the following sentences: are very ancient people. a.) The Chinese b.) Chinese c.) The Chineses d.) Chineses - Correct answer: A The word ‘Chinese’ can be singular or plural – but ‘Chineses’ is not a word, nor is it the plural form for the word Chinese. It is important that John his resume immediately. a.) Sends b.) Send c.) Sent d.) Sended - Correct answer: B There is an exact question on the exam that uses the following statement ‘It is required that he SEND the payment immediately.’ Please make note this is what’s called SUBJUNCTIVE MOOD! This means that the sentence is a request, demand, or an order – which is why the verb is SEND and not SENDS. For example, ‘the teacher demanded that the student APOLOGIZE to the class.’ See how it’s apologize, and not apologizes – please make note of what the sentence is stating. Which phrase should be moved to the end of the sentence? The painter decided to use the urn as his subject with flowers on the table. a.) With flowers b.) The urn c.) The painter decided d.) As his subject - Correct answer: D Read the sentence carefully – the painter wanted to use the urn with flowers on the table – FOR WHAT? To use as his subject! Identify the dependent clause in the following sentence: Sofia won’t be able to compete in the race because she wrecked her car. a.) Because she wrecked her car b.) Compete in the race c.) Sofia won’t be able to compete in the race d.) Her car - Correct answer: A The BEST way to find the dependent clause is to look for the SUBORDINATE CONJUNCTION (after, because, before, while, but, also, when, as, etc.) – answer choice C won’t work because it’s an independent sentence (simple sentence). Answer choice A is correct because of the biggest clue: BECAUSE (subordinate conjunction). Select the word or phrase that makes the sentence grammatically correct. She was so mad at her boyfriend, she on him when he called. a.) Yelled b.) Screamed c.) Speak d.) Hung up - Correct answer: D A tuberculin skin test should be read within 24 hours administration. a.) Of b.) Since c.) As d.) From - Correct answer: A If they that the weather was going to be so bad, they wouldn’t have gone to the beach. a.) Had known b.) Were knowing c.) Knew d.) Known - Correct answer: A Answer choice A is the most grammatically correct answer – because they did not know, that they had no knowledge. Answer choice C means that they knew that the weather was going to be bad and went anyway, which is incorrect. Had they known that the weather was going to be bad, they would have avoided going to the beach. My mother and went shopping for clothes yesterday. a.) Us b.) Me c.) Myself d.) I - Correct answer: D The best way to understand this is by splitting the sentences apart – “I went shopping for clothes yesterday.” This is grammatically correct. “Me/myself went shopping for clothes” is incorrect. “Us went shopping for clothes” is also incorrect. [Show Less]
hesi-a2-grammar-exam-questions-and-answers GRAMMAR 1. Select the word that makes this sentence grammatically correct: Is the new student coming out to ... [Show More] lunch with ? A. we B. our C. us D. they 2. Select the word or phrase that makes this sentence grammatically correct: picking up groceries one of the things you are supposed to do? A. Is B. Am C. Is it D. Are 3. Select the word that makes the following sentence grammatically correct. These days, you can’t learning how to use a computer. A. not B. evading C. despite D. avoid 4. Which word is not spelled correctly in the context of the following sentence? The climate hear is inappropriate for snow sports such as skiing. A. climate B. hear C. inappropriate D. skiing 5. Select the word or phrase that makes the following sentence grammatically correct. screaming took the shopkeeper by surprise. A. We B. They C. Them D. Our 6. Select the word or phrase that makes the following sentence grammatically correct. Why did we try so hard? A. has to B. haven’t C. had to D. have to 7. Select the word that makes the following sentence grammatically correct. Tracey wore her hair in a French braid, was the style at the time. A. among B. it C. that D. which 8. Select the phrase that makes the following sentence grammatically correct. Working the mission of the entire committee. A. to peace is B. toward peace was C. to peace was D. toward peace am 9. Select the phrase that makes the following sentence grammatically correct. Janet called her run after a squirrel. A. dog, who had B. dog that had C. dog, that had D. dog who had 10. Select the correct word for the blank in the following sentence. After completing the intense surgery, Dr. Capra needed a long . A. brake B. break C. brink D. broke 11. Select the correct word for the blank in the following sentence. The other day, Stan reviewing his class notes in preparation for the final exam. A. begins B. begun C. begin D. began 12. Select the word that makes the following sentence grammatically correct. She asked to take her around the corner to the drugstore. A. him B. his C. he D. his’ 13. Select the word or phrase that makes the following sentence grammatically correct. Felix was pleased the progress he had made in his program. A. among B. with C. regards D. besides 14. Select the word or phrase that makes the following sentence grammatically correct. After waking up, Dean eyed the cheesecake . A. hungry B. hungriest C. hungrily D. more hungry 15. Which word is not used correctly in the context of the following sentence? After ringing up the nails, the cashier handed Nedra her recipe and change. A. ringing B. cashier C. recipe D. change 16. Select the correct word for the blank in the following sentence. Sharon felt about how her speech had gone. A. well B. good C. finely D. happily 17. What word is used incorrectly in the following sentence? Brendan spent the day lying a brick foundation on the site. A. site B. on C. spent D. lying 18. Select the word or phrase that makes this sentence grammatically correct: Children obey their parents tend to do better in school. A. who B. which C. should D. to 19. Select the word or phrase that makes this sentence grammatically correct: The development committee a bargain with the city planners. A. striked B. stroke C. struck D. strike 20. Select the word or phrase that makes this sentence grammatically correct: A child is not yet old enough to know what is healthy for . A. him or her B. them C. it D. she or he 21. Select the word or phrase that makes this sentence grammatically correct: Theo was in great shape; he all the way back to the pier. A. swam B. swimmed C. swum D. swim 22. Select the word that makes this sentence grammatically correct: While he was an apprentice, Steve a great deal of time in the studio. A. spends B. spent C. spended D. spend 23. Select the word that correctly completes the following sentence. The intern was surprised by the of pain he was in after his first day of work. A. amount B. frequency C. number D. amplitude 24. What word is used incorrectly in the following sentence? Whoever wrote the letter forgot to sign their name. A. Whoever B. wrote C. their D. name 25. Select the word or phrase that makes this sentence grammatically correct: The child’s fever was high for him to lie comfortably in bed. A. to B. much C. too D. more 26. Select the word or phrase that makes the following sentence grammatically correct. Sometimes, the condition with an unusual symptom—vertigo. A. presence B. presents C. present D. prescience 27. Which word is not used correctly in the context of the following sentence? There is no real distinction among the two treatment protocols recommended online. A. real B. among C. protocols D. online 28. Select the best words for the blanks in the following sentence. The patient wanted to down on the bed, but first she had to her tray of food on the table. A. lie, lay B. lay, lie C. lie, laid D. lain, lying 29. Which word from the following sentence is a noun? The bird flew across the blue sky. A. across B. flew C. bird D. blue 30. Which word in the following sentence is a conjunction? The little girl wanted a cookie, but she didn’t take one. A. little B. but C. take D. the 31. Which word in the following sentence is a direct object? The nurse helped the patient with the medication. A. helped B. nurse C. patient D. medication 32. Which word or phrase in the following sentence is a subject? The nurses went to the conference room. A. conference B. went to C. room D. nurses 33. Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct? A. Walking home from class, the students watched the snow begin to fall. B. Walking home from class, the snow began falling on the students. C. Walking home from class, snow fell on the students. D. Walking home from class, the students watched the snow fell. 34. Select the best word for the blank in the following sentence. The student sang well, but she danced . A. bad B. badly C. poor D. poorer 35. Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct? A. I wanted ice cream; he wanted cake. B. I wanted ice cream he wanted cake. C. I wanted ice cream, he wanted cake. D. I wanted ice cream but he wanted cake. 36. Select the best word for the blank in the following sentence. The college he chose is in New York A. which B. that C. who D. what 37. Select the best word or words for the blank in the following sentence. The nurses, except for Henry, A. waits B. is waiting C. are waiting D. was waiting 38. Select the word or phrase in the sentence that is not used correctly. The data confirms that the patient is suffering from extreme anxiety, and a tranquilizing medication is immediately required. A. extreme anxiety B. confirms C. is D. immediately 39. Select the word or phrase that will make the sentence grammatically correct. The professor had a huge of tests to grade. A. number B. amount C. aggregate D. stacks 40. Which word is used incorrectly in the following sentence? Will you learn me how to do origami? A. me B. will C. learn D. origami 41. Select the correct word for the blank in the following sentence. The members of the group to be seated together. A. wanting B. want C. wants D. waiting 42. Select the correct word for the blank in the following sentence. The student completed the test . A. quite B. quick C. quitely D. quickly 43. Select the correct word(s) for the blank in the following sentence. The student thought the second test was than the first test. A. harder B. more hard C. hardest D. most hardest 44. Select the correct word for the blank in the following sentence. The dog wagged tail when the food dish was filled. A. the B. one’s C. its D. it’s 45. What word is best to substitute for the underlined words in the following sentence? The boy watched the lights in the house go off. A. Him B. His C. They D. He 46. Select the word or phrase that will make the sentence grammatically correct. thought the movie was very good. A. Us B. We C. Them D. Ourselves 47. Select the word or phrase that makes this sentence grammatically correct. The hospital is located at the top the hill. A. of B. off C. in D. on 48. Select the best word for the blank in the following sentence. He was by her kind words. A. affect B. effect C. effected D. affected 49. Which of the following sentences is grammatically incorrect? A. He performed well on the test. B. He performed good on the test. C. He performed poorly on the test. D. He performed adequately on the test. 50. In the following sentence, which is the dependent clause? We played a game while we waited, and then we had dinner. A. We played B. then we had dinner C. while we waited D. a game [Show Less]
hesi-a2-vocabulary-exam-questions-and-answers-all-corrrect VOCABULARY 1. What word meaning “once a year” fits best in the sentence? The family re... [Show More] union picnic was held at the Jones farm instead of the county park. A. regular B. annual C. biennial D. holiday 2. Docile is best defined as being . A. defiant B. disobedient C. firm D. compliant 3. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. Because the patient had an occluded artery, the physician decided to perform cardiovascular surgery. A. Obstructed B. Open C. Broken D. Cloudy 4. Select the word that means “an undesired problem that is the result of some other event.” The complication of the surgery caused the patient to remain in the hospital to have an additional complement of testing procedures implemented. A. Complication B. Complement C. Procedures D. Implemented 5. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The dog developed bilateral weakness in its hindquarters, so the veterinarian created a wheeled cart to help the dog walk. A. Present on two sides B. Available for exercise C. Affecting the left side D. Affecting the right side 6. Select the correct definition of the underlined word. The doctor’s prognosis gave the patient and his family reason to feel optimistic about the surgery. A. Instructions B. Estimate C. Behavior D. Outcome statement 7. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The child developed a labile condition that worried the parents, so they brought the child to the doctor’s office for a checkup. A. Fevered B. Volatile C. Stomach D. Vision 8. The nurse noted in the chart, “The patient is lethargic.” How was the patient behaving? A. Pacing the halls, yelling at the staff B. Difficult to arouse C. Shaking uncontrollably D. Not responding to painful stimuli 9. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The doctor made an initial examination of the patient. A. Complete B. First C. Incomplete D. Discharge 10. Select the word or phrase that will identify the correct meaning of the underlined word. Progeny is a term used to describe a person’s A. creditors B. offspring C. hereditary disease D. health status 11. What is the best description for the word distal? A. The part of the heart that receives blood from the lungs B. Urgent C. The part of the body farthest from the injury D. Empathetic 12. Select the correct definition of the underlined word. The incidence of smoking has decreased in recent years because of the effectiveness of advertising campaigns. A. Prestige B. Glamour C. Occurrence D. Influence 13. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. When examined, the laboring mother was at 50% dilation. A. Blood pressure B. Cervical opening C. Birth process D. Exhumation 14. Which word is not spelled correctly in the context of this sentence? The nurse went form room to room looking for the missing patient. a. patient b. form c. nurse d. missing 15. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. To alleviate his pain, the nurse gave the patient a PRN medication. a. Pinpoint b. Relocate c. Eradicate d. Reduce 16. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. Being bilingual is an advantage for a nurse. a. Able to speak more than one language b. Able to use either hand with equal skill and ease c. Not squeamish when seeing blood d. Can remember everything that is read 17. What is the best description for the term fracture? a. Break b. Brake c. Cut d. Cure 18. Which word is not spelled correctly in the context of the sentence? The physician thought it was unecessary to explain the procedure. a. physician b. unecessary c. explain d. procedure 19. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. Exogenous factors will affect the patient’s well-being. a. Produced outside the body b. Produced within the body c. Produced by the kidneys d. Hereditary 20. To implement something is to . a. prevent it from occurring b. emphasize the importance of c. cause it to happen d. follow from beginning to end 21. Posterior refers to which part of the body? a. Topmost b. Lowermost c. Front d. Back 22. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The precipitous change was considered a good thing. a. Difficult b. Abrupt c. Gentle d. Unanticipated 23. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. His untoward actions during the admission process created a problem for the nurse. a. Violent b. Casual c. Unseemly d. Capricious 24. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. It is important that the bandage remain intact. a. Dry b. Whole c. Uncovered d. Secure 25. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. It is not wise to skimp on personal hygiene. a. Measures contributing to cleanliness and good health b. Financial resources available through the employment department c. Insurance d. Friendliness 26. The patient fractured the lateral portion of the hip bone, which is known as the . a. ilium b. ileum c. icterus d. ileus 27. Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence. The parameters of medical ethics require the nurse to report instances of suspected child abuse. a. Laws b. Limits c. Common sense d. Structure 28. Select the correct order of words to fit in the sentence structure. The nursing put the Band- on the wound to the nurse. a. aid, aide, aide b. aide, aid, aid c. aid, aide, aid d. aide, aid, aide 29. A person who is ravenous is . a. generous b. outspoken c. friendly d. hungry 30. Select the meaning of the underlined word in this sentence: It is vital for the victim of a serious accident to receive medical attention immediately. a. recommended b. discouraged c. essential d. sufficient 31. What is the best description for the word insidious? a. stealthy b. deadly c. collapsed d. new 32. Select the word that means “take into the body.” a. congest b. ingest c. collect d. suppress 33. What is the meaning of the word proscribe? a. anticipate b. prevent c. defeat d. forbid 34. Select the meaning of the underlined word in this sentence. Wracked by abdominal pain, the victim of food poisoning moaned and rubbed his distended belly. a. concave b. sore c. swollen d. empty 35. Select the meaning of the underlined word in this sentence: Despite the absence of overt signs, Dr. Harris suspected that Alicia might be suffering from the flu. a. concealed b. apparent c. expert d. delectable 36. Select the word that means “something added to resolve a deficiency or obtain completion.” a. supplement b. complement c. detriment d. acumen 37. Select the word that means “a violent seizure.” a. revelation b. nutrient c. contraption d. paroxysm 38. What is the meaning of carnivore? a. hungry b. meat eating c. infected d. demented 39. What is the meaning of belligerent? a. retired b. sardonic c. pugnacious d. acclimated 40. Select the word that means “on both sides.” a. bilateral b. insufficient c. bicuspid d. congruent 41. Select the meaning of the underlined word in this sentence: Dr. Grant ignored Mary’s particular symptoms, instead administering a holistic treatment for her condition. a. insensitive b. ignorant c. specialized d. concerned with the whole rather than the parts 42. What is the best description for the word suppress? a. stop b. push up c. release d. strain 43. Select the word that means “about to happen.” a. depending b. offending c. suspending d. impending 44. Select the meaning of the underlined word in this sentence: The dermatologist was struck by the symmetric patterns of scarring on the patient’s back. a. scabbed b. painful to the touch c. occurring in corresponding parts at the same time d. geometric 45. Select the word that means “open.” a. inverted b. patent c. convent d. converted 46. Select the meaning of the underlined word in this sentence: Despite an increase in the volume of his urine, the patient still reported bloating. a. quality b. length c. quantity d. loudness 47. What is the meaning of repugnant? a. destructive b. selective c. collective d. offensive 48. Select the word that means “enlarge.” a. dilate b. protrude c. confuse d. occlude 49. What is the best description for the word intact? a. collapsed b. disconnected c. unbroken d. free 50. Select the word that means “the ability to enter, contact, or approach.” a. ingress b. excess c. access d. success [Show Less]
HESI A2 V2 Exam Questions with Answers (All Correct) Grammar 1. My father and I looked at her/hers. 2. I am looking forward to my birthday party ... [Show More] next week. a. Going b. Go c. Have d. Having 3. Coffee experts feel that the coffee blend is a dark blend. a. More greater b. Great c. Best d. More greatest 4. The nurse made a error with the medication, do the doctor made notes about it in the patients file. a. About it b. A c. With d. Made 5. Finishing isn’t as important as answering correctly. a. Quick b. As quick c. So quickist d. Quickly 6. Which sentence is grammatically correct? a. A lot of people enjoy baseball movies. b. The patient said he took alot of pills yesterday. c. Alotts of time drivers go too fast. 7. Which sentence is grammatically incorrect? a. Everyone enjoys ripping the wrapping paper off their holiday gifts. b. The racer ran swiftly down the track. c. The red fox jumped quickly over the sleeping dog. d. She lit scented candles so the air will smell sweetly. 8. Which sentence is grammatically correct? a. It is important to too spell correctly. b. I have two go to the gym. c. We have too kinds of desserts. d. It is too heavy for me to lift. 9. Which word is not used correctly in the sentence? They’re going to the mall to pick up there uniforms for their coach. a. Their b. Going c. They’re d. There 10. After throwing their sleeping bags into the backseat of their car, they more than 400 miles to reach their destination. a. Driving b. Having driven c. Drove d. Had drove 11. Place the four words in alphabetical order. a. Assemble, assembled, assembling, assembly b. Assembly, assemble, assembled, assembling c. Assemble, assembly, assembling, assembled d. Assemble, assembly, assembled, assembling 12. The shopper was angry when he realized he it cheaper at the other store. a. Get b. Could have got c. Could have gotten d. Might have get 13. Which sentence is not grammatically correct? a. Because he did not examine the patient, the healthcare provider prescribed her with the wrong medication. b. The nurse decided to bathe the client, than trim his nails. c. The dietician, through negligence, made a mistake with the diet plan. d. Since the child was feeling ill, the nurse sent him home. 14. What is a salutation in this address? a. 1600 Pennsylvania Ave. b. 20003 (Area code) c. Ryan d. Mr. 15. I the package on the table a. Layed b. Drop c. Laid d. Lay 16. Which sentence uses fast as an adverb? a. The cars on the overpass moved fast. b. The clock on the wall is 10 minutes fast. c. The batter could not hit the fast pitch d. The fast cars drove over the bridge 17. Most children must learn for the importance of good manners. a. Themself b. Theirself c. Theirselves d. Themselves 18. Be careful not to the bottle while you carry it to the table. a. Brak b. Break c. Brick d. Brake 19. She went to the party her dislike for the host. a. Despite of b. Even though c. Although d. In spite of 20. Which word is not grammatically correctly? During the time he lived in New York, he worked as a writer, an editor, and a library. a. An b. Library c. As d. During 21. A sentence must always begin with a capitol letter, but many people forget this rule. a. Must always b. Simple c. Forget d. Capitol 22. Which sentence is grammatically correct? a. He did bad on the test. b. He felt bad about the broken window. c. He felt badly about being late. d. When the patient feels badly, give him an aspirin. 23. During the fight, I was hit on the . a. Head b. On head c. A head d. The head 24. Which sentence is grammatically correct? a. The results suggests the patient has a bacterial infection. b. Harmony are agreeable features of classical music. c. The student were excited to have passed the test. d. The bottle of tablet has an expired expiration date. 25. My sister gave the chocolate bar to my friend and . a. Myself b. Me c. Us d. We 26. Which of the sentences below are incomplete sentences? a. We sat out the next dance. b. While the band played. c. The band played a nice slow song. d. Everyone enjoyed the dance. 27. Which sentence is grammatically correct? a. It was me who lost. b. It was I who won. c. The winner was him d. The runner was her. 28. Which sentence is grammatically correct? a. She went to the room at the appointed time. b. I want ice cream to. c. The nurse gave me to shots. d. The patient was to cold. 29. The men and women of the graduating class their caps in the air. a. Thorough b. Through c. Threw d. Throwing 30. Which sentence is grammatically correct? a. My parent’s advice me of all my major transactions. b. Elle advised me to go to the dance. c. We advice all new freshmen to take a public speaking class. d. I need some good advise on how to breakup with my girlfriend. 31. Use the verb correctly. a. A pitchfork and a halter was left on the concrete floor. b. There are a pig, sheep, and horse in the red trailer. c. Here is the cages for the 2 rabbits and 2 chickens. d. Sherri and her cousin were at the County fair this year. 32. Which sentence is grammatically correct? a. Him and I are the best drivers during the day time. b. Him and me drove 6 hours to our hometown. c. Me and him took put the dirty laundry in the trunk. d. He and I took turns driving every hour after dark. 33. Which sentence is the verb used correctly? a. I seen you standing in line at the Tilt-A-Whirl at the country fair. b. I sung the national anthem before the country fair moto-cross race. c. I ran toward the country fair arena with Nibbles the Rabbit. d. I wore a white shirt and dark jeans to show my goat at the country fair. 34. Which word is not correctly used in the sentence? Confidentiality be observed at all times, so the nurse should not discuss clients when the conversation can be overheard. a. Be observed b. By c. Can be d. Should not 35. Which sentence is grammatically correct? a. Sam behaved bad during Mr. Johnson’s lecture. b. Mona performed badly during dance class. c. The chem lab after 3rd period smells badly. d. Joe limped bad after his collision in gym class. 36. Which word is not correct? The student did not recognize which backpack was her’s. a. Backpack b. Student c. Her’s d. Recognize 37. Which sentence is grammatically correct? a. Sarah plays her new saxophone well. b. The dog catches the freebee good. c. The band did good during the half time show. d. The band that played before ours was well. 38. He tried to remember the names of all the people were there that night. a. Whom b. That c. Which d. Whose 39. If I you, I’d leave now. a. Were b. Is c. Be d. Was 40. “You can’t tell a book by it’s cover” is an old adage. a. A book b. An old c. It’s cover d. Can’t 41. Which word is not used correctly? It sure ain’t going to rain during the next playoff. a. Ain’t b. During c. Sure d. Playoff 42. Which sentence is not grammatically correct? a. Because I want to go to the movies later, I am going to due my homework. 43. Which sentence is grammatically correct? a. The nurse did not think the symptoms warranted an emergency room visit. b. The nurse did not think the symptoms should have an emergency room visit. c. The nurse did not think the symptoms guaranteed an emergency room visit. d. The nurse did not think the symptoms desired an emergency room visit. 44. The client’s hospital stay was prolonged, do to a superinfection. a. Do to b. Stay was c. Client’s d. Superinfection 45. You should always do the write thing. a. Do b. Always c. Write d. Should 46. “There are 3 things to remember for the test: Vocabulary, Grammar, and Spelling.” a. For b. And c. their d. : 47. Which sentence is not grammatically correct? a. The teacher and the student knew that he was wrong. b. The door swung shut before the group existed the theater. c. Animals know instantly when an earthquake is about to begin. d. Everyone applauded when the actors came onto the stage. 48. What is the correct contraction for “They are”? a. Their b. They’re c. The’re d. No contraction used 49. Economics my least favorite subject at school. a. Is b. Been c. Am d. Are 50. What is the correct contraction for “will not”? a. Won’t b. Willn’t c. Wouldn’t d. Will’nt 51. “He went form being skinny to a very strong man.” a. To a b. Very strong c. Being d. Went form 52. As we celebrated the start of the evening festivities, our glasses and a toast was made by our host. a. Were risen b. Were rose c. Were raised d. Arose 53. When a person finds in a stressful situation, it helps to breathe deeply. a. Themselves b. Itself c. Yourself d. Oneself 54. Everyone thought that was the test of the whole course. a. Most easiest b. Easiest c. Easy d. Most easy 55. Which sentence uses etc. grammatically correct? a. The list included diseases such as flu, measles, etc. Vocabulary NB: Answer Keys are after the Questions 1. The patient made a of arranging the food on his plate a. Formal b. Ritualistic c. Formalizing d. Ritual 2. After becoming invalid . . . a. Dejected b. Shamefully fearful c. Injured d. Symbiotic 3. What is another word for aegis? a. Relationship b. Respectability c. Ramifications d. Responsibility 4. Someone who is frustrated/annoyed is? a. Exacerbated b. Transient c. Lithe d. Terse 5. Another word for strict is? a. Stringent b. Daily c. Weekly d. Nominal 6. Another word for adhere is ? a. Remain intact b. Loosen c. Hold fast d. Position next to 7. Another word for contemplating is? a. Impasse b. Impartial c. Pondering d. Emending 8. Which word means to think about something before making a decision? a. Imply b. Transgress c. Allay d. Ruminate 9. Another word for ubiquitous is? a. Widespread b. Last demand [Show Less]
HESI A2 V1 Exam Questions with Answers (All Correct) HESI A2 VERSION 1 READING COMPEHENSION Have you ever wondered why the whistle of a traveling, distan... [Show More] t locomotive predicts its approach several yards before anyone actually sees it? Or why an oncoming ambulance’s screaming siren is heard momentarily several feet before the ambulance comes into full view, before it passes you, and why its siren is still heard faintly well after the ambulance is out of sight? What you are witnessing is a scientific phenomenon known as the Doppler effect. What takes place is truly remarkable. In both of these instances, when the train or ambulance moves toward the sound waves in front of it, the sound waves are pulled closer together and have a higher frequency. In either instance, the listener positioned in front of the moving object hears a higher pitch. The ambulance and locomotive are progressively moving away from the sound waves behind them, causing the waves to be farther apart and to have a lower frequency. These fast- approaching modes of transportation distance themselves past the listener, who hears a lower pitch. 1. Which statement is not listed as a detail in the passage? A. The oncoming sound waves have a higher pitch because of high frequency and closeness of waves. B. The oncoming sound waves have a higher pitch because of low frequency and closeness of waves. C. The whistling sound of the locomotive as it approaches and passes can be explained by the Doppler effect. D. The high-pitched sound of the ambulance as it approaches and passes can be explained by the Doppler effect. 2. What is the main idea of the passage? A. Trains and ambulances make distinctly loud noises. B. Low-frequency waves make high-pitched sounds. C. High-frequency waves make low-pitched sounds. D. The Doppler effect explains the rationale for why sound is heard initially more strongly and then faintly after a moving object has passed. 3. What is the meaning of the word phenomenon in the second paragraph? A. Something that is lifeless to the senses B. Something that is nonchalant C. Something that is significant but unusual D. Something that is chemical in origin 4. What is the author’s primary purpose in writing this essay? A. To entertain the reader with information about trains and ambulances B. To inform the reader about avoiding accidents, which involve trains and ambulances C. To inform the reader about how movement affects sound D. To analyze the difference between train and ambulance sounds 5. Which sound waves have a higher pitch? A. Those waves that are closer together B. Those waves that are farther apart C. Those waves that travel a long distance D. Those waves that travel a short distance 6. Which sound waves have a lower pitch? A. Those waves that are closer together B. Those waves that are farther apart C. Those waves that travel a long distance D. Those waves that travel a short distance Beep!…Beep!…Beep! is the audible rhythmic sound made as the strength of the heart muscle is measured. The signal cadence has a characteristic record that varies in every individual. This record is called an electrocardiogram, or ECG. In the body, an array of systemic neural responses constantly occur, emitting electric currents. The electric currents can be detected on the surface of the body, and if a person is hooked to an amplifier, these impulses are recorded by an electrocardiograph. Most of the information obtained is about the heart because the heart sends out electric currents in waves. This “wave of excitation” spreads through the heart wall and is accompanied by electric changes. The wave takes place in three distinct steps. Initially, the “wave of excitation” accompanied by an electric change lasts for approximately 1 to 2 seconds after the contraction of the cardiac muscle. The electric impulses are discharged rhythmically from the sinoatrial (SA) node, the pacemaker of the heart. This spread of excitation over the muscle of the atrium indicates that the atrium has contracted. Next, the peak of the ECG reading is due to the atrioventricular (AV) node, causing the ventricle to become excited. Finally, the ventricles relax, and any changes in the wave indicate to trained medical staff any abnormalities within the heart. 7. What is the author’s primary purpose in writing the essay? A. To persuade the reader to have an ECG B. To entertain the reader with a heart-warming story C. To inform the reader how an electrocardiograph reads the electric currents emitted by the heart D. To analyze the difference in the SA node and the AV node 8. Which statement is not listed as a detail within the passage? A. Changes in the ECG are typically used for diagnosis of abnormal cardiac rhythm. B. The signal has a characteristic record called the electrocardiogram. C. The “wave of excitation” starts at the SA node. D. The “wave of excitation” spreads through the heart wall and is accompanied by electric changes. 9. What is the meaning of the word emitting as it is used in the second paragraph? A. Repelling B. Releasing C. Closing D. Charging 10. What is the main idea of the passage? A. Electric currents within the body are due to electrostatic charges set off by the heart. B. The ECG systematically and quickly measures the stages at which the “wave of excitation” occurs within the heart and records them. C. The “wave of excitation” is detected on the surface of the body and is used to measure the atrial excitation of the heart. D. The electric currents within the body are in direct relation to the “wave of excitation” measured by the ECG. 11. What is the best summary of the passage? A. Electric currents within the body are due to electrostatic charges set off by the heart. Medical staff are trained to recognize any abnormalities within the heart. B. Every individual has unique electric currents on the surface of the body. The ECG measures and records these electric currents. C. The ECG systematically and rather quickly measures the stages at which the “wave of excitation” occurs within the heart and records them. This wave has three distinct steps that spread from the SA node to the AV node. D. The ECG measures the electric currents within the body. These currents are detected on the surface of the body when the body is connected to an amplifier. 12. What are the three steps of the “wave of excitation”? A. The discharge from the SA node, the peak ECG, and the excitement of the ventricle. B. The excitement of the ventricle, the relaxing of the ventricle, and the systemic neural response. C. The contraction of the atrium, the relaxation of the atrium, and the contraction of the ventricle. D. The excitation of the atrium, the excitement of the ventricle, and the relaxing of the ventricle. The body is composed of systems that have evolved and diversified in order to maintain the natural functions and processes they regulate. One such system that has these regulators is the body’s cardiovascular system. The body’s pump, which regulates the flow of vitally needed oxygen to all cells of the body, as well as the discard of carbon dioxide and other waste products, is the heart. Because blood pressure varies at different points within the body, differing components are needed to keep the body’s blood pressure regulated. Three of the basic components are baroreceptors, chemoreceptors, and the kidneys. Baroreceptors are stretch receptors composed of fine branching nerve endings and are contained along the walls of the arteries near the heart and in other areas of the body as well. Impulses are related to this stretching along the arterial walls, which causes these baroreceptors to send out even more impulses to the heart, arteries, and veins, causing the blood pressure to go either up or down. Chemoreceptors are located along the walls of the arteries and monitor changes in oxygen level, carbon dioxide, and pH. Just think! A fall in oxygen causes receptors to send impulses to raise the blood pressure. The kidneys play a role in regulating blood pressure by absorbing salts and water and removing wastes. Hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex cause the kidney to keep or let go of any salt and water. This has an influence on blood volume and consequently on blood pressure. 13. What is the main idea of the passage? A. Blood pressure can be treated only by monitoring baroreceptors. B. Blood pressure can be treated only by monitoring chemoreceptors. C. Blood pressure can be treated only by monitoring the kidneys. D. Blood pressure can be regulated through baroreceptors, chemoreceptors, and the kidneys. 14. Which statement is not a detail from the passage? A. Baroreceptors are rigid and static nerve endings that are contained along the arterial walls and send out messages along the nerve pathway. B. Chemoreceptors are located along the walls of the arteries and monitor changes in oxygen level. C. The kidneys play a role in regulating blood pressure by absorbing salts and water. D. The heart is the body’s pump, which regulates the flow of vitally needed oxygen to cells of the body. 15. What is the meaning of the word evolved in the first paragraph? A. To spread B. To gradually develop C. To revolve D. To shift 16. What is the writer’s primary purpose in writing this essay? A. To inform the reader about the dangers of high blood pressure B. To inform the reader how high blood pressure leads to a higher risk of heart attack C. To inform the reader how the cardiovascular system regulates blood pressure D. To persuade the reader that controlling one’s blood pressure is important 17. What is the best summary of this passage? A. The body’s pump, the heart, regulates the flow of oxygen to all cells of the body and discards waste products that include carbon dioxide. The kidneys help in this process by absorbing salts and water. B. There are several systems to maintain the natural functions and processes of the body. One system is the cardiovascular system, which regulates blood pressure through baroreceptors, chemoreceptors, and the kidneys. C. Baroreceptors help regulate blood pressure and are found along the wall of the arteries. Baroreceptors send out impulses to the heart, arteries, and veins, resulting in the lowering or raising of blood pressure. D. Chemoreceptors monitor changes in oxygen level that affect blood pressure. 18. What is a major difference in the way baroreceptors and chemoreceptors work from the way the kidneys work? A. Baroreceptors and chemoreceptors both work within the wall of the arteries sending out impulses to raise or lower blood pressure, whereas the kidneys help control blood volume. B. Baroreceptors and chemoreceptors both work to help maintain blood volume, whereas the kidneys take care of salts, water, and waste removal. C. Baroreceptors and chemoreceptors must work together to control blood pressure, whereas the kidneys work with the adrenal cortex. D. Baroreceptors and chemoreceptors are both located near the adrenal cortex, whereas the kidneys are located near the heart. The immune system is a network of cells, tissues, and organs that defends the body against attacks by foreign invaders. These invaders are primarily microbes—tiny organisms such as bacteria, parasites, and fungi—that can cause infections. Viruses also cause infections, but are too primitive to be classified as living organisms. The human body provides an ideal environment for many microbes. It is the immune system’s job to keep the microbes out or destroy them. The immune system is amazingly complex. It can recognize and remember millions of different enemies, and it can secrete fluids and cells to wipe out nearly all of them. The secret to its success is an elaborate and dynamic communications network. Millions of cells, organized into sets and subsets, gather and transfer information in response to an infection. Once immune cells receive the alarm, they produce powerful chemicals that help to regulate their own growth and behavior, enlist other immune cells, and direct the new recruits to trouble spots. Although scientists have learned much about the immune system, they continue to puzzle over how the body destroys invading microbes, infected cells, and tumors without harming healthy tissues. New technologies for identifying individual immune cells are now allowing scientists to determine quickly which targets are triggering an immune response. Improvements in microscopy are permitting the first-ever observations of living B cells, T cells, and other cells as they interact within lymph nodes and other body tissues. In addition, scientists are rapidly unraveling the genetic blueprints that direct the human immune response, as well as those that dictate the biology of bacteria, viruses, and parasites. The combination of new technology with expanded genetic information will no doubt reveal even more about how the body protects itself from disease. 19. What is the main idea of the passage? A. Scientists fully understand the immune system. B. The immune system triggers the production of fluids. C. The body is under constant invasion by malicious microbes. D. The immune system protects the body from infection. 20. Which statement is not a detail from the passage? A. Most invaders of the body are microbes. B. The immune system relies on excellent communication. C. Viruses are extremely sophisticated. D. The cells of the immune system are organized. 21. What is the meaning of the word ideal as it is used in the first paragraph? A. thoughtful B. confined C. hostile D. perfect 22. Which statement is not a detail from the passage? A. Scientists can now see T cells. B. The immune system ignores tumors. C. The ability of the immune system to fight disease without harming the body remains mysterious. D. The immune system remembers millions of different invaders. 23. What is the meaning of the word enlist as it is used in the second paragraph? A. call into service B. write down C. send away D. put across 24. What is the author’s primary purpose in writing the essay? A. to persuade B. to analyze C. to inform D. to entertain The federal government regulates dietary supplements through the United States Food and Drug Administration (FDA). The regulations for dietary supplements are not the same as those for prescription or over-the-counter drugs. In general, the regulations for dietary supplements are less strict. To begin with, a manufacturer does not have to prove the safety and effectiveness of a dietary supplement before it is marketed. A manufacturer is permitted to say that a dietary supplement addresses a nutrient deficiency, supports health, or is linked to a particular body function (such as immunity), if there is research to support the claim. Such a claim must be followed by the words “This statement has not been evaluated by the Food and Drug Administration. This product is not intended to diagnose, treat, cure, or prevent any disease.” Also, manufacturers are expected to follow certain good manufacturing practices (GMPs) to ensure that dietary supplements are processed consistently and meet quality standards. Requirements for GMPs went into effect in 2008 for large manufacturers and are being phased in for small manufacturers through 2010. Once a dietary supplement is on the market, the FDA monitors safety and product information, such as label claims and package inserts. If it finds a product to be unsafe, it can take action against the manufacturer and/or distributor and may issue a warning or require that the product be removed from the marketplace. The Federal Trade Commission (FTC) is responsible for regulating product advertising; it requires that all information be truthful and not misleading. The federal government has taken legal action against a number of dietary supplement promoters or Web sites that promote or sell dietary supplements because they have made false or deceptive statements about their products or because marketed products have proven to be unsafe. 25. What is the main idea of the passage? A. Manufacturers of dietary supplements have to follow good manufacturing practices. B. The FDA has a special program for regulating dietary supplements. C. The federal government prosecutes those who mislead the general public. D. The FDA is part of the federal government. 26. Which statement is not a detail from the passage? A. Promoters of dietary supplements can make any claims that are supported by research. B. GMP requirements for large manufacturers went into effect in 2008. C. Product advertising is regulated by the FTC. D. The FDA does not monitor products after they enter the market. 27. What is the meaning of the phrase phased in as it is used in the third paragraph? A. stunned into silence B. confused C. implemented in stages D. legalized 28. What is the meaning of the word deceptive as it is used in the fifth paragraph? A. misleading B. malicious C. illegal D. irritating Foodborne illnesses are contracted by eating food or drinking beverages contaminated with bacteria, parasites, or viruses. Harmful chemicals can also cause foodborne illnesses if they have contaminated food during harvesting or processing. Foodborne illnesses can cause symptoms ranging from upset stomach to diarrhea, fever, vomiting, abdominal cramps, and dehydration. Most foodborne infections are undiagnosed and unreported, though the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention estimates that every year about 76 million people in the United States become ill from pathogens in food. About 5,000 of these people die. Harmful bacteria are the most common cause of foodborne illness. Some bacteria may be present at the point of purchase. Raw foods are the most common source of foodborne illnesses because they are not sterile; examples include raw meat and poultry contaminated during slaughter. Seafood may become contaminated during harvest or processing. One in 10,000 eggs may be contaminated with Salmonella inside the shell. Produce, such as spinach, lettuce, tomatoes, sprouts, and melons, can become contaminated with Salmonella, Shigella, or Escherichia coli (E. coli). Contamination can occur during growing, harvesting, processing, storing, shipping, or final preparation. Sources of produce contamination vary, as these foods are grown in soil and can become contaminated during growth, processing, or distribution. Contamination may also occur during food preparation in a restaurant or a home kitchen. The most common form of contamination from handled foods is the calicivirus, also called the Norwalk-like virus. When food is cooked and left out for more than two hours at room temperature, bacteria can multiply quickly. Most bacteria don’t produce an odor or change in color or texture, so they can be impossible to detect. Freezing food slows or stops bacteria’s growth, but does not destroy the bacteria. The microbes can become reactivated when the food is thawed. Refrigeration also can slow the growth of some bacteria. Thorough cooking is required to destroy the bacteria. 29. What is the subject of the passage? A. foodborne illnesses B. the dangers of uncooked food C. bacteria D. proper food preparation 30. Which statement is not a detail from the passage? A. Every year, more than 70 million Americans contract some form of foodborne illness. B. Once food is cooked, it cannot cause illness. C. Refrigeration can slow the growth of some bacteria. D. The most common form of contamination in handled foods is calicivirus. 31. What is the meaning of the word pathogens as it is used in the first paragraph? A. diseases B. vaccines C. disease-causing substances D. foods 32. What is the meaning of the word sterile as it is used in the second paragraph? A. free of bacteria B. healthy C. delicious D. impotent Water is needed to sustain practically all life functions on planet Earth. A single drop of this compound is composed of an oxygen atom that shares its electrons with each of the two hydrogen atoms. The cycle starts when precipitation, such as rain, snow, sleet, or hail, descends from the sky onto the ground. Water that is not absorbed immediately from the precipitation is known as runoff. The runoff flows across the land and collects in groundwater reservoirs, rivers, streams, and oceans. Evaporation takes place when liquid water changes into water vapor, which is a gas. Water vapor returns to the air from surface water and plants. Ultimately, condensation happens when this water vapor cools and changes back into droplets of liquid. In fact, the puffy, cotton clouds that we observe are formed by condensation. When the clouds become heavily laden with liquid droplets, precipitation ensues. 33. What is the meaning of the word composed in the first paragraph? A. To consist of B. To be uniquely discovered C. To be set apart D. To be surprised 34. What is the main idea of this passage? A. Water is formed from the joining of two hydrogen atoms to one atom of oxygen. B. Water is a versatile and important universal solvent. C. The different components of the water cycle are precipitation, evaporation, and condensation. D. Rain is a trivial part of the life cycle. 35. Which statement is not a detail from the passage? A. A single drop of water is made of a couple of hydrogen atoms and oxygen atoms. B. Evaporation takes place when liquid water changes into water vapor. C. Water that is not absorbed is called runoff. D. Condensation fails to happen when water vapor cools and changes back into droplets of liquid. 36. What was the author’s primary purpose for writing this essay? A. To persuade the reader to conserve water B. To persuade the reader that runoff is not the best way to collect water C. To analyze different types of runoff D. To inform the reader about the stages of the water cycle 37. What can the reader conclude from this passage about ponds and lakes? A. They are examples of groundwater reservoirs. B. They are not important in the collection of runoff. C. They do not play a role in water collection. D. They consist of only water collected through precipitation. 38. Knowing that the cooling of water vapor results in condensation, one could conclude that is/are a factor in the evaporation process. A. Humidity B. Heat C. Electrons D. Runoff Searching for medical information can be confusing, especially for first-timers. However, if you are patient and stick to it, you can find a wealth of information. Your community library is a good place to start your search for medical information. Before going to the library, you may find it helpful to make a list of topics you want information about and questions you have. Your list of topics and questions will make it easier for the librarian to direct you to the best resources. Many community libraries have a collection of basic medical references. These references may include medical dictionaries or encyclopedias, drug information handbooks, basic medical and nursing textbooks, and directories of physicians and medical specialists (listings of doctors). You may also find magazine articles on a certain topic. Look in the Reader’s Guide to Periodical Literature for articles on health and medicine from consumer magazines. Infotrac, a CD-ROM computer database available at libraries or on the Web, indexes hundreds of popular magazines and newspapers, as well as medical journals such as the Journal of the American Medical Association and New England Journal of Medicine. Your library may also carry searchable computer databases of medical journal articles, including MEDLINE/PubMed or the Cumulative Index to Nursing and Allied Health Literature. Many of the databases or indexes have abstracts that provide a summary of each journal article. Although most community libraries don’t have a large collection of medical and nursing journals, your librarian may be able to get copies of the articles you want. Interlibrary loans allow your librarian to request a copy of an article from a library that carries that particular medical journal. Your library may charge a fee for this service. Articles published in medical journals can be technical, but they may be the most current source of information on medical topics. 39. What is the main idea of the passage? A. Infotrac is a useful source of information. B. The community library offers numerous resources for medical information. C. Searching for medical information can be confusing. D. There is no reason to prepare a list of topics before visiting the library. 40. What is the meaning of the word popular as it is used in the third paragraph? A. complicated B. old-fashioned C. beloved D. for the general public 41. Which statement is not a detail from the passage? A. Abstracts summarize the information in an article. B. Having a prepared list of questions enables the librarian to serve you better. C. Infotrac is a database on CD-ROM. D. The articles in popular magazines can be hard to understand. 42. What is the meaning of the word technical as it is used in the fourth paragraph? A. requiring expert knowledge B. incomplete C. foreign D. plagiarized Lub-dub! Lub-dub! Lub-dub! This sound is made by the rapid contracting and extending of the chamber doors on the inside of the heart. This ventricular contracting injects roughly 70 mL of blood into a vascular system with a given volume at differing pressure. Blood pressure refers to the pressure in the arterial system; and it is typically taken in the brachial artery of the arm because the pressure at different places along the circulatory route is different. Blood pressure is simply the force that the blood exerts in all directions within any given area and is the basis for the movement of blood from the heart, through the body, and back to the heart. This pressure is commonly expressed as a ratio of the systolic pressure over the diastolic pressure. The systolic pressure or “high peak” pressure takes place within the arterial system as ventricles contract and force blood into the arteries. The diastolic pressure or “low peak” pressure takes place within this arterial system just before the next ventricular contraction. An increase in blood pressure can occur if the arterial walls lose some of their elasticity with age or disease. [Show Less]
HESI A2 Math and Anatomy & Physiology HESI A2 Math and A&P 1. 474 + 2038 = A. 2512 B. 2412 C. 2521 D. 2502 2. 32,788 + 1693 = A. 33,481 ... [Show More] B. 32,383 C. 34,481 D. 36,481 3. 3703 – 1849 = A. 1954 B. 1854 C. 1974 D. 1794 4. 4790 – 2974 = A. 1816 B. 1917 C. 2109 D. 1779 5. 229 × 738 = A. 161,622 B. 167,670 C. 169,002 D. 171,451 6. 356 × 808 = A. 274,892 B. 278,210 C. 283,788 D. 287,648 7. Round to the nearest whole number: 435 ÷ 7 = A. 16 B. 62 C. 74 D. 86 8. Round to the nearest whole number: 4748 ÷ 12 = A. 372 B. 384 C. 396 D. 412 9. Report all decimal places: 3.7 + 7.289 + 4 = A. 14.989 B. 5.226 C. 15.0 D. 15.07 10. 4.934 + 7.1 + 9.08 = A. 21.114 B. 21.042 C. 20.214 D. 59.13 11. A newborn weighs 8 pounds 5 ounces. There are 453.59 grams per pound. What is the infant’s weight in grams? A. 2268 grams B.3629 grams C. 3770 grams D. 3856 grams 12. What temperature in Fahrenheit is 50° Celsius? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is necessary, round to the nearest whole number.) 122° F 13. A nurse works in a military hospital from 1300 to 2000. What time of day does this nurse work? a. Early morning to early afternoon b. Lunch time to midnight c. Early afternoon to bedtime d. Midnight to sunrise 14. A nurse is reviewing the daily intake and output (I&O) of a patient consuming a clear diet. The urinary drainage bag denotes a total of 1,000 mL for the past 24 hours. The total intake is: 2 8-oz cups of coffee 1 16-oz serving of clear soup 1 pint of water consumed throughout the day How much is the deficit in milliliters? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is necessary, round to the nearest whole number.) 440 15. A woman received a bottle of perfume as a present. The bottle contains ½ oz of perfume. How many milliliters is this? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is necessary, round to the nearest whole number.) 15 16. The metric system of measurement was developed in France during Napoleon’s reign. It is based on what multiplication factor? b. 2 a. The length of Napoleon’s forearm c. 10 d. Atomic weight of helium 17. How many meters are in a kilometer? (Enter numeric value only.) 1000 18. How many grams are in a kilogram? (Enter numeric value only.) 1000 19. To convert pounds to kilograms, what factor is used? A. 2.2 B. 0.334 C. 10 D. 22 20.A teacher’s aide is preparing a snack for the class. In order to prepare the powdered drink, the aide must convert the directions from metric. The directions say, “Dilute contents of package in 2 liters of water.” The aide has a measuring device marked in ounces. How many ounces of water should be used? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth.) 66.7 21. How many milliliters are in 1 liter? a. 30 b. 10 C. 100 D. 1,000 22. There are 2.54 cm in an inch. How many centimeters are in 1 foot? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is necessary, round to the nearest whole number.) 30.48 23.A seamstress is measuring a model for a new dress. The tape measure is marked in centimeters. The seamstress needs to convert that measurement into inches. If the model’s waist measurement is 65.4 cm, what is the conversion in inches? a. 25.74 inches b. 166.12 inches c. 32.50 inches d. 17 inches 24. How many centimeters in a millimeter? A. B.1 C. 10 D.100 25. How many centimeters in a meter? A. B. 10 C. 100 D. 1,000 26.A news website allows subscribers to download news articles in different languages. The average number of downloads per day for some of the languages are as follows: English: 5 articles, 150 downloads French: 2 articles, 50 downloads Chinese: 1 article, 75 downloads Japanese: 3 articles, 25 downloads How many articles are downloaded each day? 1000 27.A hospital day staff consists of 25 registered nurses, 75 unlicensed assistants, five phlebologists, six receptionists and office staff, and 45 physicians. One summer day the staff was at only 68% strength. How many people were working that day? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is necessary, round to the nearest whole number.) 106 28.A farmer raises chickens for eggs and meat. Any chicken that does not lay at least one egg a week is moved to the slaughterhouse. The farmer has 765 chickens that can lay one egg each day. Each day 80% of the chickens lay eggs. How many eggs does the farmer collect each day? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is necessary, round to the nearest whole number.) 612 29. Over the past week, 34 baby boys were born at the hospital. This was 54% of all babies born. How many girls were born over the past week? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is necessary, round to the nearest whole number.) 29 30. The doctor tells the patient to cut back on coffee. The patient usually has four 8-oz cups of coffee per day. If the doctor told him to cut back by 25%, how many ounces of coffee can the patient have each day? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is necessary, round to the whole number.) 24 31. Ratio and proportion: 0.8:10 :: x:100 A. x = 0.8 B.x = 8 C. x = 80 D.x = 800 32. Add: 9.98 + 0.065 = A. 10.63 B. 10.045 C. 1.0063 D. 998.065 33. Add: 6 + 12.55 + 5.022 = A. 18.55 B. 23.572 C. 30.025 D. 16.475 34. Add: 23.5 + 7.025 = A. 30.525 B. 30.5 C. 30.025 D. 16.475 35. Subtract: 32.21 − 4.68 = A. 14.59 B. 27.53 C. 1.459 D. 31.742 36. Subtract: 15.7 − 9.8 = A. 6.1 B. 8.96 C. 5.9 D. 4.30 37. Subtract: 10.012 − 0.120 = A. 10 B. 9.012 C. 10.122 D. 9.892 38. Multiply: (7.2)(0.34) = A. 14.12 B. 0.234 C. 7.64 D. 2.448 39. Multiply: (99)(0.56) = A. 99.30 B. 99.56 C. 55.44 D. 199.54 40. Multiply: (88)(7.08) = A. 862.5 B. 88.040 C. 64.252 D. 623.04 41. Multiply: 375 × 2.3 = A. 862.5 B. 750 C. 225.75 D. 1125 42. How many ounces are in 2 quarts? A. 8 ounces B.16 ounces C. 32 ounces D. 64 ounces 43. A shopper spends $75.64 at one store and $22.43 at the next store. The shopper started out with $100.00. How much money does the shopper have left? A. $1.93 B. $5.00 C. $0.72 D. $20.13 44.A worker is filling out his timesheet. He worked 8 hours on Monday, 7 hours and 30 minutes on Tuesday, 8¾ hours on Wednesday, 4 hours on Thursday, and 8¼ hours on Friday. If he earns $14.35 per hour, what will be his gross pay for this week? (Enter numeric value only. Round your answer to the nearest penny.) 15 45. An accountant counts his money and finds that out of 35 bills, 20% are $1 bills, 43% are $5 bills, 6% are $10 bills, and 31% are $20 bills. How many $5 bills does the accountant have? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is necessary, round to the nearest whole number.) 15 46. What number in Arabic numerals is Roman numeral MCMXLIV? (Enter numeric value only.) 1,944 47. 28.19 – 9 = A. 28.1 B. 18.19 C. 27.29 D. 19.19 48. Karen goes to the grocery store with $40. She buys a carton of milk for $1.85, a loaf of bread for $3.20, and a bunch of bananas for $3.05. How much money does she have left? A. $30.95 B. $31.90 C. $32.10 D. $34.95 49. Round your answer to the tenths place: 0.088 × 277.9 = A. 21.90 B. 2.5 C. 24.5 D. 24.46 50. Round your answer to the hundredths place: 28 ÷ 0.6 = A. 46.67 B. 0.021 C. 17.50 D. 16.8 Anatomy and Physiology 1. What mineral is responsible for muscle contractions? A. Chloride B. Sodium C. Calcium D. Magnesium 2. In which of the following locations would the urinary bladder and internal reproductive organs be found? A. Thoracic cavity B. Mediastinum C. Abdominal cavity D. Pelvic cavity 3. What separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity? A. Diaphragm B. Mediastinum C. Liver D. Lungs 4. Which of the following epithelial types is correctly matched with its major function? A. Simple squamous epithelium—secretion or absorption B. Stratified squamous epithelium—changes shape when stretched C. Stratified squamous epithelium—diffusion D. Simple columnar epithelium—secretion or absorption 5. A tissue examined under the microscope exhibits the following characteristics: cells found on internal surface of stomach, no extracellular matrix, cells tall and thin, no blood vessels in the tissue. What type of tissue is this? A. Epithelial B. Connective C. Muscle D. Cartilage E. Nervous 6. Nerve tissue is composed of neurons and connective tissue cells that are referred to as which of the following? A. Osteoblasts B. Neuroglia C. Osteocytes D. Arterioles 7. Which tissue serves as the framework of the body by providing support and structure for the organs? A. Epithelial B. Connective C. Nervous D. Muscle 8. What is the basic unit of life and the building block of tissues and organs? A. Atom B. Organelle C. Cell D. DNA 9. Which type of cell division takes place in the gonads? A. Mitosis B. Meiosis C. Binary fission D. Asexual division 10. In what area of the body would you expect to find an especially thick stratum corneum? A. Back of the hand B. Heel of the foot C. Abdomen D. Over the shin 11. What are the glands of skin that produce a thin, watery secretion? A. Sebaceous glands B. Eccrine glands C. Apocrine glands D. Endocrine glands 12. Skin aids in maintaining the calcium and phosphate levels of the body by participating in the production of which of the following? A. Sebum B. Keratin C. Vitamin A D. Vitamin D 13. Which of the following are functions of the skeletal system? (Select all that apply.) A. Support the body B. Hemopoiesis C. Conduct impulses D. Provide protection 14. The orthopedic surgeon informs you that you have broken the middle region of the humerus. What is he describing? A. Epiphysis B. Articular cartilage C. Perichondrium D. Diaphysis 15. You have been given a sample of tissue that has open spaces partially filled by an assemblage of needlelike structures. What is the tissue? A. Spongy bone B. Compact bone C. Cartilage D. Adipose tissue 16. Which of the following bones is the only moveable bone of the skull? A. Maxilla B. Zygomatic C. Lacrimal D. Mandible 17. Which mineral is responsible for regulating fluid in the body? A. Chloride B. Sodium C. Calcium D. Magnesium 18. Why are skeletal muscles also called voluntary muscles? A. They are under conscious control. B. They are attached to the skeleton. C. They use ATP to energize contraction. D. They are striated in appearance. 19. All actions of the nervous system depend on the transmission of nerve impulses over which of the following? A. Neuroglia B. Efferent pathways C. Afferent pathways D. Neurons 20. Which are the functional units of the kidney? A. Ureters B. Glomeruli C. Nephrons D. Renal capsules 21. What are the two functions of the male and female sex organs? A. Production of all cells and production of hormones B. Production of interstitial cells and production of hormones C. Production of gametes and production of hormones D. Production of gametes and production of interstitial cells 22. In men, spermatozoa develop within the of each testis. A. Seminiferous tubules B. Vas deferens C. Ejaculatory ducts D. Bulbourethral glands 23. Testicular activity is under the control of which hormone(s)? A. FSH B. LH C. GH D. Both FSH and LH 24. Which hormone initiates the preparation of the endometrium of the uterus for pregnancy? A. FSH B. Estrogen C. LH D. Progesterone 25. During pregnancy, what organ produces the hormones that maintain the endometrium and prepare the breasts for milk production? A. Placenta B. Uterus C. Cervix D. Corpus luteum [Show Less]
HESI A2 GRAMMAR HESI A2 GRAMMAR 1. It is required that he the payment immediately. Send 2. He tried to remember that names of all the people wer... [Show More] e there that night That 3. The of this weather was that we all got wet. Effect After having robbed the bank The thief hid at the house of a friend 4. A tuberculin skin test should be read within 24 hrs. administration. of 5. The student for the final exam Was studying 6. My mother and went shopping for clothes yesterday. I 7. She went to the party her dislike for the host. In spite of 8. The accident if the motorist had obeyed the speed limit sign Never would have happened 9. She was so mad at her boyfriend, she on him when he called. Hung up 10. are very ancient people The Chinese 11. If they that the weather was going to be so bad, they wouldn't have gone to the beach. Had known 12. John Kennedy was a senator before he President in 1960. Was elected 13. A synonym is a word a meaning similar to another word. Who have 14. After having robbed the bank, . The thief hid at the house of a friend. 15. After the policeman had ran for several miles, he finally caught up with the man who had stolen the purse. Had ran 16. The man's heart attack scared him badly and he decided having a regular check-up from then on. Badly 17. Based on the principals of asepsis, the nurse should consider a sterile packet below waist level to be contaminated. Principals 18. I will call you when I will get back from visiting my sister. Will get 19. Her mother asked her what would she do after she graduated from she 20. When you add sugar to it, your cup of coffee becomes not only sweet, also fattening. Becomes 21. The sales man recommended that he keeps his receipt for at least a month. Keeps 22. It seem like the sun never shines on Saturday. Seem 23. Of the many people what she interviewed; she chose the one with most experience. What 24. Long before his death, Pablo Picasso had became one of the most important artists in history. Had became 25. Select the sentence in which legal is used as an adjective. He is a legal resident of the United States. 26. The physician started to perform the operation, but the patient was not yet completely under anesthesia. Perform 27. Before his death at age 82, comedian Rodney Dangerfield's motto was, "I don't get no respect." No 28. The mailperson's job is to put the envelope's in every mailbox on the block Envelope's 29. The charge nurse overheard the nursing assistant discussing the private details of a client medical condition with personnel friend in the hospital cafeteria. Personnel 30. The car that he had seen at the Ford dealer was the one that he final decided to buy. Final 31. He had already finished studying at an university when he was called to join the army. An 32. The nurse asked the patient to choose ate items from the menu that are his favorites. Ate items 33. He ate for pieces of fried chicken at dinner, and no vegetables. For 34. The most important things in my life are making money, traveling abroad, and to live well. To live 35. It's true that children depend in their parents for food, clothing and shelter. In 36. Identify the dependent clause in this sentence: The mother dog left her bed as soon as the puppies were asleep As soon as the puppies were asleep 37. Which sentence is grammatically correct? Somebody left his or her jacket on the train 38. Identify the incomplete sentence. While they were sleeping 39. Which sentence is grammatically correct? Sarah plays her new saxophone well. 40. The medication was intended to constrict the pupils. ... 41. What sentence should replace the following incorrect sentence? "This door to remain unlocked when occupied." This door will remain unlocked when office is occupied. 42. Which word is used incorrectly? Which procedure for giving injections were explained thoroughly to the student nurses. Were 43. Which phrase should be moved to the end of the sentence? The painted decided to use the urn as his subject with flowers on the table. As his subject 44. Select the sentence in which snake is used as a verb. The spy had to snake his way furtively onto the train. 45. Which sentence is grammatically correct? Gosh I could have had a V-8! 46. In which sentence is the form fast used as an adverb? The fast car drove over the bridge. 47. An apartment is advertised as being furnished. What does this mean? It is equipped with articles [Show Less]
HESI A2 BIOLOGY (Definitions, Questions & Answers) HESI A2 BIOLOGY (Definitions, Questions & Answers) 1 Why is polarity the most important charac... [Show More] teristic of water? The results of the polarity are hydrogen bonding, a high specific heat value, and its versatile solvent properties 2 A cell from heart muscle would more than likely contain an unusually proportion of Mitochondria 3 What part of cellular respiration produces the greatest amount of atp? Electron transport chain 4 The Krebs and Calvin cycles both result in a net production of what? ATP, NADH 5 Why is it important for cells to undergo mitosis? Mitosis produces cells for growth and repair body tissue. 6 How is information transformed to make a protein? DNA-RNA-protein 7 Hierarchic system of classification Kingdom, Phylum, Class, order, family, Genus, Species 8 Allels Any of several forms of a gene, usually arising through mutation, that are responsible for heredity variation 9 Amino Acids Any of a class of organic compounds that contain at least one amino group, -NH , and are carboxyl group, -COOH: The alpha amino acids , are building blocks from which proteins are constructed 10 Anaphase Begins when chromosomes start to separate. In this phase, the chromosome are considered separate chromosomes. 11 Binary Fission Fission into two organisms approximately equal in size. Type of a sexual reproduction; parent cell splits into two identical daughter cells 12 Cellular Membrane *Most important component of the cell, contributing to protection, communication, and the passage of substances into and out of the cell. *Consists of a bilayer of phospholipids with proteins, cholesterol, and glycoproteins. *Phospholipids are amphipathic molecules, this bilayer creates a hydrophobic region between the two layers of lipids, making it selectively permeable. 13 Chloroplasts *Found in plants and are the sites of photosynthesis *Produce cell energy 14 Chromosomes Compact rod-shaped bodies located with in the nucleus of a cell; contain DNA 15 Codon Three base sequence of messenger RNA ; each sequence of nucleotides in mRNA that base pairs with DNA base triplet. * These code for a specific amino acid 16 Cytoplasm Cellular contents between the plasma membrane and the nucleus includes cytosol and organelles 17 Cytokinesis Division of the cytoplasm into two cells. It is achieved by the motor protein myosin pulling microfilaments of actin in the terminal web of the cytoskeleton. This creates a crease called the cleavage furrow around the equator of the cell, and eventually pinches into two 18 Cytosol Fluid that surrounds the organelles 19 Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) A unique molecule specific to a particular organism; it contains the genetic code that is necessary for replication. *they described a double helical structure that contains the four nitrogenous bases adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine. Each base forms hydrogen bonds with another base of the complimentary strand. A-T, G-C. 20 Electron Transport Chain Series of steps in cellular respiration that produces water and ATP. The energy harvest here is remarkable for every glucose molecule, 28 to 32 ATP molecules can be produced. 21 Exocytosis Membrane enclose "secretory" vesicles form inside cell, fuse with plasma membrane, and release their contents into extracellular fluid 22 Endocytosis Materials move into a cell in a vesicle formed by plasma membrane 23 Glycolysis Anaerobic breakdown of glucose; first step in cellular respiration. The conversion of glucose to pyruvate. This takes place in the cystol of the cell and produces 2 molecules of ATP, 2 molecules of pyruvate, and two molecules of NADH. 24 Lysosomes Intracellular digestion. Packed with hydrolytic enzymes, lysosomes can hydrolyze proteins, fats, sugars, and nucleic acids. 25 Golgi apparatus Cell organelle that packages, processes, and distributes molecules from the ear throughout the cell 26 Vacuoles Membrane-enclosed structures, Plants have central vacuole that function as storage, waste disposal, protection, and hydrolysis. 27 Heterozygous Trait in an organism that contains different alleles 28 Homozygous Trait in an organism that contains identical alleles 29 Hypotonic Solution Has lower concentration of solutes than cytosol, so water enters cells faster than it leaves causing cells to swell and burst 30 Hypertonic Solution Has higher concentration of solutes than cytosol, so water moves out of cells faster than it moves causing cells to shrink 31 Interphase Stage of cell during which growth and DNA synthesis occur 32 Isotonic solution Concentration of solutes same on both sides of membrane, so water enters and exits at same rate and cells maintain normal shape and volume 33 Krebs cycle Series of reactions that occur in the mitochondrion during cellular respiration. For a single consumed glucose molecule, 2 ATP molecules, six molecules of carbon dioxide, and six NADH molecules are produced. 34 Meiosis * The special cell division that takes place in the gonads (the ovaries and the testes). In the process of meiosis, the chromosomes number is reduced from 46 to 23, so when the egg and the sperm unite in fertilization the zygote will have the correct number of chromosomes * Type of nuclear division that occurs as part of sexual reproduction; each daughter cell receives the haploid number of chromosomes 35 Messenger RNA (mRNA) Type of RNA formed from a template of DNA; this functions as a messenger form the original DNA helix in the nucleus to the ribosomes in the cytosol or on the rough ER. Here the ribosomes act as the site of translation. 36 Metabolic pathway Series of linked chemical reactions; steps where reactions take place in a cell *Progressing from a standpoint of high energy to low energy. *All of the reactions are catalyzed by the use of enzymes. 37 Metaphase All of the chromosomes align along the metaphase plate or the center of the cell. 38 Metaphase plate Disk form during metaphase in which the chromosomes align in a equatorial plane of the cell 39 Mitosis * The process in which the DNA is duplicated and distributed evenly to two daughter cells * Type of cell division that produces two identical daughter cells; phases include prophase, pro metaphase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. 40 Mitochondria *Produce cell energy *Found in most eukaryotic cells and are the site of cellular respiration 41 Organelles Any of many cell "organs" or organized components 42 Phagocytosis Process in which cells engulf food particles through the cell membrane 43 Phospholipids Phosphate- containing fat molecule; forms the bilayer of a cell membrane. Consists of two fatty acids of varying length bonded to a phosphate group. The phosphate group is charged and therefore polar. 44 Photosynthesis Chemical process that converts light energy to synthesize carbohydrates. Consists of two separate stages. *The light reaction are those that convert solar energy to chemical energy. The cell accomplishes the production of ATP by absorbing light and using that energy to split a water molecule and transfer the electron, creating NADPH, and then producing ATP.These molecules are then used in the calvin cycle. *The sugar produced is polymerized and stored as a polymer of glucose. These sugars are consumed by organism or by the plant itself to produce energy by cellular respiration 45 Plasma Membrane Encloses and protects cell and contains functional protein such as enzymes that catalyze chemical reactions, receptors and bind ligands and regulate cellular activity, transporters that regulate what enters and exits cell, and cell identity markers 46 Prophase The chromosomes are visibly separate, and each duplicated chromosome has two noticeable sister chromatids. 47 Prometaphase The nuclear envelope begins to disappear, and the chromosomes begin to attach to the spindle that is forming along the axis of the cell 48 Ribosomes *Organelles that read the RNA produced in the nucleus and translate the genetic instructions to produce proteins. *Cells with a high rate of protein synthesis generally have large number of ribosomes. * Ribosomes are found in two locations, Bound are found in Er, and free are in the cytoplasm. The two are interchangeable and have identical structures. 49 Ribonucleic Acid (RNA) Nucleic acid found in both nucleus and cytoplasm of cell; occurs in three forms: mRNA, ribosomal RNA, and tRNA. It is used in transfer and as a messenger in most species of the genetic code. 50 Rough ER Section of endoplasmic reticulum that is covered with ribosomes; responsible for protein synthesis and membrane production 51 Smooth Er Section of the endoplasmic reticulum that lacks ribosomes; functions in detoxification and metabolism of multiple molecules. 52 Steroids Lipid that is a component of a cell membrane; many steroids are precursors to significant hormones. 53 Stop Codon Sequence of bases that terminates translation during protein synthesis 54 Telophase Chromosomes gather on either side of the now separating cell. 55 Transcription *An RNA strand complementary to the original strand of DNA is produced. The piece of genetic material produced is messenger RNA (mRNA) *Process during protein synthesis in which the DNA molecule is used as a template to form mRNA. The RNA strand has nitrogenous bases, identical to those in in DNA with the exception of uracil, which is substituted for thymine. 56 Transfer RNA (tRNA) RNA involved in protein synthesis; transfers a specific amino acid to the ribosomes and binds to mRNA 57 Water * The most significant aspect of water is the polarity of its bonds. It is the polar nature of water that allows for hydrogen bonding between molecules. *Water's high specific heat. This allows water to resist shifts in temperature. *Hydrogen bonding also results in cohesive and adhesive properties. Cohesion id the ability of a molecule to stay bonded or attracted to another molecule of the same substance. Adhesion is the ability of water to bond or attract other molecules or substances. *When water freezes it forms a lattice, which causes the molecules to spread apart, resulting in the phenomenon of floating. *Polarity of water also allows acts as a universal solvent. Water can be used to dissolve a number of different substances 58 Carbohydrates Are generally long chains, or polymers of sugars? They have many functions and serve many different purposes. The most important of these is storage, structure, and energy. 59 Biological molecules The most important molecules are Carbohydrates Lipids Proteins Nucleic acids 60 Lipids Better known as fats, but specifically fatty acids, phospholipids, and steroids 61 Fatty Acids Vary greatly, but simply are grouped into two categories, saturated and unsaturated *Hydrocarbon tail of the fatty acids is nonpolar. Which is important in the function of cellular membranes. The molecules combine in a way that creates a barrier that protects a cell. 62 Saturated Fats *Contain no double bonds in their hydrocarbon tail * Solid *Those that the general public consider detrimental; cardiovascular problems are likely with diets that contain high quantities of saturated fats 63 Unsaturated Fats *One or more double bonds *Liquid at room temperature 64 Proteins *Most significant contributor to cellular function. *Polymers of 20 molecules called amino acids *Proteins are complex, consists of several structure types , and the largest of the biological molecules. *Enzymes are particular types of proteins that act to catalyze different reactions or processes. * Nearly all cellular function is catalyzed by some type of enzyme 65 Nucleic acids Components of the molecules of inheritance. DNA and RNA 66 Metabolism The sum of all chemical reactions that occur in an organism. In a cell, reactions take place in a series of steps called metabolic pathways. 67 Catabolism Phase of metabolism that involves breaking down complex chemical substances into smaller ones; = decomposition reactions 68 Anabolism Phases of metabolism that involves building complex chemical substances from smaller, simpler ones; = synthesis reactions 69 Prokaryotic cells Lack a defined nucleus and do not contain membrane-bound organelles. 70 Eukaryotic Cells Have a membrane-enclosed nucleus and a series of membrane-bound organelles that carry out the functions of the cell as directed by the nucleus. *More complex of the two cell types 71 Cellular Reproduction Cells reproduce by three different processes, all of which fall into two categories: sexual and asexual reproduction 72 Cellular Respiration *Two Catabolic pathways that lead to cellular energy production. As a simple combustion reaction, cellular respiration produces far more energy than does its anaerobic counterpart, fermentation. 73 Sexual reproduction The off spring originates from a single cell, yielding all cells produced to be identical. * Two cells contribute genetic material to the daughter cells, resulting in greater variation. 74 In the hierarchic system of classification, what is the least inclusive? Species 75 A molecule of water is bonded with another molecule of water by what type of bond? Hydrogen 76 Selectively Permeable Allows free passage of many lipid-soluble molecules but selectively controls crossing of ions or polar substances through transporter proteins 77 Passive transport Substances uses its own kinetic energy to move down concentration or electrochemical gradient across membrane until it reaches equilibrium (equal on both sides) does not require energy 78 Simple Diffusion Allows passage of nonpolar substances 79 Facilitated Diffusion Allows passage of larger and highly polar/ charged substances via transports proteins 80 Active Transport Energy- requiring process in which transport proteins move solutes across membrane (up) its concentration gradient. 81 Ionic Bond The force that binds a cation to an ion 82 Covalent Bond Two atoms share electrons, generally in pairs, one from each atom. 83 Cell The basic unit of life and the building block of tissues and organs. 84 Hydrogen Bond A weak attraction between a slightly positive hydrogen atom on one molecule and a slightly negative oxygen or nitrogen atom on another molecule, or between such atoms on different parts of the same molecule; responsible for the cohesion of water and coiling of protein and DNA molecules, for example 85 How do phospholipids function in cells? They are integral components of the plasma membrane 86 Proteins are polymers of what? Amino acids 87 Which of the biological molecules are considered the most significant contributor to cellular function? Proteins 88 Lipids are better known as fats, but what are they specifically Fatty acids, Phospholipids, steroids 89 Polysaccharide Polymer of simple sugars; glycogen, starch, cellulose 90 Atom The basic building block of a molecule that contains a nucleus and orbits 91 Monosaccharides A simple sugar, or sugar monomer, chiefly glucose, fructose, and GA lactose. 92 What protein catalyze different reactions or processes? Enzyme 93 Which of the biological molecules are components of the molecules inheritance? Nucleic acid 94 Aerobic Organism or cells that require oxygen to sustain life 95 Anaerobic Organism or cell can function in low concentrations of oxygen (micro- aerobic) and some organisms exist where no oxygen is present 96 Ionic Bond Force of attraction that holds ions having opposite charges together 97 Isotope Different kinds of the same atom that vary in weight: for a given element, the number of protons remains the same, while the number of neutrons varies to make different isotopes 98 Scientific Method Data Results generated by conducting experimental tests 99 Scientific Method Experiment Implementation of scientific materials and methods designed to test a hypothesis (should include a control group and experimental group) 100 Scientific Method Conclusion Statements based on analysis of test results that discuss evidence to support or reject the hypothesis 101 Scientific Method Hypothesis Potential testable explanation for a phenomenon, based on observations and prior knowledge and experience 102 Scientific Method Observation Use of senses to notice and study a phenomenon 103 Molecule A group of stomps bonded together 104 Scientific Theory Widely accepted concepts based on extensive experimental evidence 105 Element One type of atom [Show Less]
HESI A2 BIOLOGY (Definitions, Questions and Answers) 100% Correct. HESI A2 BIOLOGY (Definitions, Questions and Answers) 100% Correct. In the hierarch... [Show More] ic system of classification, which of the following is the least inclusive? Species After observing an event, you develop an explanation. This statement is referred to as which of the following? Hypothesis A molecule of water is bonded with another molecule of water by what type of bond? Hydrogen Which of the following is a benefit of the intermolecular hydrogn bonding of water? Water has a relatively high specific heat value Water has strong cohesive and adhesive properties Polarity of water allows it to act as a versatile solvent Of all the molecules that are significant to biology, which of the following are considered the most important? Carbohydrates, lipids, protein, and nucleic acids Lipids are better known as fats, but what are they specifically? Fatty acids Phospholipids Steroids What are the two categories of fatty acids? Saturated fats and unsaturated fats How do phospholipids function in cells? They are integral components of the plasma membrane Which of the biologic molecules are considered the most significant contributor to cellular function? Proteins Proteins are polymers of which of the following? Amino acids Which of the following proteins catalyze different reactions or processes? Enzyme Which of the biologic molecules are components of the molecules of inheritance? Nucleic acids What is the sum of all chemical reactions that occur in an organism? Metabolism In a cell, reactions take place in a series of steps called: Metabolic pathways What is the fundamental unit of biology? Cell Which type of cell contains no defined nucleus? Prokaryotic cell What is the primary purpose of the flagella on the surface of cells? Movement of the cell Which cell organelle functions to transport materials from the endoplasmic reticulum throughout the cell? Golgi apparatus Which of the following are the distinct organelles that produce cell energy? Mitochondrion and chloroplast Which component of the cell contributes to the protection, communication, and passage of substances into and out of the cell? Cell membrane The cell membrane consists of a bilayer of phospholipids with proteins, cholesterol, and glycoproteins. This bilayer creates a hydrophobic region between two layers of lipids, making it which of the following? Selectively permeable What are the two catabolic pathways that lead to cellular energy production? Fermentation and cellular respiration What is the first step in the conversion of glucose to pyruvate? Glycolysis Which step in cellular respiration yields the greatest amount of ATP? Electron Transport Chain During cell respiration, the conversion of glucose results in an overall production of how many ATP molecules? 32-36 What is the function of water in photosynthesis? Supply electrons in the light reactions Cells reproduce by different processes, all of which fall into what two categories? Sexual reproduction and asexual reproduction Which of the following describes how a bacterium reproduces? Binary fission Regarding mitosis and cytokinesis, one difference between higher plants and animals is that in plants: A cell plate begins to form at telophase, whereas in animals a cleavage furrow is initiated at that stage During which phase of cell reproduction does the cell divide forming two separate identical cells? Cytokinesis How does meiosis differ from mitosis? In meiosis, each of the daughter cells contains half as many chromosomes as the parent At which phase of meiosis does crossing over occur? Prophase 1 A cell division occurs in a human. The resulting cells contain 23 chromosomes. This is a description of gametes formed by which process? Meiosis If you wanted to determine the probability of a genotype, which of the following would you use? Punnett square Which of the following terms is used to describe the appearance of the organism? Phenotype What is the probability that a recessive trait would be expressed in offspring if two parents who are both heterozygous for the desired trait were crossed? 25% Because genetics is the study of heredity, many human disorders can be determined by studying a person's chromosomes or by creating which of the following? Pedigree Why is DNA important for metabolic activities of the cell? It controls the synthesis of enzymes During protein synthesis, what process uses an RNA strand to produce a complementary strand of DNA? Transcription During the process of transcription, a sequence of RNA is generated in which the RNA base cytosine (C) is inserted complementary to the DNA base guanine (G). Which RNA base is inserted complementary to the DNA base thymine (T)? Adenine Why is polarity the most important characteristic of water? The results of the polarity are hydrogen bonding, a high specific heat value, and its versatile solvent properties. Athletes are often concerned with the question of what they need in their diets to increase muscle mass and strength. What biological molecule would you recommend that would accomplish this? Proteins Which organelle would you expect to be present in a cell responsible for detoxifying multiple molecules? Smooth ER (endoplasmic reticulum) A cell from heart muscle would more than likely contain an unusual high proportion of: Mitochondria Which part of cellular respiration produces the greatest amount of ATP? Electron Transport Chain When plants do not receive enough water their photosynthetic rated drops. This is because: Water is a raw material for the light reactions in photosynthesis Which of the following statements is true about the Krebs cycle and the Calvin cycle? Both result in a net production of ATP and NADH Why is it important for cells to undergo mitosis? Mitosis produces cells for growth and repair of body tissue 72 Chromosomes undergo meiosis. How many chromosomes will be in each gamete? 36 Which of the following shows how information is transformed to make a protein? DNA-RNA-protein What is the typical result of mitosis in humans? two diploid cells How does water affect the temperate of a living thing Water keeps temperature stable What are the products to kreb cycle? Carbon dioxide, ATP, and energy carriers What kind of none connects sugar and phosphate in DNA Covalent bonds What is the second part of an organism;s scientific name? Species How are lipids different that other organic molecules? They are not water soluble What is a cohesive property? Water is attracted to water What is adhesive property? Water is attracted to other substance Which hormone is produced by the pineal gland? Melatonin What is the name of the organelle that organizes protein synthesis? Ribosome During which phase is the chromosome number reduced from diploid to haploid Meiosis I What is the name for a cell that does not contain a nucleus? Prokaryote What is the name of the physical presentation of an organism's genes? Phenotype Which of the following forms of water is the densest? Liquid What is the longest phase in the life of a cell? Interphase What is not found in bacterial cell? Mitochondria What kind of macromolecule is hemoglobin? Proteins Which of the following is not involved in translation? RNA, mRNA, ribosome, DNA DNA Which of the following is necessary for cell diffusion Water How many different types of nucleotides are there in DNA? 4 (cytosine, guanine, adenine, thyamine) Which of the following cell types has no nucleus Red blood cells Which part of the aerobic respiration uses oxygen? Electron transport chain What is the most general taxonomic category? Kingdom What is the name of the process by which a bacterial cell splits into two new cells? Binary fission Name the taxonomical classification of living things, in order of increasing specificity. Kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species Name the 5 biological kingdom monera, protista, fungi, plantae, animalia Name the hierarchal levels of life from simplest to more complex Atoms--> molecules--> organelles--> cells--> tissues--> organs--> organisms --> population --> community--> biosphere What is the lowest level of organization with all the properties of life? Cells What are the three domains of living organisms? Bacteria, Archea, Eukarya Phospholipid bilayer has head and tail Hydrophilic (polar); hydrophophobic (nonpolar) Cytoplasm Semifluid "soup" of proteins, enzymes, dissolved salts, sugars. All the organelles and the nucleus float in the cytoplasm Nucleus Contains chromatin: a combination of DNA and associated proteins Nucleolus an area where synths of ribosomal genes rRNA takes place Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum Sorts and modifies protein chains delivered by bound ribosomes Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum Lacks ribosome; site of lipid synthesis Golgi Body Connects with the smooth ER, completes lipid synthesis and sorters proteins to their correct destination in small vesicles Vesicles Transport proteins and lipid to the cell surface; bring proteins and lipids into cells from the cell surface, digest compounds Lysosomes Intracellular digestion; contain a potent brew of digestive enzymes Peroxisomes Break down fatty acids, amino acids, alcohol Mitochondria A double membrane bound organelle that makes ATP for cellular energy Chloroplast Plants only; a double membrane- bound organelle that makes sugar from sunlight and CO2 during photosynthesis Cytoskeleton Provides cell shape Cell Wall A tough rigid structure made up of cellulose chitin What organelle is responsible for protein synthesis? Ribosome Why is yeast used to make bread rise? Yeast carries out fermentation, producing ethanol and carbon dioxide How is mitosis different from meiosis? Meiosis creates cells with half the chromosomes of the parent cell A cell is in a solution in which the concentration of the solutes is higher inside the cell than outside the cell. What would you expect to happen to the cell? It will swell and possibly burst What is the phloem tissue in plant stems? It conducts the energy of light to leaves Physical factors such temperature and pH can alter enzyme activity because they have an effect on the enzyme's . Shape What kind of symbiosis exists between a pneumonia bacterium and a human? Parasitism Beeswax is an example of what kind of molecule Lipid In which phase of cell division do the chromosome replicate Interphase What happens to glucose during glycolysis? It splits into molecules of pyretic acid How do RNA and DNA derive their names? From the sugar each contains If a bacteria are placed in a strong solution of salt water, they will shrink as water moves out of the bacteria. What is this process called? Osmosis What does an enzyme do? Speeds up chemical reaction Two organisms live in a relationship from which both benefit. What is this called? Mutualism Which structure is found in protists but not in monerans? Golgi apparatus Rod shaped bacteria Bacilli Spiral shaped bacteria spirilla Round shaped bacteria Cocci What is the term for the breakdown of glycogen into glucose subunits? Hydrolysis Hydrolysis The chemical breakdown of a compound due to reactions with water Anabolism Synthesis from simple to complex molecules Catabolism Break down of complex molecules to simpler molecules Which organelle provides storage space for the cell? Vacuole What is a byproduct of fermentation in muscle cells? Lactic acid Telophase Phase of mitosis in which new nuclear membranes form around sets of chromosomes Names a final step in protein synthesis Amino acid bonds Foods with a high salt content do not have to be refrigerated. What natural process prevents these foods from spoiling? Osmosis What is necessary for active transport through a membrane to take place? ATP What are saturated fats saturated with? Hydrogen atoms How many pairs of homologous chromosomes do humans have? 23 What happens to mRNA as it reached the cytoplasm? It attaches to a ribosome [Show Less]
HESI A2 BIOLOGY (100 Questions and Answers) HESI A2 BIOLOGY (100 Questions and Answers) 1. Which movement requires carrier protein but no direct... [Show More] cellular energy? Facilitated transport 2. Which term denotes the movement of glucose molecules from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration? Active transport 3. Plasmolysis is a term describing? Cellular shrinkage, which occurs when cells are immersed in hypertonic solurion 4. The movement of substances from lesser concentration to higher concentration is called? Active transport 5. Which particular structure is present in both eucaryotic and prokaryotic cells? Cell membrane 6. Plant cells differ from animal cells in? The plant cells have a cell wall and animal cells do not 7. Which cell type is characterized by the lack of true nucleus and the absence of membrane-bound organelle? Prokaryotic cell 8. Which organelle is associated with hydrolytic enzymes and is sometimes reffered to as a "suicide bag" Lysosomes 9. Pinocytosis is the process of? Enclosing a liquid substance in a membrane and secreting it into the cell 10. The plasma membrane of the eurokaryotic cell determines selectively which substances can enter and leave the cell. Such a membrane is said to be ? Selectively permeable 11. What primarily determines the shape of cells that lack cell walls? Microtubule and microfilaments 12. Which pair of organelles is responsible foe energy supply to eurokaryotic cells? Chloroplast and mitochondria 13. Whit which organelle is the synthesis of ATP associated? Mitochondrion 14. The plasma membrane is soluble to? Lipids 15. The process whereby muscle cell produce lactic acid is called? Fermentation 16. During aerobic respiration, which one of the following substances is released? 36ATP 17. Noncyclic-photophosphorylation takes place inside the? Thylakoids 18. The dark reaction of photosynthesis takes place in ? Stroma 19. Aerobic cellular respiration is more important to sustaining life than anaerobic because it produces? More energy 20. Which organelle is responsible for oxygen production? Chloroplast 21. An organic catalyst that enhances the chemical reaction is called ? An enzyme 22. The first stage of aerobic cellular respiration is? Glycolysis 23. Glycolysis occurs in the ? Cytoplasm 24. For the aerobic pathway, electron transport systems are located in the ? Mitochondrion 25. Codominance occurs when? Both the alleles in a heterozygote are expressed phenotypically in a individual 26. Mitosis in a single human cell usually results in the formation of ? 2 diploid cells 27. Meiosis in a single human cell usually results in the formation of ? 4 haploid cells 28. If you reproduce sexually, you produce gamets via? Meiosis 29. If you reproduce asexually, you produce offspring via? Mitosis 30. What type of allele is expressed in the phenotype of only a homozygous individual? Dominant 31. The sex of a human child is determined by the sex chromosome from? The father 32. Cell division occurs most rapidly in? Cancerous tissue 33. Which blood type would be a universal donor? O 34. Passage of water through the membrane of a cell is called ? Osmosis 35. Which term includes all others? Organism 36. The kreb cycle produces? CO2 and H2 37. The presence of which substance is most important for all cell activity ? Water 38. The basic structure of a cell membranes is a ? Protein-impregnated phospholipid bilayer 39. Cytoplasmic structures that contain powerful hydrolysis enzymes, which could lead to cell destruction in the absence of surrounding membranes, are? Lysosomes 40. Organic substances made up of several amino acids bound together are? Proteins 41. The smallest known microorganisms are? Viruses 42. The end product of protein metabolism is ? Amino acids 43. Carbohydrates are absorbed into the blood as ? Glucose 44. The substance basic to life is? Proteins 45. The body obtains most of its nitrogen from ? Proteins 46. The basic unit of living organism is ? Cell 47. The diffusion of water through a semipermeable membrane is known as ? Osmosis 48. The process in which carbon dioxide and water are combined under the influence of light in green plants is called ? Photosynthesis 49. A protein substance that initiates and accelerates a chemical reaction is called ? Enzyme 50. Amino acids that cannot be manufactured by the body are called ? Essential amino acids 51. The body's continual response to changes in the external and internal enviroment is called ? Homeostasis 52. The ability of a cell to reproduce is called ? Mitosis 53. The part of the cell necessary for reproduction is the ? Nucleus 54. Proteins are polymers of ? Amino acids 55. In cellular metabolism glycolysis ? Does not require O2 56. Cellular proteins are synthesized in ? Ribosomes 57. In eukaryotic cells, the phase of division that produces two daughter cells is ? Cytokinesis 58. Some substances are transported across cell membranes by proteins known as ? Permeases 59. The cellular organelle where respiratory reactions for the release of energy occurs is a ? Mitochondrion 60. The most efficient cellular respiratiry process, in terms of energy-yield per molecule of glucose, is ? Aerobic respiration 61. A cellular organelle found in typical plant cells but not in typical animal cells is the ? Chloroplast 62. Every cell contains ? A cell membrane and cytoplasm 63. The two organic substances present in chromosomes are ? Protein and nucleic acid 64. Genes may be defined as ? Functional segments of chromosomes 65. The dense mass of ribonucleic acid found within the nucleus is the ? Nucleolus 66. The endoplasmic reticulum may be described as a ? Series of membranes in the cell's cytoplasm 67. The lysosomes of a cell contain many ? Digestive enzyme 68. The mitochondria of the cell are best known as the organelles where ? Energy is released from food molecules 69. The flagella of human cells cause ? Cell movement 70. During the process of diffusion Molecules moves from a region of high concentrarion to one of low concentration 71. The plasma membrane is a semipermeable membrane because it ? Lets only certain molecules through 72. In active transport, chemical substances move from a region of low concentrationto one of high concentration, and therefore they require ? An expediture of energy 73. Phagocytosis is a form of endocytosis in which? The cell takes particulate matter into itself 74. Virtually all chemical reactions of the cell are catalyzed by ? Enzymes 75. The energy is released from an ATP molecule when ? The terminal phosphate group is released 76. Interphase is the phase of a cell cycle in which ? The cell performes its unique functions 77. Chromatids, chromosomes, and chromatin are all simillar to one another because ? All contains DNA 78. The codon is a three-base group of nucleotides that specifies ? An amino acid 79. Protein synthesis in the cell could not occur in the absence of ? Amino acid molecules 80. A molecules of messenger RNA contains ? Exons but no introns 81. Which of the following is the structure of the male reproductive system that stores spermatozoa during the maturation process? A) vas deferens B) scrotum C) epididymis D) testicular artery 82. Which of the following types of hormones stimulates a chemical response to a target cell by diffusing through the cell membrane to bind to the receptors inside the cell? A) fat-soluble hormones B) amino acid derivatives C) hydrophilic hormones D) water-soluble hormones 83. Which of the following is an example of human error in an experiment? A) an imperfectly calibrated scale B) contaminating a sterile sample by breathing on it C) a draft in the laboratory slightly changing the temperature of a liquid D) failure to account for wind speed when measuring distance traveled 84. Within the biologic hierarchic system of organization, which of the following is least inclusive? A) phylum B) order C) kingdom D) species 85. In the scientific process, which of the following is a statement or explanation of certain events or happenings? A) hypothesis B) observation C) experiment D) conclusion 86. Why is polarity the most important characteristic of water? A) the results of the polarity are hydrogen bonding, a high specific heat value, and its versatile solvent properties B) the results of the polarity are covalent bonding, a low specific heat value, and its versatile solvent properties C) the results of the polarity are ionic bonding, a high specific heat value, and its versatile solvent properties D) the results of the polarity are hydrogen bonding, a low specific heat value, and its versatile solvent properties the results of the polarity are hydrogen bonding, a high specific heat value, and its versatile solvent properties 87. Athletes are often concerned with the question of what they need in their diets to increase muscle mass and strength. What biologic molecule would you recommend that would accomplish this? A) carbohydrates B) proteins C) lipids D) nucleic acids 88. Which organelle would you expect to be present in a cell responsible for detoxifying multiple molecules? A) rough er B) smooth er C) lysosome D) golgi apparatus 89. A cell from heart muscle would more than likely contain an unusually high proportion of: A) lysosomes B) mitochondria C) mRNA D) ribosomes 90. The sum of all chemical reactions that occur in an organism is: A) product B) respiration C) metabolism D) synthesis 91. A cell that does not contain membrane-bound organelles or a defined nucleus would be classified as: A) eukaryotic B) embryonic C) prokaryotic D) symbiotic 92. The two catabolic pathways that lead to cellular energy production are: A) fermentation and protein synthesis B) cellular respiration and glycolysis C) fermentation and glycolysis D) cellular respiration and fermentation 93. Which part of cellular respiration produces the greatest amount of ATP? A) electron transport chain B) glycolysis C) citric acid cycle D) fermentation 94. When plants do not receive enough water, their photosynthetic rate drops. This is because: A) water is a raw material for the light reactions in photosynthesis B) carbon dioxide is not available C) water provides the carbon atoms used to make sugar D) not enough oxygen is produced to keep fermentation running 95. How does asexual reproduction differ from sexual reproduction? A) asexual reproduction results in all cells being identical to the original cell; sexual reproduction results in half of the cells being identical to the original cell B) asexual reproduction results in two cells that contribute genetic material to daughter cells, resulting in significantly greater variation C) sexual reproduction involves two cells that contribute genetic material to daughter cells, resulting in significantly greater variation D) sexual reproduction involves one cell that yields all cells produced to be identical 96. Why is it important for cells to undergo mitosis? A) mitosis allows for reproduction with male and female gametes B) mitosis increases variation within the species C) mitosis produces cells that are different from the parent cell D) mitosis produces cells for growth and repair of body tissue 97. 72 chromosomes undergo meiosis. How many chromosomes will be in each gamete? A) 18 B) 36 C) 72 D) 144 98. Which of the following shows how information in transformed to make a protein? A) DNA-RNA-protein B) gene-chromosome-protein C) ATP-amino acid-protein D) RNA-DNA-protein 99. Which of the following describes the gene in which one allele takes a different form from another? A) phenotype B) heterozygous C) homolog D) homozygous [Show Less]
HESI A2 ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY 1. Anatomic position The body is erect, the feet are slightly apart, the head is held high, and the palms of the hands are... [Show More] facing forward 2. Which of the following is a structure found in the upper respiratory? Pharynx 3. A person who has damage to their ulnar nerve will have decreases sensation in Arm 4. Which bone dose not articulate with any other bone? Hyoid 5. Which of the following statements best describe endocrine glands? They secrete chemicals into the blood 6. Diet is important because bone are storage places for Calcium and phosphorous 7. Which organ is part of both the male reproductive system and the urinary system? Urethra 8. Red blood cell production is known as which of the following? A. Hematopoiesis B. Erythropoiesis C. Phagocytosis D. Thrombopoiesis 9. When an individual is under stress, hormones are released. Which of the following is not one of the locations in which hormones are released when under stress? A. Parathyroid B. Adrenal cortex C. Posterior pituitary D. Hypothalamus 10. The central nervous system is made up of all except which of the following? A. Brain B. Heart C. Retina D. Spinal cord 11. The thyrotrophic-releasing growth hormone-releasing, and gonadotropin-releasing hormones are released by which of the following endocrine system glands? A. Thymus B. Pituitary gland C. Pineal gland D. Hypothalamus 12. What is the most visible part of the ear? A. Pinna B. Organ of Corti C. Cochlea D. Ear canal 13. Which of the following is an organ of the respiratory system? A. Brain B. Larynx C. Urethra D. Pancreas 14. The motor cortex helps the brain by monitoring and controlling the body's movement. Where is the motor cortex located within the brain? A. Top, middle portion of the parietal lobe. B. Back of the head C. Front portion of the parietal lobe. D. Around the auditory cortex 15. The heart contains four chambers. Which of these four chambers is the largest and the strongest? A. Left ventricle B. Left atrium C. Right ventricle D. Right atrium 16. Which of the following organs is involved with the immune system? A. Heart B. Bronchi C. Appendix D. Esophagus 17. Which of the following is not a principal organ of the nervous system? A. Brian B. Thymus C. Ganglia D. Spinal cord 18. Where do the endocrine system and the nervous system meet? A. At the pituitary gland and the pineal gland B. At the hypothalamus and pituitary gland C. At the pineal gland D. At the thyroid gland 19. The pancreas is an endocrine system gland mainly responsible for which of the following? A. Proper bone development B. Metabolism control C. Maintaining healthy sugar levels D. Distribution of stored fat. 20. The stomach lining membrane name? The mucous membrane of the stomach contains simple columnar epithelium tissue with many exocrine cells. 21. skin aids in maintaining the calcium and phophate levels of the body by participating in the production of which of the following vitamin d 22. all action of the nervous system depend on the transmission of nerve impulses over which of the following? neurons 23. which hormone initiates the preparation of the endometrium of the uterus for pregnancy estrogen 24. which female reproductive organ's produce oocytes, estrogen and progesterone ovaries 25. the buttocks is on which surface the body dorsal 26. the esophagus is located at which body cavity thoracic 27. which is a hollow organ gallbladder 28. which muscle is included in the quadriceps femoris group vastus lateralis 29. what occur when the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated? cardiac output 30. which hormone is produce by the posterior pituitary gland oxytocin 31. which structure regulat the transport of substance in and out of a cell the cellular membrane 32. a person who damages to their ulnar nerve will have decrease sesutior in which area arm 33. when assessing a female client who describes herself as a vegetarian in the nurse notes that she has an unusual skin color. The nurse should ask the client if she has eaten large amount of: carrot and squash 34. which structure produces B-lymphocytes Red bone marrow 35. how many days is the avarage menstrul cycle 14 36. where in the human body are nutrients absorbed small intestines 37. The central nervous system is made up of all except which of the following? heart 38. The motor cortex helps the brain by monitoring and controlling the body's movement. Where is the motor cortex located within the brain? top, the middle portion of the parietal lobe. 39. The heart contains four chambers. Which of these four chambers is the largest and the strongest? Left ventricle appendix 40. Which of the following is not a principal organ of the nervous system? thymus 41. The pancreas is an endocrine system gland mainly responsible for which of the following? maintain healthy blood sugar level 42. Tough elastic tissues found in the joints that connect bones to bones are called: ligament 43. What mineral is responsible for muscle contractions? calcium 44. Where can the urinary bladder and internal reproductive organs be found? pelvic cavity 45. Nerve tissue is composed of neurons and connective tissue cells that are referred to as which of the following? neuroglia 46. Which tissue serves as the framework of the body by providing support and structure for the organs? connective tissue 47. What are the glands of skin that produce a thin, watery secretion eccrine glands 48. You have been given a sample of tissue that has open spaces partially filled by an assemblage of needle like structures. What is this tissue? spongy bone 49. Which mineral is responsible for regulating fluid in the body? sodium 50. Motor or neurons transmit nerve impulses away from the CNS. efferent 51. What are chemical messengers that control growth, differentiation, and the metabolism of specific target cells called? hormones 52. Which blood vessel where exchanges take place between blood and the cells of the body? capillary 53. The stomach muscle churns and mixes food, turning the mass into a soupy substance called what? chyme 54. All the nutrients that enter the hepatic portal vein are routed where for decontamination? liver 55. In men, spermatozoa develop within the of each testis Seminiferous tubules 56. During pregnancy, what organ produces the hormones that maintain the endometrium and prepare the breasts for milk production? placenta 57. Gland whose secretion is oily- a mixture of oily substances and cell fragments sabasious 58. Sweat gland whose secretion is s primarily water and salts plus contains protein and fatty subsatances apocrine 59. Smooth muscle structure in the skin arrrector pilli 60. What type of joint is the elbow hinge 61. What type of joint is the hip and shoulder ball and socket 62. what are the two most abundant minerals stored in bones extracellular matrix calcium and phosphate 63. The most abundant glial cells found in the CNS that anchor neurons to capillaries and help control the environment around neurons astrocytes 64. What does the adrenal medulla secrete? Epinephrine and norepinephrine 65. Which skin cancer is the most dangerous? malignant melanoma -becaus it matastisizes(spreads) -Cancer of the melanocytes 66. Which skin cancer is moderatly dangerous? squamous cell carcinom -arises from keratinocytes of stratum spinosum 67. Which skin cancer is least dangerous? basal cell carcinoma -doesnt spread 68. What is the only artery in the body to carry oxygen-poor blood? pulmonary artery 69. Chocolate cysts of the ovaries are attributed to . endometriosis 70. tendons connect muscle to bone 71. Where is interstitial fluid found in the body? in the tissues around cells 72. Which lobe of the brain is associated with judgement, planning, impulse control, and social behavior? frontal 73. What does lipase do? It breaks down fats into fatty acids and glycerol. 74. In what area of the body would you expect to find and especially thick stratum corneum? Heel of the foot 75. What two things must be present for a muscle cell to contract? Calcium & adenosine triphosphate (ATP) 76. the esophagus is located at which body cavity a) ventral b) abdominal c) thoracic 77. What is the response of CF cell in the collecting tubules in the nephrons when antiduretic hormone (ADH) is secreted? Water is reabsorbed from the urinary filtration? 78. what is the function of ADH hormone Regulate water balance in the body by controlling the amount of water the kidneys reabsorb 79. which muscle is included in tue quadriceps femoris group a) trapezius b) vastuslateralis c) gastrocnemious d) rectus abdominus 80. the calcaneous is located in whih part of the body the leg 81. Where is the tympanic membrane located? external auditorium canal and tympanic cavity 82. Fats are broken down in the small intestine using which enzyme(s)? Fats also known as lipids are broken down using lipase produced by the pancreas and bile produced by the liver but transferred to the small intestine through the bile duct. 83. What is the only artery to carry oxygen-poor blood? Pulmonic Artery 84. What do ligaments connect? Bone to Bone 85. Is epithelial tissue vascular or avascular? Avascular 86. Which of the following describes the primary function of the respiratory system? A) to create sound and speech B) to take oxygen into the body while removing carbon dioxide C) to transport nutrients to the cells and tissue of the body D) to act as a barrier between the body's organs and outside influences 87. Which of the following is the first step of the scientific method? A) construct a hypothesis B) make observations C) analyze data D) form a question 88. The process of organisms with an advantageous trait surviving more often and producing more offspring than organisms without the advantageous trait describes which of the following basic mechanisms? A) gene flow B) genetic drift C) mutation D) natural selection 89. Which of the following is the group of basophils that produces follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone? A) gonadotrophs B) thyotroph C) chromophil D) pituicytes 90. Which of the following are considered the basic units of the female reproductive system, each containing a single immature egg cell that is released during ovulation? A) oocytes B) follicles C) ovaries D) fundus 91. Which of the following describes the muscular organ that processes food material into increasingly smaller pieces, mixes it with saliva to create a bolus, and creates a barrier to transport food into the esophagus? A) pharynx B) tongue C) diaphragm D) stomach 92. Which of the following chambers of the heart receives blood returning from the lungs during pulmonary circulation? A) left atrium B) right atrium C) left ventricle D) right ventricle 93. Which of the following is the lobe in the cerebral cortex primarily responsible for processing and integrating sensory information received from the rest of the body? A) frontal lobe B) occipital lobe C) parietal lobe 94. Which of the following is an example of adaptive, or specific, immunity? A) inflammation B) fever C) humoral D) phagocytosis 95. Which of the following describes a situation in which research results are consistent with every subsequent experiment, but the test used in the experiment does not measure what it claims to measure? A) reliable, but not valid B) valid, but not reliable C) neither reliable or valid D) both reliable and valid 96. Which of the following Mendellian laws describes how pairs of alleles within genes separate and recombine separately from other genes? A) law of segregation B) law of dominance C) law of independent assortment D) law of predictive traits 97. Which of the following describes how atomic radius varies across the periodic table? A) atomic radius increases from top to bottom and left to right on the periodic table B) atomic radius increases from top to bottom and right to left on the periodic table C) atomic radius increases from top to bottom and toward the halogens on the periodic table D) atomic radius increases from top to bottom and toward the noble gases on the periodic table 98. Which of the following is NOT a tissue layer found in skeletal bones? A) periosteum B) bone marrow C) enamel D) cancellous bone 99. Which of the following sets of valves is primarily responsible for preventing blood flow from major blood vessels to the heart? A) atrioventricular valves B) semilunar valves C) tricuspid valves D) bicuspid valves 100. Bone is composed primarily of which of the following inorganic materials? A) calcium B) magnesium C) collagen D) potassium 101. Which of the following is the primary physical barrier the body uses to prevent infection? A) mucus membranes B) stomach acid C) skin D) urine 102. Which of the following is the connective area where nerve impulses send neurotransmitters across a synapse to a muscle cell to stimulate muscle contraction? A) sarcomere B) tendon C) nicotinic receptors D) neuromuscular junctions 103. Which of the following is the region of the brain that controls and regulates autonomic functions such as respiration, digestion, and heart rate? A) cerebellum B) medulla oblongata C) temporal lobe D) cerebral cortex 104. Which of the following describes the primary function of the pyloric sphincter? A) to regulate the movement of digested food material from the stomach to the duodenum B) to neutralize stomach acid C) to prevent food materials and stomach acid from leaking into other bodily tissues D) to begin the process of chemical digestion 105. Which of the following is the location of fertilization in the females? A) uterus B) fallopian tube C) endometrium D) fimbriae 106. The pineal gland is located in which of the following areas in the body? A) below the larynx B) above the kidney C) at the center of the brain hemispheres D) at the base of the brain 107. Which of the following processes aids scientists in observing a population sample in order to answer questions about the whole population? A) univariate analysis B) inferential statistics C) descriptive statistics D) probability 108. Which of the following biological macromolecules is non-soluble, composed of hydrocarbons, and acts as an important source of energy storage for the body? A) carbohydrates B) nucleic acids C) lipids D) proteins 109. Which of the following is specialized tissue in the right atrium that acts as the heart's natural pacemaker by generating the electrical signal for the heartbeat? A) sinus venosus B) sinoatrial node C) atrioventricular node D) septa 110. Which of the following is a dense, interconnected mass of nerve cells located outside the central nervous system? A) ganglion B) dendrite C) cranial nerve D) pons 111. Which of the following is the primary cell found in the tract of the small intestine? A) surface absorptive cells B) surface lining cells C) parietal cells D) hepatocytes 112. Which of the following describes the general function of cytokines in the immune system? A) they communicate between cells to instigate an immune response B) they inhibit blood clotting during inflammation responses C) they bind to specific pathogens to increase pathogen mass D) they transport pathogens trapped in mucus to be destroyed in the stomach 113. Which of the following describes the path through which air moves during inhalation? A) mouth/nose > pharynx > larynx > trachea > bronchi > bronchioles > alveoli B) bronchioles > alveoli > bronchi > larynx > pharynx > lungs C) mouth/nose > bronchi > bronchioles > alveoli > lungs > trachea D) alveoli > bronchioles > lungs > bronchi > trachea > larynx > pharynx > mouth/nose 114. Which of the following is not a function of progesterone in the female reproductive system? A) expression of secondary sexual characteristics, such as enlarged breasts B) stimulation of milk production in the breasts C) regulation and preparation of the endometrial lining of the uterus for potential pregnancy D) inhibition of contractions of the uterus as the ovum is released 115. Which of the following layers of skin acts as an energy reserve by storing adipocytes and releasing them into circulation when energy is needed? A) epidermis B) dermis C) hypodermis D) stratum basale 116. Neurotransmitters send chemical messages across the gap between one neuron and another in which of the following structures? A) cell membrane B) ganglion C) synapse D) axon 117. Hund's rule states which of the following? A) chemical bonds are formed only between electrons with similar spin B) the attraction between electrons holds atoms together C) a ground state atom always has a completely filled valence shell D) electrons fill orbitals singly and with similar spin before pairing 34) Which of the following is the primary function of the large intestine? A) absorbing digested material into the blood B) nutrient processing and metabolizing C) absorbing water and compacting material into solid waste D) bile production and storage 35) When setting up the above experiment, the scientist has the option of using a separate water filter for each of the three tanks or using a single filtration system that attaches all three and affects them simultaneously. Which of the following filter set ups makes a more valid experiment and why? A) separate filters for each of the three tanks, because this ensures a higher quality of water for each tank B) one filtration system for all three tanks, because this makes filtration a controlled variable C) one filtration system for all three tanks, because this reduces the workload for the researcher D) separate filters for each of the three tanks, because this adds another variable to be tested and analyzed for inclusion in the experiment's results [Show Less]
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