ATI COMPREHENSIVE C/PHARMACOLOGY/FUNDAMENTALS/COMMUNITY HE... - $30.49 Add To Cart
ATI COMPREHENSIVE C 1. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription ... [Show More] for restraints. Which of the following should the actions the nurse take? A. Request a renewal of the prescription every 8 hr. B. Check the client’s peripheral pulse rate every 30 min C. Obtain a prescription for restraint within 4 hr. D. Document the client’s condition every 15 minutes 2. A nursing planning care for a school-age child who is 4 hr postoperative following perforated appendicitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Offer small amounts of clear liquids 6 hr following surgery (assess for gag reflex first) b. Give cromolyn nebulizer solution every 6 hr (for asthma) c. Apply a warm compress to the operative site every 4 hr d. Administer analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hr 3. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first? a. A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring b. A client who has diabetes mellitus and a hemoglobin A1C of 6.8% c. A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities d. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea 4. A nurse is preparing to apply a transdermal nicotine patch for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse tak e? a. Shave hairy areas of skin prior to application (apply to hairless, clean & dry areas to promote absorption; avoid oily or broken skin) b. Wear gloves to apply the patch to the client’s skin c. Apply the patch within 1 hr of removing it from the protective pouch (apply immediately) d. Remove the previous patch and place it in a tissue (fold patch in half with sticky sides pressed together) 5. A nurse has just received change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first? a. A client who was just given a glass of orange juice for a low blood glucose level b. A client who is schedule for a procedure in 1 hr (can wait) c. A client who has 100 mL fluid remaining in his IV bag (can wait) d. A client who received a pain medication 30 min ago for postoperative pain 6. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration? a. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease b. Receiving a high osmolarity formula c. Sitting in a high-Fowler’s position during the feeding d. A residual of 65 mL 1hr postprandial 7. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has Cushing’s disease. The nurse should expect the client to have an increase in which of the following laboratory values? a. Serum glucose level- increased [Show Less]
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam (Latest Versions, Correct Question and Answers)1. A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled to have his alanine amino... [Show More] transferase (ALT) level checked. The client asks the nurse to explain the laboratory test. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse? a. “This test will indicate if you are at risk for developing blood clots b. “This test will determine if your heart is performing properly” c. “This test will provide information about the function of your liver” d. “This test is used to check how your kidneys are working” Rationale: Leadership 7.0. ALT and AST measure you liver function. Creatinine and BUN measure your kidney function. 2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for morphine 5mg IM accidentally administers the whole 10 mg from the single-dose vial. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? a. Notify the client’s provider. b. Report the incident to the pharmacy. c. Complete an incident report. d. Measure the client’s respiratory rate. Rationale: Morphine can cause respiratory depression if given too much. Also you should ALWAYS ASSESS the patient first when a med error is performed to make sure med error doesn’t put the client’s health in risk. [Show Less]
ATI Community Health Proctored Exam. A nurse who is facilitating a support group in a community center notices that one member of the group expresses anger... [Show More] repeatedly. Which of the following strategies should the nurse use to facilitate the group process with this member. Remind the group that everyone should have a chance to participate. Divide the group into pairs and give each pair a topic for discussion. Give the member extra time to compose her thought before expressing them. Focus more on the group members who have a positive outlook. This is a strategy that is often effective with group members who demonstrate angry, hostel, or negative behavior. The nurse should also speak to the group member in private to try to uncover the source of her ongoing anger. Which of the following activities done by a nurse is considered public health nursing? Reviewing morbidity and mortality data for the community. Caring for new mothers and infants. [Show Less]
ATI Pharmacology Exam Latest 2020 (Updated) 1. A provider prescribes phenobarbital for a client wo has a seizure disorder. The medication has a long half-... [Show More] life of 4 days. How many times per day should the nurse expect to administer this medication? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four 2. A nurse educator is reviewing medication metabolism at an in-service presentation. Which of the following factors should the educator include as a reason to administer lower medication dosages? (Select all that apply.) a. Increased renal excretion b. Increased medication-metabolizing enzymes c. Liver failure d. Peripheral vascular disease e. Concurrent use of medication the same pathway metabolizes 3. A nurse is preparing to administer eye drops to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Have the client lie on one side. b. Ask the client to look up at the ceiling. c. Tell the client to blink when the drops enter the eye. d. Drop the medication into the client’s conjunctival sac. e. Instruct the client to close the eye gently after instillation. 4. A nurse is teaching a client about transdermal patches. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands? a. “I will clean the site with an alcohol swab before I apply the patch.” b. “I will rotate the application sites weekly.” c. “I will apply the patch to an area of skin with no hair.” d. “I will place the new patch on the site of the old patch.” 5. A nurse reviewing a client’s medical record notes a new prescription for verifying the trough level of the client’s medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. Obtain a blood specimen immediately prior to administering the next dose of medication. b. Verify that the client has been taking the medication for 24hr before obtaining a blood specimen. c. Ask the client to provide a urine specimen after the next dose of medication. d. Administer the medication, and obtain a blood specimen 30 min later. Chapter 2 1. A nurse is preparing a client’s medications. Which of the following actions should the nurse take I following legal practice guidelines? (Select all that apply.) a. Teach the client about the medication. b. Determine the dosage. c. Monitor for adverse effects. d. Lock compartments for controlled substances. e. Determine the client’s insurance status. 2. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client who states, “I don’t want to take that medication. I do not want one more pill.” Which of the following responses should the nurse make? a. “Your physician prescribed it for you, so you really should take it.” b. “Well, let’s just get it over quickly then.” c. “Okay, I’ll just give you your other medications.” d. “Tell me our concerns about taking this medication.” 3. A nurse is reviewing a client’s prescribed medications. Which of the following situations represents a contraindication to medication administration? a. The client drank grapefruit juice, which could reduce a medication’s effectiveness. b. The medication has orthostatic hypotension as an adverse effect. c. A medication is approved for ages 12 and older, and the client is 8 years old. d. An antianxiety medication that has an adverse effect of drowsiness is prescribed as a preoperative sedative. 4. A nurse is assessing a client before administering medications. Which of the following data should the nurse obtain? (Select all that apply.) a. Use of herbal products b. Daily fluid intake c. Ability to swallow d. Previous surgical history e. Allergies 5. A nurse is working with a newly licensed nurse who is administering medications to clients. Which of the following actions should the nurse identify as an indication that the newly hired nurse understands medication error prevention? a. Taking all medications out of the unit-dose wrappers before entering the client’s room. b. Checking the prescription when a single dose requires administration of multiple tablets. c. Administering a medication, then looking the usual dosage range. d. Relying on another nurse to clarify a medication prescription. Chapter 3 1. A nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin 1g by intermittent IV bolus. Available is vancomycin 1g in 100 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 45 min. the drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10gtt/mL. The nurse should adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.) 22gtt/min [Show Less]
ATI PHARMACOLOGY 2016 A, 2016 B, 2019 A, 2019B Practice questions ________________________________________________________________________________________... [Show More] ________________ ATI Pharmacology 2019 A 1) A nurse is preparing to administer medication to a pt who has gout. The nurse discovers that an error was made during the previous shift and the pt received atenolol instead of allopurinol. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? -Obtain the client's blood pressure. = CORRECT ANSWER When using the nursing process, the first action the nurse should take to prevent injury to the client is to assess the client for adverse effects of atenolol, such as hypotension. -Contact the client's provider. The nurse should contact the provider, who can provide direction to the nurse to prevent injury to the client. However, there is another action the nurse should take first. -Inform the charge nurse. The nurse should alert the charge nurse about the medication error. However, there is another action the nurse should take first. -Complete an incident report. The nurse should complete an incident report, which is used as part of a facility's quality assurance program. However, there is another action the nurse should take first. 2) A nurse is teaching a pt about Cyclobenzaprine. Which of the following pt statements should indicate to the nurse that the teaching is effective? -"I will have increased saliva production." The client should use gum or sip on water to prevent dry mouth, which is an adverse effect of cyclobenzaprine. -"I will continue taking the medication until the rash disappears." The client should take cyclobenzaprine for treatment of muscle spasms. This medication does not affect skin rashes. -"I will taper off the medication before discontinuing it." = CORRECT ANSWER The client should taper off cyclobenzaprine before discontinuing it to prevent abstinence syndrome or rebound insomnia. -"I will report any urinary incontinence." The client should report any urinary retention because of the anticholinergic effects caused when taking cyclobenzaprine. 3) A nurse is assessing a pt 1 hour after administering Morphine for pain. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as the best indication that the Morphine has been effective? -The client's vital signs are within normal limits. Vital signs can be within normal limits for clients who have pain. -The client has not requested additional medication. Clients often do not request medicine even when they are experiencing pain. -The client is resting comfortably with eyes closed. The client might rest with their eyes closed as a method to try to manage pain. However, this does not indicate that the pain is controlled. -The client rates pain as 3 on a scale from 0 to 10. = CORRECT ANSWER The client's description of the pain is the most accurate assessment of pain. 4) The nurse is assessing a pt after administering a second dose of Cefazolin IV. The nurse notes the pt has anxiety, hypotension, and dyspnea. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer first? -Diphenhydramine The nurse should administer diphenhydramine, an antihistamine, as a second-line medication to decrease angioedema and urticaria following anaphylaxis. However, evidence-based practice indicates that administering another medication is the priority. -Albuterol inhaler The nurse should administer albuterol, a bronchodilator, for a client who has dyspnea from bronchospasms during anaphylaxis. However, evidence-based practice indicates that administering another medication is the priority. -Epinephrine = CORRECT ANSWER According to evidence-based practice, the nurse should administer epinephrine first to induce vasoconstriction and bronchodilation during anaphylaxis. -Prednisone The nurse should plan to administer prednisone, a glucocorticoid, for the urticaria following anaphylaxis and to prevent a delayed anaphylactic reaction from occurring. However, evidence-based practice indicates that administering another medication is the priority. 5) A nurse is providing teaching to a pt who is to begin taking Oxybutynin for urinary incontinence. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the teaching? (select all that apply) -Dry mouth= CORRECT ANSWER Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic agent that can cause dry mouth. -Dry eyes= CORRECT ANSWER Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic agent that can cause dry eyes and mydriasis, or pupil dilation. -Blurred vision= CORRECT ANSWER Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic agent that can cause blurred vision due to an increase in intraocular pressure. -Bradycardia Oxybutynin can cause several cardiovascular adverse effects such as a prolongation of the QT interval, palpitations, hypertension, and tachycardia. -Tinnitus Oxybutynin can cause several sensory adverse effects including increased intraocular pressure. The nurse should instruct the client to report eye pain, seeing colored halos around lights, and a decreased ability to perceive light changes. However, tinnitus is not an adverse effect associated with oxybutynin administration. 6) A nurse is preparing to administer PO Sodium Polystyrene Sulfonate to a pt who has hyperkalemia. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take? -Hold the client's other oral medications for 8 hr post administration. The nurse should hold the client's other oral medications for 6 hr before and after administration of sodium polystyrene sulfonate. -Inform the client that this medication can turn stool a light tan color. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate will not alter the color of the client's stool. -Keep the client's solution in the refrigerator for up to 72 hr. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate solution is stable for 24 hr when refrigerated. -Monitor the client for constipation. = CORRECT ANSWER The nurse should monitor the client for the adverse effect of constipation and report it to the provider because this can lead to fecal impaction. 7) A nurse is preparing to administer Heparin subcutaneously to a pt. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take? -Administer the medication outside the 5-cm (2-in) radius of the umbilicus.= CORRECT ANSWER The nurse should administer the heparin by subcutaneous injection to the abdomen in an area that is above the iliac crest and at least 5 cm (2 in) away from the umbilicus. -Aspirate for blood return before injecting. The nurse should not aspirate by pulling back on the plunger of the heparin syringe to check for a blood return, because this will cause the injection site to bruise. -Rub vigorously after the injection to promote absorption. The nurse should apply firm pressure to the injection site for 1 to 2 min after the administration of the heparin to prevent bruising. -Place a pressure dressing on the injection site to prevent bleeding. The nurse does not need to apply a dressing over the injection site if pressure is held for at least 1 min to prevent bleeding. 8) A nurse is teaching a pt who is to begin taking Tamoxifen for the treatment of breast cancer. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the teaching? -Hot flashes = CORRECT ANSWER The estrogen receptor blocking action of tamoxifen commonly results in the adverse effect of hot flashes. -Urinary retention Tamoxifen can cause genitourinary adverse effects such as vaginal discharge and uterine cancer. However, urinary retention is not an expected adverse effect of tamoxifen. -Constipation Gastrointestinal adverse effects of tamoxifen include nausea and vomiting. However, constipation is not an expected adverse effect of tamoxifen. -Bradycardia Tamoxifen is an antiestrogen medication that works by blocking estrogen receptors. Cardiovascular adverse effects of the medication include chest pain, flushing, and the development of thrombus. However, bradycardia is not an expected adverse effect of tamoxifen. 9) A nurse is reviewing the lab results of a pt who is taking Digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following results should the nurse report to the provider? -Calcium level 9.2 mg/dL A calcium level of 9.2 mg/dL is within the expected reference range of 9.0 to 10.5 mg/dL. The nurse should report a calcium level that is outside the expected reference range to the provider. -Magnesium level 1.6 mEq/L A magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L is within the expected reference range of 1.3 to 2.1 mEq/L. The nurse should report a magnesium level that is outside the expected reference range to the provider. -Digoxin level 1.1 ng/mL A digoxin level of 1.1 ng/mL is within the expected reference range of 0.8 to 2 ng/mL. The nurse should report a digoxin level that is outside the expected reference range to the provider for a dosage adjustment. -Potassium level 2.8 mEq/L = CORRECT ANSWER A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is below the expected reference range of 3.5 to 5 mEq/L. The nurse should notify the provider if a client has hypokalemia prior to administration of digoxin due to the increased risk of developing digoxin toxicity and cardiac dysrhythmias. [Show Less]
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 1. A nurse manager is preparing to institute a new system for scheduling staff. Several nurses have verbalized their con... [Show More] cern over the possible changes that will occur. Which of the following is an appropriate method to facilitate the adoption of the new scheduling system? A. Identify nurses who accept the change to help influence other staff nurses B. Provide a brief overview of the new scheduling system immediately before it implementation C. Introduce the new scheduling system by describing how it will save the institution money D. Offer to reassign staff who do not support the change to another unit 2. A client who is febrile is admitted to the hospital for treatment of pneumonia. In accordance with the care pathway, antibiotic therapy is prescribed. Which of the following situations requires the nurse to complete a variance report with regard to the care pathway? A. Antibiotic therapy was initiated 2 hr after implementation of the care pathway B. A blood culture was obtained after antibiotic therapy has been initiated C. The route of antibiotic therapy on the care pathway was changed from IV to PO D. An allergy to penicillin required an alternative antibiotic to be prescribed. 3. A nurse should recognize that an incident report is required when A. A client refuses to attend physical therapy B. A visitor pinches his finger in the client‟s bed frame C. A client throws a box of tissues at a nurse D. A nurse gives a med 30 min late 5. Client satisfactory surveys from a med-surg unit indicate the pain is not being adequately relieved during the first 12 hr post-opt. The unit manager decides to identify post-opt pain as a quality indicator. Which of the following data sources will be helpful in determine the reason why clients are not receiving adequate pain management after surgery? A. Prospective chart audit B. Retrospective chart audit C. Postoperative care policy D. Pain assessment policy 6. A nurse precepting a newly licenced nurse who is caring for a client who is confused and has an IV infusion. The newly licensed nurse has placed the client in wrist restraints to prevent dislodging the IV catheter. Which of the following questions should the precepting nurse ask? A. “Did you secure the restraints to the side rails of the bed?” B. “Are you able to insert two fingers between the restraint and the client‟s skin?” C. “Did you tie the restraints using double knot?” D. “Are you removing the client‟s restraints every 4 hr?” 7. A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has stage III pressure ulcer. The nurse request a consultation with the wound care specialist. Which of the following actions by the nurse is appropriate when working with a consultant? A. Arrange the consultation for time when the nurse is caring for the client is able to be present for consultation B. Provide the consultant with subjective opinions and beliefs about the client‟s wound care C. Request the consultation after several wound care treatment tried D. Arrange for the wound care nurse specialist to see the client daily to provide the recommended treatment 8. A client is admitted wit TB and placed in a negative pressure room. Which of the following actions is appropriate? A. Notify the local health department of the admission B. Place a sign on the client‟s door with the diagnosis C. Ensure that admitting staff undergo PPD skin tests D. Determine who had contact with the client in the last 48 hr 9. A nurse is caring for a client who is unconscious and whose partner is health care proxy. The partner has spoken with the provider and wishes to discontinue the client‟s feeding tube. The provider states the nurse, “I will not discontinue the client‟s treatment. His partner has no right to make decisions regarding the client‟s care. “Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate? [Show Less]
RN VATI Adult Medical Surgical 2019( Score 100%) Download to score A.RN VATI Adult Medical Surgical 2019 CLOSE Question 90 loaded rationals provided Qu... [Show More] estion: 90 of 90 CORRECT • Time Remaining: 00:38:42 • Pause Remaining: 00:05:00 PAUSE FLAG A nurse is caring for a client who has atopic dermatitis and a prescription for triamcinolone ointment. The nurse should assess the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects? Increased pigmentation Topical glucocorticoid therapy can cause the adverse effect of hypopigmentation. Localized hair loss Long-term glucocorticoid therapy can cause hypertrichosis, or excessive hair growth, especially on the facial area. Thinning of the skin MY ANSWER Thinning of the skin and delayed healing are adverse effects of topical glucocorticoid preparations. The client should only apply the ointment to dry patches of the skin because topical steroids can cause atrophy of the dermis and epidermis, which can result in thinning of the skin. Increased sensitivity to the sun The nurse should instruct the client to avoid excessive sun exposure when taking topical fluticasone; however, triamcinolone ointment does not cause photosensitivity. • RN VATI Adult Medical Surgical 2019 CLOSE Question 89 loaded rationals provided Question: 89 of 90 CORRECT • Time Remaining: 00:37:45 • Pause Remaining: 00:05:00 PAUSE FLAG A nurse is assessing a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of left-sided heart failure? Dependent edema The nurse should identify that dependent edema is a manifestation of right-sided heart failure due to right ventricular failure and fluid retention from pressure building up in the venous system. Jugular distention The nurse should identify that jugular vein distention is a manifestation of right-sided heart failure due to right ventricular failure and fluid retention from pressure building up in the venous system. Weight gain The nurse should identify that weight gain is a manifestation of right-sided heart failure due to right ventricular failure and fluid retention from pressure building up in the venous system. Frothy sputum MY ANSWER The nurse should identify that frothy sputum, dyspnea, and wheezing are manifestations of left-sided heart failure. Treatment includes fluid restriction and diuretics to decrease preload and reduce pulmonary congestion. Pink-tinged frothy sputum can be an early indication of pulmonary edema and can be life-threatening. Therefore, the nurse should notify the provider immediately. • RN VATI Adult Medical Surgical 2019 CLOSE Question 88 loaded rationals provided Question: 88 of 90 CORRECT • Time Remaining: 00:37:30 • Pause Remaining: 00:05:00 PAUSE FLAG A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing anxiety as well as numbness and tingling of the lips and fingers. The client's ABGs are: pH 7.48, PCO2 30 mm Hg, HCO3- 24 mEq/L, PaO2 85 mm Hg. Which of the following acid-base imbalances should the nurse identify that the client is experiencing? Respiratory alkalosis MY ANSWER This pH is alkaline (increased) and the PCO2 is decreased, representing alveolar hyperventilation and resultant respiratory alkalosis. Respiratory acidosis This pH is alkaline (increased) and the PCO2 is decreased. A decreased pH and an increased PCO2 indicate respiratory acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis This HCO3- 24 mEq/L is within the expected range of 21 to 28 mEq/L and the pH is alkaline (increased). An increased pH and HCO3- indicate metabolic alkalosis. Metabolic acidosis This HCO3- 24 mEq/L is within the expected range of 21 to 28 mEq/L and the pH is alkaline (increased). A decreased pH and HCO3- indicate metabolic acidosis. [Show Less]
ATI Capstone Pharm Post-Assignment, New 2020.1. A nurse is caring for a client with many different medications who is newly prescribed acetazolamide. What ... [Show More] medications can interact with acetazolamide? Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that is used to quickly lower IOP. It interacts with patients taking high-dose aspirin, quinidine, lithium, phenytoin and sodium bicarbonate. 2. What class of medication is amitriptyline and why is this medication used as an adjuvant medication for pain? Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that can enhance the effect of opioids if used together. It is used in combination with opioids but not as a substitute for opioids. 3. A nurse is preparing to administer ipratropium by metered dose inhaler. What adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for? Ipratropium is an inhaled anticholinergic. Adverse effects include dry mouth and hoarseness. 4. A nurse is caring for a client with asthma who asks if Montelukast sodium can be taken [Show Less]
ATI CAPSTONE COMBO ASSESSMENT A and B. Latest 2020. A Graded.
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